General Fundamentals Flashcards

1
Q

Drugs causing Malignant Hyperthemria:
“SHAPE.”

A

S - succinylcholine (most common)
H - alothane
A - all Fluranes
P - phenothiazines
E - ether

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2
Q

Pronounced elevation of ETCO2 + Tachycardia after induction of general anesthesia.

Diagnosis?

A

Malignant Hyperthermia

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3
Q

Myocardial depression/suppression of action potentials (APs) occurs b/c of its effect on ___ channels.

A

Voltage-gated Na+ channels

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4
Q

__ivacaine has a safer cardiovascular toxicity profile than __ivacaine.

A

Ropivacaine has a safer cardiovascular toxicity profile than Bupivacaine.

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5
Q

Local anesthetics act on voltage gated ___ channels, and thus their effect is most pronounced during depolarization of Atria.

A

Na+ channels

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6
Q

Local anesthetics act on voltage gated Na+ channels, and thus their effect is most pronounced during ___.

A

Depolarization of Atria.

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7
Q

Erb’s point (punctuation nervous) is located at the ___, and is the site where several cutaneous sensory nerves from the cervical plexus emerge.

A

Midpoint of the posterior border of the SCM.

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8
Q

The cervical plexus consists of:
C2: ___
C2-3: Greater auricular
C2-3: Transverse cervical
C3-4: Supraclavicular

A

The cervical plexus consists of:
C2: Lesser occipital
C2-3: Greater auricular
C2-3: Transverse cervical
C3-4: Supraclavicular

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9
Q

The cervical plexus consists of:
C2: Lesser occipital
C2-3: ___
C2-3: Transverse cervical
C3-4: Supraclavicular

A

The cervical plexus consists of:
C2: Lesser occipital
C2-3: Greater auricular (ear lobe, skin over parotid/mastoid)

C2-3: Transverse cervical
C3-4: Supraclavicular

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10
Q

The cervical plexus consists of:
C2: Lesser occipital
C2-3: Greater auricular
C2-3: ___
C3-4: Supraclavicular

A

The cervical plexus consists of:
C2: Lesser occipital
C2-3: Greater auricular
C2-3: Transverse cervical (skin over ant neck)

C3-4: Supraclavicular

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11
Q

The cervical plexus consists of:
C2: Lesser occipital
C2-3: Greater auricular
C2-3: Transverse cervical
C3-4: ___

A

The cervical plexus consists of:
C2: Lesser occipital
C2-3: Greater auricular
C2-3: Transverse cervical
C3-4: Supraclavicular (skin of upper chest/shoulder)

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12
Q

A ___ study looks at similar groups w/and w/o a disease/disorder and assess both groups for a previous exposure.

A

Case-control study

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13
Q

A __ study looks at a current condition in a “section” of a population at a given time, and assesses exposures or risk factors.

A

Cross-sectional study.

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14
Q

Kaposi sarcoma is associated with __ virus.

A

HSV-8

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15
Q

HIPAA addresses the right to patient privacy of health information, AND:
1. ___
2. Patient right to continued health insurance if employment is changed

A

HIPAA addresses the right to patient privacy of health information, AND:
1. National requirements for electronic health records
2. Patient right to continued health insurance if employment is changed

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16
Q

HIPAA addresses the right to patient privacy of health information, AND:
1. National requirements for electronic health records
2. ___

A

HIPAA addresses the right to patient privacy of health information, AND:
1. National requirements for electronic health records
2. Patient right to continued health insurance if employment is changed

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17
Q

A CD4 count < _ is consistent with AIDS.

A

CD4 <200

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18
Q

___(infxn) and CMV infection are both AIDS defining illnesses.

A

Tracheal/Esophageal candidiasis and CMV infection are both AIDS defining illnesses.

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19
Q

Tracheal/Esophageal candidiasis and ___ are both AIDS defining illnesses.

A

Tracheal/Esophageal candidiasis and** CMV infection** are both AIDS defining illnesses.

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20
Q

Lidocaine toxicity occurs when >__mg/kg of plain lidocaine OR 7mg/kg of lido w/epi is injected

A

Lidocaine toxicity occurse when >3-5mg/kg of plain lidocaine OR 7mg/kg of lido w/epi is injected

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21
Q

Lidocaine toxicity occurse when >3-5mg/kg of plain lidocaine OR __mg/kg of lido w/epi is injected

A

Lidocaine toxicity occurse when >3-5mg/kg of plain lidocaine OR **7mg/kg of lido w/epi **is injected

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22
Q

After __ anesthesia induction, patient begins uttering nonsensical speech w/HR of 123/min and bp 160/89.

A

Lidocaine induction
(manifests as cardiace/neuro sx)

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23
Q

The __ nerve innervates the cornea, and thus initiates the blink reflex.

A

Nasocilliary nerve (branch of trigeminal nerve)

24
Q

Direct electrical stimulation of the __ nerve will initiate a blink reflex.

A

Supraorbital n.

