General Guidelines Flashcards

1
Q

A pervasive, neurologically based development disability of extended duration which causes sever learning, communication, and behavior disorders with age of onset during infancy or childhood.

A

Autism

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2
Q

If the individual making the request does not have or know of a particular professional to contact the interviewing officer or designee may contact agencies organizations for assistance and guidance in obtaining a professional. Those included but are not limited to ___

A

Florida Autism center

Center for autism & related disabilities

Other organizations, medical facility or private counseling center

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3
Q

If all known sources for a professional have been exhausted and a good faith effort has been made to lcate a professional and all attempts were unsuccessful, the interviewing officer ____ interview without a professional present

A

may begin

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4
Q

The legal dept has modeled the social media policies of which agencies?

A

Wellington and new Smryna beach

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5
Q

All city social media accounts and pages shall require approval by the ____ before being required.

A

City manager

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6
Q

_____ Dept will setup and administer any city social media sites.

A

Communications

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7
Q

Whenever practicable, City social media sites must include a statement that clearly specifies 1.___

  1. ___
  2. _____
A

Purpose and topical scope
the City’s social media terms of use and contact information
all posts and content are subject to public record

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8
Q

A minimum of ___ a day, the social media publisher will check the assigned email

A

3

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9
Q

The following images are permissible to post
1____
2____
3____

A

Original images created by city employees for use by the city

Original images created by a professional photograph who has granted the city permission to post such images

Any media the city currently hold a license to reproduce

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10
Q

Many documents on the city’s website are in ____ or ___ format

A

ASCII or HTML plain text

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11
Q

who compromises the Career Development Board

A

Support Bureau Assistant Chief,

NPB Assistant chief,

Professional standards division commander,

staff services supervisor

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12
Q

Police Officer one must have a total of how many years of services?

A

3

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13
Q

PO 1 must have completed how many approved career development courses or a total of ____ hours of approved training

A

3 courses or 120 hours of training

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14
Q

PO 1 must pass physical assessment test in under ____ minutes, as described in SOP 410

A

7 minutes

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15
Q

PO 2 must have a total of ___ years of service including three years as PO 1

A

6 years

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16
Q

Must have completed ___ approved career development courses or a total of ___ hours of approved training.

A

4 courses of 150 hours

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17
Q

Master Officer must have a total of ___ of service as a sworn member of PSLPD , including three years as PO 2 or a minimum of ___ years of service as a sworn member of PSLPD

A

9 years or 15 years

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18
Q

Master Officer must have a minimum of ____ semester hours or must have completed how many FDLE approved classes or a total of how many hours of training.

A

60 semester hours

5 FDLE courses

200 hours

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19
Q

Senior sergeant must have a total of ___ years of service.

A

4 years

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20
Q

Senior sergeant must have a minimum of ___ hours

A

45 semester hours

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21
Q

Must have completed ____ approved career development course

A

4

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22
Q

Master sergeant must have a total of ___ years of service as a sergeant in PSLPD, including four years as a senior sergeant or a minimum total of 15 years of service as a sergeant with PSLPD

A

8 years

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23
Q

Master sergeant must have a minimum of ___ hours.

A

60

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24
Q

Master Sergeant must have completed ____ approved career development courses.

A

5

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25
Q

Senior Lieutenant must have a total of ___ years of service as a Lieutenant with PSLPD

A

3

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26
Q

What does a single white stripe, applied to both sleeves of the uniform shirt describe

A

Police Officer 1

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27
Q

What does a single white stripe with a rocker, applied to both sleeves of the uniform shirt describe

A

Police Officer 2

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28
Q

What does a single white stripe with a rocker and a star, applied to both sleeves of the uniform shirt, and a silver name tag and badge describe

A

Master Officer

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29
Q

What does a gold chevron with a rocker, applied to both sleeves of the uniform shirt with matching gold collar brass describe

A

Senior Sergeant

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30
Q

What does a gold chevron with two rockers, applied to both sleeves of the uniform shirt, matching gold collar brass, gold badge and name tag describe

A

Master Sergeant

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31
Q

What does a brushed gold collar brass, gold name tag and badge describe

A

Senior Lieutenant

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32
Q

the applicant shall submit a memo to the ______ requesting consideration for the appropriate classification

A

Staff Services supervisor

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33
Q

Should a drug test substantiate the use of influence of drugs, the employee shall be immediately suspended without pay for _____ to seek rehab

A

45 days

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34
Q

Upon the expiration of the suspension and before being allowed to work the employee will be given a drug test, if the employee passes they must consent to ____ drug testing.

A

quarterly

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35
Q

An employee must notify their supervisor within no more than ____ working days after being arrested for a violation of criminal drug statute.

A

5

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36
Q

An applicant who has been determined ineligible for hire during the pre-employment process due to a positive drug screen may reapply after_____ from the date of the initial positive test result

A

12 months

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37
Q

A Portable electronic device that is work on a law enforcement officer’s body and that records audio and video data in the course of the officer performing their duties and responsibilities

A

Body Worn Camera

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38
Q

Any dispatched or self initiated activity by any officer to resolve, correct or assist a particular situation.

A

Call for service

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39
Q

Any call for service, consensual encounter, investigatory stop, arrest, pursuit, use of force, search, interview, or any other form of contact with, or observations of, a member of the public or person under investigation or detention

A

Citizen interaction

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40
Q

Incidents requiring immediate notification to the chief of Police, including those that may expose the dept to serious liability, or which may result in heightened community interest is known as what?

A

Critical incident

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41
Q

Name examples of critical inicdents

A

Officer involved shooting

In custody death

Vehicle pursuit resulting in serious bodily injury or death

At fault crash resulting in serious bodily injury or death

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42
Q

Recordings generated by body worn camera equipment that contain evidence of a crime or infraction for use in court, civil litigation or resolution of a citizen compliant

A

Evidentiary recordings

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43
Q

Recordings generated by body worn camera equipment that do not contain any evidence of a crime or infraction

A

Non evidentiary recordings

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44
Q

how many BWC will be assigned to an officer

A

2

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45
Q

The BWC continuously captures a “Pre-event” of ____ prior to activation.

A

30 seconds

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46
Q

What must an officer do if they fail to activate their BWC

A

Notify their supervisor, document the lack of BWC recording in the incident report.

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47
Q

Officers will accurately categorize and label BWC recording no later than _____.

A

the end of their tour of duty or detail

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48
Q

Any use of a BWC video for training purposes must be approved by _____

A

Professional Standards Division Commander

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49
Q

In regards to BWC not being turned on, If it is believed that the incident was accidental or unintentional, the supervisor will submit the information through the chain of command to the professional standard’s division for tracking through the ______ system

A

IAPro Early warning sytem

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50
Q

____ refresher training in the use of BWC will be provided by the staff services training section.

A

Annual

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51
Q

On a _____ the BWC Coordinator will conduct a documented review of at least ____ BWC recording to ensure that BWC recordings are being properly uploaded categorized, and described in accordance with agency policies ad procedures.

