General II

Question 1

Likelihood of cancer if FNA shows “follicular neoplasm”

Answer 1

20%

Question 2

0-6mo audiometry method

Answer 2

Behavioral-Observational audiometry

Question 3

6-30mo audiometry method

Answer 3

Visual Reinforcement audiometry

Question 4

Over 30mo audiometry method

Answer 4

Conditioned play audiometry

Question 5

What foods are associated with latex allergy?

Answer 5

Bananas
Avocados
Kiwis
Chestnuts

Question 6

When should ENoG be performed after facial paralysis?

Answer 6

72h-2w

Question 7

What does the ultimobranchial body develop into?

Answer 7

Parafollicular thyroid cells (calcitonin)

Question 8

What are the Dix-Hallpike findings for BPPV?

Answer 8

With ipsilateral head turn: rotary nystagmus lasting less than 60 seconds

Question 9

Histologic changes following tissue expansion

Answer 9

Increased epidermis

Decreased dermis & subQ

Question 10

What Fitzpatrick skin type offers better laser efficacy?

Answer 10

Fitzpatrick I (fair skin)

Question 11

What is seen in rocker deformity?

Answer 11

Following nasal osteotomies, the inferior bone sinks deep to the superior, creating a stepoff

Question 12

What causes rocker deformity?

Answer 12

Carrying osteotomies superior to the medial canthus

Question 13

What kind of hearing loss is seen with superior semicircular Canal dehiscence?

Answer 13

CHL

Question 14

What nerve carries parasympathetics to synapse in the parotid gland?

Answer 14

Auriculotemporal

Goes from otic ganglion to parotid

Question 15

What is the risk of malignancy for “suspected malignancy” on FNA?

Answer 15

60-75%

Question 16

What is the serum calcium cutoff for an indication for parathyroidectomy in primary hyperparathyroidism?

Answer 16

1mg/dL above upper limit of normal

Question 17

What is the CrCl cutoff for an indication for parathyroidectomy in primary hyperparathyroidism?

Answer 17

30% reduction in CrCl with no other cause

Question 18

What is the age cutoff for an indication for parathyroidectomy in primary hyperparathyroidism?

Answer 18

Under 50y

Question 19

What is the 24h urinary calcium cutoff for an indication for parathyroidectomy in primary hyperparathyroidism?

Answer 19

400 mg/dL

Question 20

What is the bone mineral density cutoff for an indication for parathyroidectomy in primary hyperparathyroidism?

Answer 20

Under 2.5 standard deviations

Question 21

What is the causative organism in oral hairy leukoplakia?

Answer 21

EBV

Question 22

What is seen in CHARGE syndrome?

Answer 22

Coloboma
Heart defect
Atresia (choanal)
Retardation (of growth)
GU defect
Ear defect

Question 23

How should pregnant women with hyperthyroidism be treated?

Answer 23

1st trimester - PTU

2/3 trimester - Methimazole

Question 24

What childhood food allergy is least likely to resolve?

Answer 24

Tree nuts

then peanuts

Question 25

What is seen in Cogan syndrome?

Answer 25

Interstitial keratitis | SNHL

Question 26

What is seen in Usher syndrome?

Answer 26

Retinitis pigmentosa HL Vestibular dysfunction

Question 27

What is seen in Vogt Koyanagi Harada syndrome?

Answer 27

Hearing loss Pigment changes around eyes Loss of eyelashes

Question 28

What is the full path of parasympathetics to the parotid?

Answer 28

``` Inferior salivatory nucleus CNIX Jacobson's n. Lesser petrosal n. Otic ganglion Auriculotemporal n. Parotid ```

Question 29

What is the most common membranous aplasia of the inner ear?

Answer 29

Cochleosaccular aplasia (Sheibe's anomaly) Profound SNHL, CT normal

Question 30

What does T3 on melanoma indicate?

Answer 30

2-4mm thickness

Question 31

What is the N-staging for melanoma (with a/b/c)?

Answer 31

``` N1 = One node N2 = 2-3 nodes N3 = 4+ nodes ``` ``` a = occult nodes b = clinical nodes c = satellite lesions or in-transit ```

Question 32

What disease shows Reed-Sternberg cells?

Answer 32

Hodgkin lymphoma | big owl eyes

Question 33

What nasal lesion shows foamy histiocytes and plasma cells?

Answer 33

Rhinoscleroma Mikulics cells and Russell bodies

Question 34

What are the allergic cytokines?

Answer 34

IL-4, IL-5, IL-13

Question 35

What is an abnormal SP/AP ratio?

Answer 35

Over 0.4 Can indicate third window (PLF/SSCD) or Meniere's.

Question 36

What tests can diagnose SCCD?

Answer 36

``` ECoG = high AP/AP cVEMP = low threshold ```

Question 37

What is the cutoff for abnormal cVEMP?

Answer 37

Less than 65 dB cutoff

Question 38

Which direction does the cochlear aqueduct run?

Answer 38

Parallel to IAC

Question 39

Which direction does the vestibular aqueduct run?

Answer 39

Perpendicular to IAC

Question 40

What does the cochlear aqueduct connect and contain?

Answer 40

Cochlea to subarachnoid space | Contains perilymph

Question 41

What does the vestibular aqueduct connect and contain?

Answer 41

Saccule to endolymphatic sac | Contains endolymph

Question 42

What is the adult dose of epi for anaphylaxis?

Answer 42

0.3-0.5mL of 1:1000

Question 43

What is the peds dose of epi for anaphylaxis?

Answer 43

0.01-0.03 mg/kg or 0.1-0.3 mL of 1:1000

Question 44

Most common bug in pediatric neck abscesses

Answer 44

Staph

Question 45

What is the staging for anaplastic thyroid cancer?

Answer 45

``` IVa = within thyroid IVb = extrathyroidal extension or regional mets IVc = distant mets ```

Question 46

What is seen in DiGeorge syndrome?

Answer 46

``` Cardiac anomalies (ToF) Abnormal facies (hypertelorism, VPI) Thymic aplasia Cleft palate Hypocalcemia (hypoparathyroidism) 22 ```