25
Q

The toxic dose of lidocaine is ____.

A

4-4.5mg/kg

26
Q

The only muscles that lie deep to the plane of the FN are the:
1. __
2. buccinator
3. mentalis

A

The only muscles that lie deep to the plane of the FN are the:
1. levator anguli oris
2. buccinator
3. mentalis

27
Q

The only muscles that lie deep to the plane of the FN are the:
1. levator anguli oris
2. ___
3. mentalis

A

The only muscles that lie deep to the plane of the FN are the:
1. levator anguli oris
2. buccinator
3. mentalis

28
Q

The only muscles that lie deep to the plane of the FN are the:
1. levator anguli oris
2. buccinator
3. ___

A

The only muscles that lie deep to the plane of the FN are the:
1. levator anguli oris
2. buccinator
3. mentalis

29
Q

Testing for penetrating neck injuries in Zone 1 should include ___.

A

CXR
CTA
Gastrografin swallow study

30
Q

Sturge-Weber syndrome is caused by a: genetic inheritance or somatic mosaic mutation?

A

Sturge-Weber syndrome is caused by a somatic mosaic mutation in the GNAQ gene.

31
Q

Which 5 muscles of the soft palate play an important role in swallowing and breathing?

A
  1. palatoglossus
  2. palatopharyngeus
  3. levator veli palatine
  4. musculus uvulae
  5. tensor veli palatinei
32
Q

Which muscle of the soft palate is not innervated by the vagus n.?

A

Tensor veli palatini
(innervation = trigeminal n.)

33
Q

Patients w/methemoglobinemia display a ___ (VS measure), which may lead to dyspnea, headache, and AMS.

A

“False” drop in pulse ox to (~85%) -

Methemoglobinemia is a state in which the ferrous (Fe2+) irons of heme within Hb are oxidized to the ferric (Fe3+) state. These ferric hemes are then unable to bind O2. As a result, the oxygen-dissociation curve is shifted toward the left, making it more difficult to release O2

34
Q

Local anesthetics can cause aquired methemoglobinemia in high doses, and should be treated with ___.

A

Oxygen + methylene blue

35
Q

Histamine-mediated angioedema may be treated with _____, while this Tx is not effective against Bradykinin-mediated (non-allergic) angioedema.

A

Corticosteroids/Epi

36
Q

Bradykinin-mediated (non-allergic) angioedema is treated with ___.

A

Beta2 receptor antagonist (icatibant) and kallikrein inhibitor (ecallantide)

37
Q

The Sx of Bradykinin-mediated (non-allergic) angio differes from Histamine-mediated angio, in that there is no ___?

A

No urticaria

38
Q

Dose of 1:1000 epi for Tx of anaphylaxis in children is ___ and can be repeated q__mins

A

0.01 mg/kg IM and can be repeated q5-15mins.

39
Q

In a 1:1000 epi solution, there is _mg/_ml of epi

A

1mg/1ml of epi

40
Q

The number of patients you need to treat in order to prevent 1 bad outcome is the ___.

A

NNT (Number Needed to Treat) = 1/ARR

41
Q

The ARR = the difference btwn. the

A

Experimental event rate - Control rate

42
Q

Patient complains of metallic taste + tinnitus + numbness around the mouth + n/v after receiving 3cc of which local anesthetic?

A

Lidocaine toxicity

43
Q

A resident concludes a result leads to higher survival rates, when it actually does not exist.

Type of error?

A

Type 1 error

reject the null H when it should not be

44
Q

Failure to reject a false null hypothesis (failing to detect a true relationship)

Type of error?

A

Type II error

45
Q

Which local anesthetics are metabolized in the plasma by cholinesterase?

A

Amino-esterase local anesthetics:
- cocaine
- procaine
- tetracaine

46
Q

Professional competence means ___.

A

lifelong learning + maintianing most up-to-date medical knowledge

47
Q

__ is effective in mgmt of anaphylaxis in patients taking beta-blockers, w/sx refractory to epi.

A

Glucagon

48
Q

Although Abx have been shown to reduce the incidence of rheumatic fever following a Strep infxn, it does not affect the natural hx of ___.

A

post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

49
Q

What patients cannot get Methylene blue?

A

patients w/G6PD deficiency

50
Q

Longest to shortest mechanism of action of “aines.”

A

bupivicane (420mins) >plain lidocaine (30mins)

51
Q

Binds the enzyme thymidylate synthetase

A

5-FU

52
Q

Alkylating agent that prevents DNA synthesis and fibroblast proliferation

A

Mitomycin

53
Q

Bacteriostatic antibiotics:
ECSTaTiC about bacteriostatic”

A

Bacteriostatic antibiotics:
E - erythromycin (all macrolides)
C - clinda
S - sulfonamides
T - trimethoprin
a
T - tetracycline
c
C - chloramphenicol

54
Q

Vitamin K dependent factors are:

A

2, 7, 9, and 10

55
Q

Urokinase binds ___ to create plasmin

A

plasminogen