A

Quarterly

20

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52
Q

unless otherwise specified, all recordings shall be retained for a minimum of ____.

A

90 days

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53
Q

Vehicle crashes involving an officer, pursuits, and events involving injury to an officer and or citizen or any recording of an event of public interaction the officer reasonably believed could lead to litigation against the officer or PSLPD shall be retained for _____ and disposed thereafter only with approval from the ______

A

4 years

Professional standards division commander or his designee

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54
Q

Recorded evidence associated with an arrest, use of force, criminal investigations, or an internal affairs investigation and or complaint against the officer will be retained ____

A

pursuant to Florida state statutes public records law

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55
Q

All BWC recording will be uploaded to___

A

Evidence.com

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56
Q

Where does crime scene technicians have to return negative film to

A

Records section

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57
Q

All digital images capture by members of this agency will be captured using _____

A

Department owned devices

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58
Q

Any clarified image shall be _____

A

reproducible

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59
Q

Images that are printed shall be submitted to ______ as an attachment to the corresponding report

A

Records section

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60
Q

all requests for copies of video recordings will be made through the ____

A

court laison

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61
Q

A UCI or CSI, if appropriate shall be requested to take photographs and o video calls and or crimes. if a UCI is not available and a CSI call out is not warranted, the _____ will respond to the scene to take photographs or video with their dept issued cell phone.

A

District Supervisor

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62
Q

Photographs and videos of crime scene may be used as part of an approved educational program with the approval of the_____

A

Chief of police

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63
Q

Evidence mailed to a laboratory will be sent by ______

A

registered mail, certified mail, or with a tracking number and with a return receipt requested

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64
Q

All city owned property identified by personnel of the PSLPD for relinquishment must have a completed _____ filled out prior to the disposal of the property.

A

Request to relinquish surplus form

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65
Q

To conduct a strip search an employee must obtain _____ from a supervisor

A

Written authorization

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66
Q

Who is responsible for the procurement, maintenance, and inventory of dept property and equipment

A

Support Services Bureau Chief

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67
Q

is there an expectation of privacy in any dept owned property

A

no

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68
Q

who is responsible and accountable for the care and condition of the property and equipment used by personnel assigned to their division or section

A

Dept supervisor

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69
Q

Defective firearms should be taken to the ____

A

Training coordinator or his designee

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70
Q

who is required to submit a written report to the Professional Standards division Commander whenever any dept owned property is lost, damaged, destroyed, or stolen

A

Division commander

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71
Q

all items $_____ and under do not require a city asset tag

A

4,999.99

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72
Q

Any ____, regardless of price, will be signed for on the employee inventory list

A

camera

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73
Q

Who maintains an inventory of all firearm, ammo, and conducted Electronic Weapons, including city asset numbers

A

Training Coordinator

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74
Q

Who maintains an inventory of all dept vehicles, radars, lasers, and communication radios

A

Fleet and radio coordinator

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75
Q

Any order over $5,000.00 will need at least how many written competitive quotes with quote forms attached.

A

three

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76
Q

Any order over $50,000.00 0 $74,999.00 must be approved by who?

A

City manager

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77
Q

$75,000.00 will require a competitive bid process and must be approved by ___

A

City council

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78
Q

if an employee requests access to any office for which they are not assigned or normally authorized to enter, notification to _______ must be made by the PSA prior to granting access to the requestor.

A

Division/ section commander

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79
Q

Who must be notified if the evidence seal is opened for the Override Key

A

Chief or assistant chiefs

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80
Q

where does the master fob not work

A

Internal affairs and secure areas of the evidence section

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81
Q

Who has the responsibility to maintain that a daily check of the key box is conducted to ensure the key box is secured and all keys are properly accounted for

A

PSA supervisor

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82
Q

Which four people are permitted to enter the PSLPD armory

A

Professional Standards Division Commander

Staff services supervisor or designee

Agency training coordinator

Lead firearms instructor

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83
Q

who is responsible for receiving and recording all subpoenas

A

court liaison

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84
Q

how many days before the court date must a memo for traffic court be submitted

A

5 days before the court date

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85
Q

how much time is needed to serve a witness for traffic court

A

two weeks prior to the court date

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86
Q

Who approves or denies all forms

A

Professional division commander

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87
Q

what is issued to a form that shall be used for general agency wide or multi divisional use

A

An agency form number and implementation date on the lower left hand corner

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88
Q

the frequency and quantity of ordering shall be as direct by ____

A

the appropriate bureau assistant chief or his designee

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89
Q

How many day does an officer have to resubmit a report after it has been rejected?

A

4 days

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90
Q

As it relates to property offenses, in the event that multiple crimes are committed at the same location but against different victims how should an officer document

A

a separate case number will be pulled for each victim

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91
Q

who can authorize a report being incomplete prior to the end of shift?

A

Shift supervisor or higher and needs a reject form with pertinent info

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92
Q

Types of reports that can be taken over the phone are

A

Lost found property

Criminal mischief with no suspect info (Mis only)

Thefts under $1,000 no suspect info

Suspicious incidents with no apparent danger

past traffic complaints

civil matter (child custody)

AOA credit card fraud with no suspect info

Identity theft with no suspect info

Harassing telephone calls with no suspect info

property damage under $1,000

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93
Q

Who can approve officer reports

A

any shift supervisor

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94
Q

how many citation books can be signed out by officers

A

1 for patrol officers and 3 for traffic officers

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95
Q

who issues citation books

A

designated records specialist

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96
Q

who is responsible for destroying traffic citation books

A

records section specailist

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97
Q

what color ink must be used on traffic citations

A

black

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98
Q

which copy of the traffic citation is given to the defendant

A

yellow

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99
Q

who can approve a mailed traffic citation

A

district support lieutenant

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100
Q

what is a sequential nine digit number utilized for the purpose of assigning accountability for all written reports

A

case number

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101
Q

what is a report of or listing of events of police service activities of the dept

A

complaint log

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102
Q

what is a specific event number generated by CAD which is utilized for the purpose of assigning accountability for each self initiated or dispatched activity anyone responds to

A

Transaction number

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103
Q

Misd. traffic offenses may be documented in what manner, unless there is a custodial arrest

A

court information sheet

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104
Q

completed and or corrected reports must be approved by _____

A

the rejecting supervisor

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105
Q

what governs the release of social security numbers

A

FSS 119.071(5) and GG 910.1

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106
Q

what is any corporation, partnership, limited partnership, proprietorship, sole proprietorship, firm, enterprise, franchise, or association that performs a commercial activity in this state

A

Commercial entity

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107
Q

who can authorize emergency/ mass public notifications

A

district or division commander

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108
Q

Who must authorize any request for mass public telephone notifications between the hours of 2100- 0800

A

chief or assistant chief

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109
Q

what is another name for personal computers, electronic mail systems, voicemails, paging systems, electronic bulletin boards and internet services, mobile digital terminals , the PD “Portal, and facsimile transmissions

A

Electronic Messaging Device

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110
Q

Authorized EMD users shall check for Dept or city correspondences received via EMD
____ during their scheduled workday

A

no less than once

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111
Q

The creation and maintenance of a PDALL or PDSWORN or similar file shall be the responsibility of the ____ section.

