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ENT > General II > Flashcards

General II Flashcards

1
Q

Likelihood of cancer if FNA shows “follicular neoplasm”

A

20%

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2
Q

0-6mo audiometry method

A

Behavioral-Observational audiometry

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3
Q

6-30mo audiometry method

A

Visual Reinforcement audiometry

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4
Q

Over 30mo audiometry method

A

Conditioned play audiometry

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5
Q

What foods are associated with latex allergy?

A

Bananas
Avocados
Kiwis
Chestnuts

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6
Q

When should ENoG be performed after facial paralysis?

A

72h-2w

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7
Q

What does the ultimobranchial body develop into?

A

Parafollicular thyroid cells (calcitonin)

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8
Q

What are the Dix-Hallpike findings for BPPV?

A

With ipsilateral head turn: rotary nystagmus lasting less than 60 seconds

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9
Q

Histologic changes following tissue expansion

A

Increased epidermis

Decreased dermis & subQ

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10
Q

What Fitzpatrick skin type offers better laser efficacy?

A

Fitzpatrick I (fair skin)

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11
Q

What is seen in rocker deformity?

A

Following nasal osteotomies, the inferior bone sinks deep to the superior, creating a stepoff

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12
Q

What causes rocker deformity?

A

Carrying osteotomies superior to the medial canthus

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13
Q

What kind of hearing loss is seen with superior semicircular Canal dehiscence?

A

CHL

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14
Q

What nerve carries parasympathetics to synapse in the parotid gland?

A

Auriculotemporal

Goes from otic ganglion to parotid

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15
Q

What is the risk of malignancy for “suspected malignancy” on FNA?

A

60-75%

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16
Q

What is the serum calcium cutoff for an indication for parathyroidectomy in primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

1mg/dL above upper limit of normal

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17
Q

What is the CrCl cutoff for an indication for parathyroidectomy in primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

30% reduction in CrCl with no other cause

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18
Q

What is the age cutoff for an indication for parathyroidectomy in primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Under 50y

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19
Q

What is the 24h urinary calcium cutoff for an indication for parathyroidectomy in primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

400 mg/dL

20
Q

What is the bone mineral density cutoff for an indication for parathyroidectomy in primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

Under 2.5 standard deviations

21
Q

What is the causative organism in oral hairy leukoplakia?

A

EBV

22
Q

What is seen in CHARGE syndrome?

A 
Coloboma
Heart defect
Atresia (choanal)
Retardation (of growth)
GU defect
Ear defect
23
Q

How should pregnant women with hyperthyroidism be treated?

A

1st trimester - PTU

2/3 trimester - Methimazole

24
Q

What childhood food allergy is least likely to resolve?

A

Tree nuts

then peanuts

25
Q

What is seen in Cogan syndrome?

A

Interstitial keratitis

SNHL

26
Q

What is seen in Usher syndrome?

A

Retinitis pigmentosa
HL
Vestibular dysfunction

27
Q

What is seen in Vogt Koyanagi Harada syndrome?

A

Hearing loss
Pigment changes around eyes
Loss of eyelashes

28
Q

What is the full path of parasympathetics to the parotid?

A 
Inferior salivatory nucleus
CNIX
Jacobson's n.
Lesser petrosal n.
Otic ganglion
Auriculotemporal n.
Parotid
29
Q

What is the most common membranous aplasia of the inner ear?

A

Cochleosaccular aplasia (Sheibe’s anomaly)

Profound SNHL, CT normal

30
Q

What does T3 on melanoma indicate?

A

2-4mm thickness

31
Q

What is the N-staging for melanoma (with a/b/c)?

A 
N1 = One node
N2 = 2-3 nodes
N3 = 4+ nodes
a = occult nodes
b = clinical nodes
c = satellite lesions or in-transit
32
Q

What disease shows Reed-Sternberg cells?

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

big owl eyes

33
Q

What nasal lesion shows foamy histiocytes and plasma cells?

A

Rhinoscleroma

Mikulics cells and Russell bodies

34
Q

What are the allergic cytokines?

A

IL-4, IL-5, IL-13

35
Q

What is an abnormal SP/AP ratio?

A

Over 0.4

Can indicate third window (PLF/SSCD) or Meniere’s.

36
Q

What tests can diagnose SCCD?

A 
ECoG = high AP/AP
cVEMP = low threshold
37
Q

What is the cutoff for abnormal cVEMP?

A

Less than 65 dB cutoff

38
Q

Which direction does the cochlear aqueduct run?

A

Parallel to IAC

39
Q

Which direction does the vestibular aqueduct run?

A

Perpendicular to IAC

40
Q

What does the cochlear aqueduct connect and contain?

A

Cochlea to subarachnoid space

Contains perilymph

41
Q

What does the vestibular aqueduct connect and contain?

A

Saccule to endolymphatic sac

Contains endolymph

42
Q

What is the adult dose of epi for anaphylaxis?

A

0.3-0.5mL of 1:1000

43
Q

What is the peds dose of epi for anaphylaxis?

A

0.01-0.03 mg/kg
or
0.1-0.3 mL of 1:1000

44
Q

Most common bug in pediatric neck abscesses

A

Staph

45
Q

What is the staging for anaplastic thyroid cancer?

A 
IVa = within thyroid
IVb = extrathyroidal extension or regional mets
IVc = distant mets
46
Q

What is seen in DiGeorge syndrome?

A 
Cardiac anomalies (ToF)
Abnormal facies (hypertelorism, VPI)
Thymic aplasia
Cleft palate
Hypocalcemia (hypoparathyroidism)
22

ENT (10 decks)

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