A

IT DEPT

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112
Q

Data center access control must have

______

A

two factor authentication card reader with a door strike or mag lock and a biometric finger print or a door pin code lock

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113
Q

user terminals shall be locked out after ____ of inactivity

A

30 minutes

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114
Q

how often are passwords required to be changed?

A

90 days

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115
Q

Who can authorize the issuance of a cellular phone to a member

A

Chief Assistant chief or Division commander

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116
Q

How often do electronic messages get reviewed and by who

A

quarterly by the accountability and analysis supervisor through random selection

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117
Q

Who is responsible for recognizing excessive usage of cellular phones

A

supervisors

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118
Q

Those calls requiring immediate dispatch

A

Priority 1

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119
Q

Those calls requiring dispatch within 5 minutes from receipt of the call ( all hazardous traffic accident situations, accidents without injuries, non violent in progress calls, missing person involving individuals unable to care for themselves

A

Priority 2

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120
Q

Priority 2 calls must be dispatched within what time frame?

A

5 minutes

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121
Q

What priority is routine calls for service

A

Priority 3

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122
Q

What priority of calls are to be referred to the PSA where neither suspect, nor the possibilities of physical evidence are present

A

Priority 4

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123
Q

how long can a Priority 3 call hold?

A

30 minutes

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124
Q

how long after x33 status and no response will dispatch contact the officer on scene

A

2 minutes

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125
Q

what kind of law enforcement activity will be communicated to the 911 communications center by the officer

A

self initiated

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126
Q

what is a centralized database for tracking crime related information from numerous law enforcement agencies nationwide

A

National crime information center NCIC

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127
Q

what is a centralized database for tracking crime related information in the state of Florida

A

Florida crime information center FCIC

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128
Q

all written criminal history information released will be logged in the ____

A

Secondary Logbook

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129
Q

Requests from non criminal justice agencies or for non criminal justice purposes should be directed to_____

A

Florida Dept of Law Enforcement FDLE

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130
Q

completed intelligence reports shall be reviewed by ____

A

Special investigations division commander

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131
Q

any person who discreetly provides information voluntarily and whose identity will remain protected

A

Confidential source

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132
Q

A detective/officer who maintains an on going professional relationship with a confidential source

A

Contact officer

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133
Q

A source whose identity may remain confidential and who provides information in exchange for monetary or other lawful consideration

A

Informant

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134
Q

Who shall serve as department liaison with federal, state, and local law enforcement agencies in the exchange of intelligence information under the provisions specified

A

SID supervisor

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135
Q

how often does the SID Division commander or his designee conducted a documented review of procedures and processes of the intelligence function and homeland security

A

annually

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136
Q

where can you you find a copy of the victim right’s brochure that includes Marsy’s law

A

report writing room and lobby

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137
Q

what Act provides mechanisms for aid, care, and support for victims and witnesses

A

Florida Crimes Compensation Act

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138
Q

Personnel designated by the PSLPD to act as a liaison between the agency and victims/witnesses to inform victims and witnesses of their rights and case information, and to assist with obtaining aid and services from community resources

A

Victim assistant and or coordinator

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139
Q

how often shall victim/witness assistance personnel conduct a documented review of needs and services

A

every two years

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140
Q

which type of injunction is eligible to file for an emergency injunction

A

Domestic violence

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141
Q

Where is the only designated location for all victim’s of domestic violence to request an emergency injunction

A

PSLPD

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142
Q

a promotional process announcement will be posted by the executive director at an explorer meeting no lass than ______ prior to the examination date

A

30 days

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143
Q

What is the minimum passing score for the written explorer exam

A

75%

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144
Q

The oral review board is comprised of how many people with no knowledge of any explorer

A

4-5

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145
Q

what age must an explorer be to operate a city vehicle

A

18 with valid license

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146
Q

What is required of an explorer in the event of a downed officer

A

seek safe position and notify dispatch

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147
Q

how often will the community programs division commander submit a report to the SSB chief regarding community orientated policing

A

monthly

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148
Q

How often will the community relations program be evaluated by the community programs commander to determine areas of concern which could benefit from change

A

annually

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149
Q

A business primarily engaged in the sale of groceries, or both groceries and gasoline which is open for business during any hours between 11pm and 5 am.

A

convenience business

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150
Q

how many employees are needed to not be considered a convenience business

A

5

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151
Q

how long must additional security requirements must be in place after a business had an incident

A

24 months

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152
Q

if a convenience business fails inspection they will be given ____ to comply

A

30 days

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153
Q

how much cash is allowed in a convenience store register after 11

A

$50

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154
Q

who is responsible for coordinating and planning any activity of crime prevention program

A

Crime Prevention specialist

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155
Q

how often must the crime prevention specialist conduct a documented evaluation of crime prevention programs offered through the city

A

trennial

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156
Q

what is a clergy or lay person who conducts religious services or provides services of a religious nature to an organizations

A

Chaplain

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157
Q

what role does a chaplain play in an in progress crime

A

notify 911 immediately and not intervene

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158
Q

which FSS governs access as to the release of public records and information

A

FSS 119

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159
Q

No information of any kind will be released, written or verbally, pertaining to an _______ pursuant to state statute

A

Active internal affairs investigaiton

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160
Q

Information concerning Felony arrests of juveniles may be released in accordance with what FSS

A

985.04

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161
Q

What information may be released in accordance to juvenile felony arrests

A

Name, photograph, address, and crime or arrest report

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162
Q

who gives consent for the media to interview a subject in custody

A

Chief of police or his designee

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163
Q

The student intern program will be managed by the _____, who will maintain all intern applications records, files, and serve as the liaison with the student and the student’s intenship

A

District Support Division Commander

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164
Q

the student internship should not exceed _____ or the duration of _____ for the student and may only be extended upon approval of the district support division commander

A

4 months or one semester

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165
Q

Interns who are assigned to “information sensitive” areas may be required to _____ and undergo additional background investigation components prior to assignment

A

Polygraph examination

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166
Q

A set of systematic analytical processes directed toward predicting criminal trends for the effective deployment of personnel and resources and the adoption of appropriate strategies tactics

A

Crime (Data) Anaylsis

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167
Q

A particular way or method that a suspect uses to carry out his criminal activity, especially one that is characteristic or well established

A

Modus Operandi

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168
Q

What is STARCOM

A

Statistical Tracking and Response through Computer Oriented mapping

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169
Q

A synopsis of target crimes, date, location, premises, type, MO, suspects, and vehicle information shall be completed by the crime analysts on a continuous basis

A

Crime Summary

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170
Q

Crime patterns and trends, known suspects, field interviews and photograph requests shall be prepared by the crime analyst on a continuous basis

A

Crime bulletin

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171
Q

What is FSS 943.125

A

Law Enforcement Agency Accreditation.

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172
Q

what is a tool for establishing and maintaining a high level of professionalism by which law enforcement executives can evaluate themselves and their agencies

A

Accreditation

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173
Q

What are the two accreditations at PSLPD

A

Commission on Accreditation for Law enforcement Agencies (C.A.L.E.A) and Commission for Florida Law Enforcement Accreditation (C.F.A)

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174
Q

Who functions as the PD’s staff inspector

A

Accreditation manager

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175
Q

An objective and purposeful observation, evaluation, and review of an activity, event, equipment, personnel and execution of dept policies and procedures conducted by a member or section under the authority of the chief of police

A

Staff inspection

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176
Q

what is the primary purpose of conducting staff inspections

A

to ensure operating and administrative procedures are properly executed and to correct deficiencies

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177
Q

when should inspection reports be submitted

A

30 days

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178
Q

Any property found within an unassigned locker will be removed during inspection. the Accountability and analysis section will make notification to employees advising that property was removed from a locker. how long must the items be kept before being disposed of

A

90 days

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179
Q

Primary authority and responsibility for city fiscal management, accounting and budget execution is delegated by the _____ to the ____who develops and promulgates general procedures for accounting and budget control

A

City manager

Chief financial officer

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180
Q

which section is responsible for securely maintaining all records of police employees pertaining to administrative investigation, citizen complaints, discipline , police involved shootings, and auto accidents, use of force, grievances, employee injuries, and sexual harassment

A

Internal affairs

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181
Q

any complaint received from an internal or external source that requires in depth investigative follow up by the internal affairs section

A

administrative complaints

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182
Q

what needs to be give to a citizen if they wish to file a written complaint

A

Complaint packet

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183
Q

how soon should internal affairs reach out to the complainant after they received a complaint

A

24 hours

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184
Q

how many days does internal affairs have to generally finish an investigation

A

180

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185
Q

what must be given to an officer prior to being interviewed by internal affairs

A

Police officers bill of rights and Garrity warning

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186
Q

what panel consists of three officers, the first selected by the chief of police, one selected by the subject officer and the third selected by the other two members

A

Compliance review panel

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187
Q

Final action summaries will be kept on accordance with the time prescribed by the state pertaining to personnel records, which is ____ after separation or termination from employment.

A

25 years

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188
Q

Which FSS provides that complaints filed against law enforcement officers and all information obtained pursuant to the agency’s investigation.

A

FSS 112.533(2)

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189
Q

The professional Standards Division Commander shall prepare a documented _____ evaluation of the sytem

A

Annual

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190
Q

What three sections make up the professional standards division

A

Internal affairs, Staff services section, and Accountability and analysis Unit

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191
Q

who acts a master administrator on PowerDMS to create employee accounts and update employee information and passwords

A

Staff services administrative assistant

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192
Q

Which FSS allows the victim of identity theft the right to file a report in the location in which the offense occurred or the city or county in which the victim resides

A

FSS 817.568

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193
Q

what is the maximum retention period for an identity theft record

A

5 years

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194
Q

Who validates identity theft records

A

PSA

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195
Q

which chapter of the FSS addresses street terrorism, enforcement, and prevention

A

Chapter 874

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196
Q

What is a formal or informal ongoing organization, association or group that has as one of its primary activities the commission of criminal or delinquent acts, and that consists of three or more persons who have a common name or common identifying signs, colors, or symbols.

A

criminal gang

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197
Q

How many persons must there be for a criminal gang?

A

three or more

198
Q

how many times must a person be observed in a custodial setting to be considered criminal gang member

A

four or more times

199
Q

how many defining criterion for gang membership must a person have to be considered an assoicate

A

one

200
Q

what is an organization whose primary purpose is to promote animosity, hostility, and malice against a person or persons or against the property of a person or person because of race, religion, disability, sexual orientation, ethnicity, or national origin.

A

Hate group

201
Q

what is any organized group engaged in or organized for the purpose of engaging in terrorism as defined fss775.30

A

Terrorist organization

202
Q

what is two law enforcement officers assigned to work together while on Specialized traffic orientated patrol duty

A

S.T.O.P team

203
Q

written report using information compiled after a planned operation which provides a critique of the operations events, both good and bad, and offers suggestions for improvement on any identified issues, which will be submitted within 7 working days after the completion of an operation

A

After action report

204
Q

Roadside checkpoints have a minimum of how many checkpoints

A

three

205
Q

What is the purpose of the first checkpoint in Roadside safety checkpoints

A

utilized to initiate the stope of the driver and vehicle

206
Q

What is the purpose of the second checkpoint in Roadside safety checkpoints

A

utilized for the issuance of traffic citations, warnings, or any violation of law.

207
Q

What is the purpose of the third checkpoint in roadside safety checkpoints

A

utilized for the processing of arrests and conducting inventory and towing of vehicles

208
Q

What is a secondary plan utilized to achieve the goals set by the oprational plan if that operational plan cannot be enacted

A

Contingency plan

209
Q

What is a formalized plan of operation detailing functions, locations, times, manpower needed, assignments, and equipment to obtain a desired goal

A

Operational plan

210
Q

How long should the operational plan for roadside checkpoints and all related documents shall be filed and maintained by the Lieutenant designated to oversee the traffic section function

A

4 years

211
Q

A Person who has committed one of several one “ One is enough” sexual predator offenses as defined by law (FSS 775.21) or any person who has committed a “Second offense” sexual predator offense or a listed sexual offense after having been previously been found to have committed certain other listed sexual offenses as defined in the statuses

A

Sexual Predator

212
Q

what is a person convicted of committing, attempting, conspriing or soliciting to commit any violations as defined FSS 943.0435 and who is released on or after 10/01/1997 from the sanction imposed by reason of conviction of his/her sexual offender offense

A

Sexual Offender

213
Q

What is the only acceptable sexual offender or predator registration.

A

They must make direct contact with FDLE via local Sheriff’s office

214
Q

FDLE sends notifications to agencies in what way

A

Teletype

215
Q

What must an officer do if he is notified during a non-arrestable contact of a sexual offender/predator

A

complete a field interview card

216
Q

The emergency notification system notifies residences within a __ radius of any sexual predator/offender

A

half mile

217
Q

which code mandates that employers establish and maintain a respiratory protection plan for employees in a hazardous respiratory enviroment

A

29 CFR 1910

218
Q

how does an officer check for proper fit of a respiratory mask

A

negative or positive pressure check

219
Q

in regards to respiratory masks, employees should be mindful that experiencing a ____ percent body weight gain or loss or any significant change in facial feature may cause a change in the proper fit of the mask

A

10

220
Q

who determines if a respirator mask should be repaired, discarded, or replaced?

A

training coordinator

221
Q

Any explosive, flammable, oxidizer, poisons, biohazard, corrosive, pesticide, radioactive substance, or other substance in a quantity or form that may pose an unreasonable risk to the health and well being of people, or property and the enviroment

A

Hazardous materials, suspicious materials

222
Q

which report/form should be completed if an officer is exposed to any amount of hazardous material resulting from a hazardous materials incident

A

Hazardous substance exposure report

223
Q

Arrestees during mass arrest situations should not be detained for more than ____ hours

A

6

224
Q

The supervisor who receives a grievance at the initial step will notify who and provide them a copy of the grievance

A

Professional Standards Division Commander

225
Q

how many ounces of smokable marijuana can a patient/ caregiver possess

A

4 ounces

226
Q

Upon completion of the subject resistance investigation, the supervisor will complete what kind of report with their findings

A

Supplement

227
Q

which stairwell do employees on the second floor use to exit the building during a fire drill

A

North near sallyport and meet at the parking lot located to the rear of the building

228
Q

which stairwell do employees on the third floor use during a fire drill

A

Front stairwell exiting out the southwest stairwell door to the parking lot and meet at the parking lot to the southwest of the building

229
Q

which door should PSA and records use to evacuate the building during a fire drill

A

front doors and meet at the roundabout median at the front of the building

230
Q

Declared when there is a potential safety problem. No radiation has been released to require off site response. Notification to off-site personnel ensures that the first step of response has been taken.

A

Unusual Event

231
Q

Is used of there is an actual or potential safety problem. Any radiation released is not expected to impact off-site personnel

A

Alert

232
Q

Exists when there is an actual or potential failure of systems required for public protection. releases are not expected to exceed protective action guides beyond site boundary

A

Site area emergency

233
Q

declared when there is actual or expected core damage. radiation releases expected to exceed protective action guide levels beyond the plant site.

A

General emergency

234
Q

during a general emergency how often do officers need to contact the exposure control officer

A

every 30 minutes

235
Q

at what level of exposure does an officer need to contact the exposure control officer immediately

A

100mR

236
Q

where do officers meet after leaving an affected area during a general emergency incident

A

Clover Park (tradition stadium)

237
Q

when does hurricane season begin and end

A

June 1st November 30th

238
Q

what is the movement of resources or the classification level during an emergency or event

A

operational phasing

239
Q

what type of bee was the African honey bee bred with

A

European honeybee

240
Q

how fast can African honeybees fly

A

12-15 mph

241
Q

how far away can African Honeybees sense vibrations from power equipment

A

100 feet or more

242
Q

how far away should officers keep from an area with African Honeybees

A

one hundred yards (300 feet)

243
Q

is the city responsible for African beehives on private property

A

no

244
Q

if an African beehive is on a vacant lot and does not pose a threat to the public who should contact the owner

A

District Lieutenant via certified letter

245
Q

what is an on going and comprehensive process of preventing terrorism within the United States through intelligence gathering, investigation, and interdiction

A

Homeland security

246
Q

What is defined by state statute as a violent act, which violates laws of Florida and of the US and is intended to intimidate injure or coerce a civilian population, influence the policy of a government by intimidation or coercion, affect the conduct of government through the destruction of property, assassination, murder, kidnaping or aircraft piracy

A

Terrorism

247
Q

in the event of a Homeland security emergency who has primary jurisdiction, command and control

A

FBI

248
Q

What is a standardized management tool for meeting the demands of small or large emergency or non-emergency situations and ensures command, control, and coordination of resources

A

Incident command system

249
Q

according to the all hazards plan who is assigned to carry out staff functions needed to support the incident commander and those not specifically identified in the general staff functions

A

Command staff

250
Q

According to the all hazards plan who is compromised of the respective section chiefs who oversee the remaining four functional areas of ICS operations, planning, logistics, finance, and administration

A

General staff

251
Q

according to the all hazards plan who is responsible for the collection, evaluation, dissemination, and use of information about the development of the incident and the status of resources

A

Planning section chief

252
Q

According to the all hazards plan who is responsible for providing manpower, facilities, services, and materials in support of the critical incident

A

Logistic section chief

253
Q

which FSS deals with the declaration of emergency

A

870.043

254
Q

according to the all hazards plan how many days must an after action report be submitted if it is not included in the larger report about the incident

A

15 days

255
Q

how often should the district support division lieutenant complete a documented inspection for readiness of equipment when regarding the all hazards plan

A

quarterly

256
Q

Any incident involving an act of violence or potential act of violence in which police officers are at a disadvantage and subject to extreme danger

A

High risk incident

257
Q

Any deliberate incident that poses an immediate or imminent danger to the lives of others. The overriding objective appears to be that of mass murder rather than other criminal conduct.

A

Active threat

258
Q

Who makes the decision to evacuate the building during a bomb threat

A

Person responsible for the premises

259
Q

how many members are there on the Shooting Inquiry Team

A

three, one of which is a SGT or above

260
Q

Does the shooting of humane elimination of an animal fall under the category of the Shooting Inquiry Team

A

No

261
Q

how many days after a shooting, does the team leader have to submit their report in regards to the shooting inquiry team

A

30 days

262
Q

Officer involved shootings/deaths will be criminally investigated by who

A

FDLE

263
Q

an instrument that records certain physiological changes in a person undergoing questioning in an effort to obtain the truth or deception

A

Polygraph

264
Q

how often should polygraph instruments be calibrated

A

every six months

265
Q

What is a child for whom there is pending investigation into an allegation or suspicion of abuse, neglect, or abandonment where there is no pending referral alleging the child delinquent.

A

Child in need of services

266
Q

a child between the ages of 6- 16 who is enrolled an should be attending classes at a school who is absent from school without consent or permission

A

Truant

267
Q

how many time does a child have to be truant to be considered habitual

A

15 unexcused absences in 90 calendar days

268
Q

What is the maximum a child may be held detained

A

6 hours

269
Q

what is the time frame provided for a road officer to follow up with an investigation after being assigned the case from a CID supervisor

A

10 days

270
Q

who is responsible for providing initial and refresher training on the collection of DNA evidence and reference samples

A

Crime scene unit

271
Q

what type of consent is needed for a consensual DNA swab

A

written

272
Q

how many days does must a DNA evidence kit must be submitted to the lab for analysis

A

30 days

273
Q

what is a person not under the direction or control of a specific officer, who provides information without becoming a party to the investigation

A

Confidential source

274
Q

what FSS deals with confidential informants

A

FSS 914.28 or Rachel’s law

275
Q

at what age are confidential informants prohibited

A

15 years or younger

276
Q

A procedure by which a victim/witness of a crime is given the opportunity to view a suspect the police have stopped within a short period of time after the incident

A

Show up

277
Q

what is an inactive or unsolved murder or missing child investigation where foul play is suspected and any other incident designated by the chief or the CID commander

A

Cold case

278
Q

a device that is used to document incoming and outgoing telephone numbers from a target location

A

Pen register/ Dialed number Recorder

279
Q

at which stage can a D.N.R. be capable of receiving audio interception as well as the documentation of the telephone numbers called/received

A

“Second stage”

280
Q

what takes place after a Circuit Court judge signs the order for an intercept

A

a minimization hearing with the state

281
Q

how many days after the conclusion of an intercept must the appropriate forms be submitted to the state attorney’s office

A

14 days

282
Q

Within how many days must the subject of an intercept must be notified

A

90 days by U.S mail

283
Q

How long must an intercept be kept on file

A

10 years exception to a court order

284
Q

Limited accessibility to authorized police personnel on a “need to know” basis

A

Confidential

285
Q

Limited accessibility to authorized police personnel only

A

restricted

286
Q

How often do bicycle certified officers go to training

A

semi annual

287
Q

what is an example of specialized method of patrol

A

bicycle

288
Q

what is any rotary wing or fixed wing aircraft weighing less than 55 pounds and operated without a human pilot onboard

A

Unmanned Aerial vehicle

289
Q

What is the individual responsible for assisting with the administrative functions related to the sUAS program

A

sUAS coordinator

290
Q

what is the Visual Flight rule

A

3 miles and a cloud ceiling of 900 feet

291
Q

Night flight operations should not exceed what distances

A

one half mile and 400 feet

292
Q

An UAV must be equipped with a functional, anti-collision lighting or strobe visible from what distance

A

no less than three miles

293
Q

how many hours of practical flight time must an operator have for day time and what about night flight

A

4 hours 8 hours

294
Q

Members who do not have any documented training or flight time for an UAV within a span of ____ shall have to demonstrate proficiency before deployment

A

90 days

295
Q

how long must a vehicle by left unattended before it is considered abandoned

A

36 hours

296
Q

which FSS provides that a “Hold” may be placed on a vehicle that was towed

A

FSS 323.001

297
Q

How long does a tow hold last

A

5 days

298
Q

who authorizes vehicles for off duty position

A

Liuetenant

299
Q

how much time is considered a leave of absence in regards to dept vehicle

A

two weeks

300
Q

what is the exception for a felony in regards to a pursuit

A

burglary to a conveyance with no harm

301
Q

how many vehicles should be involved in a pursuit unless shift supervisor says otherwise

A

2

302
Q

under what circumstance is a tire deflation system allowed

A

probable cause of felony and approved by supervisor

303
Q

what is required documentation when the tire deflation system is deployed

A

written case report

304
Q

What is the minimum hours of training required for K9

A

480

305
Q

how many hours are required for odor recognition in narcotics for K9

A

120

306
Q

how many hours are required for K9 for explosives training

A

160

307
Q

how many hours of training are required per week at a minimum for K9

A

4 hour

308
Q

who has the final decision to deploy a K9

A

the handler

309
Q

how many years must an officer have to meet the K9 criteria

A

3 years

310
Q

what two reports will be written by K9 when they are utilized

A

supplemental report and utilization report

311
Q

Retired K9s receive how much annually

A

$900.00

312
Q

A volunteer group of specially trained officers designated to handle situations involving mentally ill in crisis

A

Crisis Intervention Team

313
Q

how many hours of training must a CIT officer finish

A

40 hours

314
Q

Service members absent from their unit without authorization for less than ____ are classified as AWOL

A

30 days

315
Q

what is a service member who has been absent without authorization for more than 30 days

A

Deserter

316
Q

Within how many days must the dept make available a vaccine for hep B for new employees

A

10 days

317
Q

what are the two common tests for HIV

A

Elisa and Western blot

318
Q

What is FDLE’s system for identifying criminal suspects and reporting data through the use of live scan electronic fingerprint comparision

A

Falcon

319
Q

Articulable facts or circumstances which would lead a reasonable law enforcement officer faced with the circumstances as they exist at the time, to suspect that a crime has been ,is being, or will be committed

A

reasonable suspicion

320
Q

Ride alongs are limited to how many hours

A

4 hours

321
Q

what is an automated computer network containing digital images and information of firearms related evidence pertaining to cartridge cases

A

National Integrated Ballistic Network (NIBIN)

322
Q

Does PSLPD seize firearms for safekeeping

A

NO

323
Q

what are the two elements for the Marjory Stoneman Douglas act

A

individual poses potential danger to themselves and individual has made a credible threat of violence against another person

324
Q

what is a court order prohibiting a person from having their possession or control any firearm ammo, or license to carry a concealed weapon

A

Risk Protection Order FSS 790.401

325
Q

how long will a risk protection order be in place

A

up to 12 months

326
Q

How long should the return of a firearm seized or voluntarily surrendered take

A

no longer than 7 days

fss 394.463

327
Q

An advanced conducted energy weapon, which through high voltage and low watts, is designed to disrupt a subject’s central nervous system by means of deploying a powered electrical energy sufficient to cause uncontrollable muscle contractions and override an individual’s voluntary 7 sensory responses

A

Conducted Electrical Weapon (CEW)

328
Q

which FSS provides the legal authority for sworn PSLPD officers to carry and use firearms in the performance of their duties

A

FSS 790.25

329
Q

how many rounds will be kept in a patrol rifle magazine

A

18 for 20 round and 28 for 30 round

330
Q

how many attempts does an officer have during one firearm qualification day to pass

A

3

331
Q

remedial training for firearms consists of how many rounds and hours

A

up to four hours and no more than 200 rounds

332
Q

what is the punishment for failing second firearm qualifictaion

A

written reprimand

333
Q

what is the punishment for failing the third firearm qualification

A

three day suspension without pay

334
Q

what level of resistance is acceptable to use a CEW

A

active physical resistance

335
Q

how long is the basic skills course for the CEW

A

4 hours

336
Q

how long is the annual training for the dart firing stun gun

A

1 hour

337
Q

at what percentage should CEW batteries be replaced

A

20%

338
Q

what dimensions are acceptable for tactical knives

A

fixed blade of 4 inches or less than 9 total same for folding

339
Q

how many blades are allowed to be carried

A

no more than 2

340
Q

which FSS establishes the use of force by law enforcement officers

A

776.05

341
Q

who authorizes the use of SIM rounds for crowd control

A

Supervisor

342
Q

what is the optimal distance for OC spray

A

3-10

343
Q

what is the maximum distance for a cew

A

25 feet

344
Q

what age is the cut off for the use of CEW

A

12 or less

345
Q

What is the four step process for Problem oriented policing

A
SARA
Scanning
Analyze
Response 
Assessment
346
Q

how many officers must be in a vehicle with no barrier when transporting prisoners

A

no less than two

347
Q

which seat should the prisoner and officers be in during transport with no barrier

A

Prisoner- rear passenger

Officer Rear driver

348
Q

the information establishing probable cause in a search warrant is current within ___ days but not more than ____ days

A

10 30

349
Q

Which FSS outlines probable cause for warrants

A

933

350
Q

how many days must the Property inventory and search warrant returned to the clerks office

A

10 calendar days

351
Q

What two requirements must be met for exigent circumstances to exist for the seizure of a computer or recording device

A

Probable cause and reasonable belief the evidence sought might by destroyed if they delay taking action

352
Q

What type of consent is needed for a cavity search

A

search warrant or written consent

353
Q

can consent over ride refusal in terms of consent to search

A

no

354
Q

what is a voluntary program enabling a joint effort in the search and rescue of participating individuals who have been diagnosed with the mental dysfunctional disorders making them prone to wandering and getting lost

A

Project lifesaver

355
Q

when should a missing person be entered into NCIC/CIC

A

two hours within receipt of the report

356
Q

what two stipulations requires a response from a detective and the CID supervisor in regard to missing persons

A

13 years or younger and an Amber alert

357
Q

what age is required for a Silver alert

A

60 years old unless extraordinary circumstances

358
Q

how many days after a missing person is not located should a DNA sample be requested

A

90 days

359
Q

How many days if a missing person is not located should a detective request dental records

A

30 days

360
Q

What is the percentage that qualifies for Low THC cannabis

A

10

361
Q

what chapter of FSS cover low THC cannabis

A

458 or 459 FSS 381 also speaks about medical weed

362
Q

what is the limit of certificates a physician is allowed to issue

A

3, 70 day supplies

363
Q

What is the day supply in regards to smokable weed

A

one 35 day supply or one 70 day supply

364
Q

how many ounces is a medical weed patient allowed to posses at one time

A

4 ounces

365
Q

between what hours is a dispensary allowed to operate

A

7-1900

366
Q

what is the shelf life of narcan

A

18-24 months

367
Q

what is the zero tolerance law

A

anyone under 21 having a .02 breath alcohol level to be suspended and open to detain them

368
Q

which FSS dictates marchman acts

A

397.301

369
Q

how often is training for mental illness

A

annually

370
Q

how many detainees are allowed in the temporary processing area at one time

A

4

371
Q

Which FSS defines “Habitual felony offender”

A

775.084(a)

372
Q

how many felonies must an offender make to be considered a habitual offender

A

two or more or 5 years between charges and sentencing

373
Q

at what stage of an ewarrant is a warrant considered active

A

When the judge selects the approve button

374
Q

A voluntary program offered to all employees enrolled in the city’s health plan as a way to create a culture of health and wellness by offering incentive programs and activities to engage and encourage employees to develop and maintain healthy lifestyles

A

Living well in PSL

375
Q

At what age does the city encourage employees to obtain an annual stress EKG test

A

35 with history of cardio respiratory problems

376
Q

In what amount of time, must an officer complete the physical fitness test during hiring

A

6 minutes and 4 seconds

377
Q

Which FSS controls the collective bargaining agreements for agencies

A

447.309

378
Q

for how long will the dept liaison officer have routine residence checks proceeding an officer death

A

6-8 weeks

379
Q

Any action unlawful or accidental, which claims the life of a PSLPD who is performing work related functions while either on or off duty.

A

Line of duty death

380
Q

how many members are required for the color guard proceeding

A

4

381
Q

How many officer are required for honorary pallbearers

A

6

382
Q

how many feet from the gravesite should the color guard stand

A

20 feet

383
Q

what order is given when the casket is removed from the hearse

A

present arms

384
Q

how many work days are required before a temporary restricted duty position will be considered

A

3 consecutive workdays

385
Q

Whos responsibility is it to notify the training coordinator of a “return to Work authorization”

A

the officer

386
Q

What is an objective and purposeful observation and evaluation of an activity, an event, equipment, or personnel within the direct chain of command of the inspecting supervisor, to ensure the agency’s goals are being pursued

A

Line inspection

387
Q

how often do ballistic vests need to be replaced

A

5 years

388
Q

Which FSS establishes the Complaint review board as a right and privilege

A

FSS 112.532

389
Q

How many members make up the complaint review board

A

five total, two members selected by the chief, two by the affected employee and the fifth my mutual agreement

390
Q

How many days from the disciplinary penalty must the chief be notified in regards to the complaint review board

A

5

391
Q

how many days does the complaint review board have to finish the process

A

three days

392
Q

does the complaint review board have subpoena power

A

no

393
Q

What is a voluntary alternative process that may be extended to employees who area subject to the disciplinary process and meet the established criteria

A

Corrective Diversion process

394
Q

how long does the Corrective Diversion process last

A

180 days

395
Q

Who is responsible for coordination of all grievance procedures

A

Professional Standards Division commander

396
Q

What FSS governs the employment of a recruit

A

FSS 943.131

397
Q

Within how many days should orientation be completed

A

30 days

398
Q

What is a document that details an employees desired career development plan, including education, experience, and licenses or certs needed to become eligible for a future position

A

Individual development plan

399
Q

What is the maximum reimbursement each fiscal year

A

$2,500.00

400
Q

How long must an employee remain with the city after tuition payments

A

2 years

401
Q

how many days before travel should an advanced expense request be submitted

A

15 working days

402
Q

Is transportation to and from the travelers home and the airport an eligible reimbursement expense

A

yes

403
Q

how many working days after travel must receipts be submitted

A

two

404
Q

How many hours must an instructor serve prior to being allowed to teach the subject

A

8 hours

405
Q

How long are grades retained by staff services in regards to training

A

minimum of three years

406
Q

how long is the Sergeants leadership program

A

six weeks

407
Q

How many hours of training are required for the mentor program

A

8

408
Q

Approximately how long is the FTO program

A

16 week

409
Q

After how many years in a specialized unit must you attend an FTO refresher course

A

3

410
Q

Any physical, moral, or emotional conditions causing stress

A

Significant stressful event

411
Q

What does an employee get for retiring with 25 years or more of service

A

A plaque. Service display shadow box, PSLPD retirement portrait, U.S. flag in flag box, retired ID card,, Badge and badge case wallet, service weapon

412
Q

What does an employee with 20-25 years of service

A

A Plaque, Service shadow box, Retiree ID card, Badge and Service weapon upon request

413
Q

Employees leaving honorably with 15-19 years of service

A

A Plaque, Shadow box, Retiree card, Badge

414
Q

Employees leaving honorably with 10-14 years of service

A

Plaque and ID card or plaque and retiree Id card

415
Q

Sworn employee with 5-9 years of service are awarded what

A

A plaque with an engraved or embossed badge at awards ceremony

416
Q

Employees leaving with less than 5 years of service are awarded what

A

letter of recognition

417
Q

how often will a reserve officer be evaluated by the reserve program commander

A

annualy

418
Q

What is the second highest award which is awarded to an officer of the PSLPD for exceptional bravery at imminent risk of serious bodily injury for the purpose of saving or protecting human life

A

Cross of valor

419
Q

The highest award bestowed by the PSLPD it should be awarded only in exceptional cases where a hazardous duty is performed by member who risks their life in doing so

A

Medal of Honor

420
Q

How often does HR Dept prepare a list of personnel whos evaluations are due

A

Monthly

421
Q

how soon will the announcement for a specialized position be announced prior to the commencement of the selection process

A

10

422
Q

how long is the training for a parking enforcement specialist

A

16 hours

423
Q

Which chapter in PSL ordinances covers parking

A

Chapter 72

424
Q

What is the maximum hours a parking specialist can work per week

A

24 hours or no more than 8 hours a day

425
Q

Who is responsible for handling and disbursement of all funds

A

Fiscal Management Admn

426
Q

Deploying members with active duty orders exceeding how many days will be scheduled with a pre-deployment meeting

A

180 days and scheduled within two weeks of deployment

427
Q

How long does a returning active duty member have to completed

A

6 months

428
Q

How many years of payroll are kept on file

A

two years

429
Q

How many hours prior notice must be given for excusing off duty details

A

3 hours

430
Q

How many times must a supervisor make contact with a detail officer during his tour of duty

A

1

431
Q

How many officers require a supervisor regarding off duty details

A

5

432
Q

What are also known as communication aids in regards to deaf or hard of hearing

A

Auxiliary aids and services

433
Q

Who maintains a list of sign language and oral interpreting services

A

PSA

434
Q

What is the agencies insurance policy

A

self insured

435
Q

How often must a workload assessment report be completed by the division commanders

A

triennially

436
Q

how often will the strategic plan be reviewed

A

annually at the nd of each fiscal year

437
Q

What is considered a reasonable amount of time when talking about reviewing revised policies

A

30 days

438
Q

What is favoritism or bias, or the opportunity for the perception of favor or bias, shown by those acting in the capacity of a supervisor or by persons with oversight authority to family members or someone whom they have close personal relationship

A

Nepotism

439
Q

what are Isolated incidents that occur and are resolved within minutes or hours, or some cases, days.

A

Immediate problem

440
Q

What are individual events that arise from calls for service but are deemed more serious by laws and policies of the PD, thus requiring additional investigation

A

Case of interest

441
Q

how many incidents are required for a “repeat incident”

A

three or more criminal or quality of life incidents within a 28 day period

442
Q

How many calls for service must an address have to be added to COAR within a four month period

A

10

443
Q

How many crimes are required for a crime pattern

A

2

444
Q

What is the hot spot/ spree ratio

A

2 incidents within a .2 mile radius 3 or more within a .4 mile radius

445
Q

Define Series

A

A group of similar crimes committed by the same individual or group acting in concert

446
Q

Define Spree

A

A specific type of series characterized by high frequency of criminal activity within a remarkably short time frame

447
Q

Define Hot spot

A

A group of similar crimes committed by one ore more individuals at locations within close proximity to one another

448
Q

Define compound problem

A

the highest level of problems that encompass various locations, offenders and victims and in most cases, exist throughout the entire jurisdiction

449
Q

how many days must pass to close a crime pattern

A

14 days with no incidents

450
Q

who is considered the most fundamental problem solving and crime reduction resource

A

Patrol personnel

451
Q

COAR

A

Collaborative Operational Analysis and Response

452
Q

STARCOM

A

Statistical Tracking Accountability Response through Computer Orientated Mapping

453
Q

The number of of members reporting to command-level officer (Mid-management) should not be in excess of how many?

A

5

454
Q

The number of subordinates reporting directly to first line supervisors should not exceed how many?

A

9

455
Q

What is the D1 lieutenant responsible for

A

road patrol, telestaff, sharepoint and off-duty details

456
Q

D2 Lieutenant responsible for

A

road patrol, Mids schedule

457
Q

D3 responsible for

A

Road patrol, Day shift schedule

458
Q

D4 Lieutnenat

A

Road Patrol, Evening shift schedule, K9

459
Q

How long will animal control house animals found

A

3 days and sent to the humane society and held there for a minimum of 5

460
Q

Who handles adoptions of animals

A

Humane Society

461
Q

How soon must the records supervisor contact a complainant

A

by the end of shift

462
Q

How much cash is kept in the records cash fund

A

$45

463
Q

How often will the records specialist conduct a briefing to update personnel

A

monthly

464
Q

in regards to records, what is required for them to expunge a juvenile record

A

Court order FSS 943.0585

465
Q

What section is considered the “memory bank” of the agency

A

Records

466
Q

What dates are re records kept on the HTE case numbers

A

December 1999 through March 2013

467
Q

According to the records section guideline how many days does a detective have to complete a follow up

A

10 days

468
Q

Who is responsible for issuing Solicitor permits

A

Records

469
Q

Which guideline outlines how evidence will be outline

A

GG 920

470
Q

How long is an item kept in evidence for safekeeping

A

60 days

471
Q

Who must the evidence manager submit a memorandum to turn over items from evidence

A

SSB chief

472
Q

What chapter of FSS gives the procedure for disposing of narcotics

A

893

473
Q

What is the threshold of value when speaking of abandoned property in evidence

A

$100

474
Q

How often will the evidence Lieutenant complete an inspection

A

Quarterly

475
Q

What is the minimum of items that will inventoried during the annual inventory/ audit in evidence

A

250

476
Q

What are the two accreditation agencies PSLPD recognizes

A

CALEA and CFA
Commission on Accreditation for Lawn enforcement Agencies

Commission for Florida Law Enforcement Accreditation

477
Q

How often does the training committee meet to discuss training issues and future training needs

A

Quarterly

478
Q

How much experience should someone have before being eligible to work as the recruiter backround invistiator

A

One year law enforcement

479
Q

What is the age requirement to work at PSLPD

A

19

480
Q

How long must an applicant wait after failing any of the pre-employment requirements

A

one year

481
Q

What test measures deductive reasoning, information ordering, inductive reasoning, memorization, problem sensitivity, spatial orientation, written comprehension, and written expression

A

FBAT

Florida Basic Abilities Test

482
Q

What scores are considered passing for the National Police Officer Selection Test (POST)

A

80 cumulative with 65 or greater in each section

483
Q

In reference to the Physical Agility test what is the passing time

A

6 minutes for new hires

7 minutes for career ladder

484
Q

How long are application records of candidates kept at Human Resources before being destoyed

A

2 years

485
Q

How long will applicant backgrounds worked but not hired maintained in a file in the staff Services section

A

4 years

486
Q

What assists with the possibility of potential bias from entering the selection process of hiring, each element of the process is monitored for what?

A

Adverse impact

487
Q

What rule is used when computing and interpreting adverse impact

A

80% rule

488
Q

What financial threshold will the purchasing supervisor assist when pertaining to sealed bids and managing special projects

A

$25,000

489
Q

In regards to the PSA/ police building, how long is CCTV stored

A

7 to 30 days

490
Q

What is the name of the multi-jurisdictional task force established by homeland security

A

Blue Lightning Task Force