Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Neuro - C.U > General facts > Flashcards

General facts Flashcards

1
Q

Subdural haematoma is a bleed in?

A

Veins of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is kernigs sign?

A

Kernigs sign is positive when the thigh is flexed at the hip and knee at 90 degree angles, and subsequent extension in the knee is painful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is GCA associated with?

A

Polymyalgia rheumatica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Liehthem’s disease is?

A

Degeneration of the posterior and lateral columns of the spinal cord.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Liehthem’s disease is a due to a deficiency in? (2)

A

B12 or copper

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Two types of cavernous sinus thrombosis

A

Septic and aseptic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Posterior column involves fibres for?

A

Vibration, light touch and proprioception sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Lateral column involves fibres for?

A

Motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Anterior column involves fibres for?

A

Pain and temperature sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Paraperesis

A

Bilateral UMN signs in the legs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does a brown sequared lesion present? (unilateral lesion of the whole spinal cord)

A

Ipsilateral UMN signs in the leg
Ipsilateral loss of joint position and vibration
contralateral loss of pain and temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

5 causes of spinal cord compression

A 
Trauma 
Degenerative disease 
Tumours 
Infective lesions 
Epidural haemorrhage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

LMN signs (5)

A 
Weakness 
Atrophy
Fasiculations 
Reduced / normal tendon reflexes 
Plantar response not present
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Common type of anterior horn disease

A

Motor neurone disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Polyneuropathy common causes (2)

A

Diabetes

B12 deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pyramidal weakness means there is….

A

Loss of power in the extensors of the UL and in the flexors of the LL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Where is proximal weakness common (2)

A

Myopathy and myasthenia gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Lesion above the pyramidal track, the weakness is …

A

on the contralateral side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Lesion below the pyramidal track, the weakness is…

A

Ipsilateral side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Clinical features of an UMN lesion (6)

A 
Spastic tone 
Pyramidal pattern of weakness 
Absence of muscle wasting 
Absence of fasiculations 
Brisk tendon reflexes 
Extensor plantar response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Classification of tremors (3)

A

Resting / Posture / Kinetic (intension / terminal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Causes of a physiological tremor (4)

A

Anxiety
Metabolic problem (low glucose)
Alcohol withdrawal
Drugs - Beta agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What may diminish physiological tremors?

A

beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Characteristics of an essential tremor?

A 
Bilateral 
Progressive 
Worse on concentration 
Usually terminal 
Improves with alcohol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Oral anti cholinesterase used in MG

A

pyridostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Guillain-Barre syndrome usually follows what type of infections?

A

Resp / GI (diarrhoea)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is GB syndrome?

A

Post infective inflammatory demyelinating neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is shown on LP in GB syndrome?

A

Cytoalbuminologic dissociation
Normal cell count
Elevated protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is a bells palsy?

A

Acute LMN facial palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is ramsay hunt syndrome?

A

Herpes zoster responsible for a bells palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Usual recovery time for bells palsy

A

80% within 2-8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Treatment for bells palsy

A

high dose steroids within the 1st week

eye care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Treatment for acute migraine

A

Triptan
NSAIDS
Metoclopromide (antiemetic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Prophylactic treatment for migraine

A

Propanolol / topiramate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Treatment for acute cluster headache

A

O2 support

Sublingual / nasal triptan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Contraindications for triptans (2)

A

History of IHD/ TIA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Antibiotic given in suspected bacterial meningitis

A

Cefotaxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

When is an LP contraindicated in suspected B.meningitis (4)

A

Signs of raised ICP
Sepsis
Trauma
Major coagulopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Normal range of csf pressure on LP

A

7-18CM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

extradural haematoma is a …… type of bleed.

A

arterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

presentation of an extradural haematoma on a scan

A

midline shift
ventricular swelling
blood on the scan
soft tissues swelling outside the skill

42
Q

Who are at risk of a subdural haematoma?

A

elderly / alcoholics (can occur even after a trivial injury)

43
Q

Charcot-Marie tooth disease is?

A

Hereditary demyelinating neuropathy

44
Q

Motor characteristics of CMT

A

Distal wasting of LL (eventually spread to UL)

Reduced reflexes

45
Q

Sensation characteristics of CMT

A

Glove and stocking sensation loss

46
Q

Foot deformities in CMT (2)

A

Pes cavus and toe clawing

47
Q

Extra tests in those having strokes <55 y/o

A

‘Young’ stroke blood tests include thrombophilia and autoimmune screening - performed in those under 55 with no obvious cause of a stroke

48
Q

Most common brain tumour

A

Glioma

49
Q

where do secondary brain tumours often metastasie from

A

lung
breast
kidney
malignant melanoma

50
Q

3 ways brain tumour may present

A

Epileptic fit
Symptoms of raised ICP
Neurological deficit

51
Q

Fredreich’s ataxia genetics

A

autosomal recessive

52
Q

onset of Fredreich’s ataxia (age)

A

<20

53
Q

Clinical features of fredreichs ataxia

A 
Ataxia Sensory +/- cerebellar 
Foot deformities 
Weakness 
Distal wasting 
Loss of LL tendon reflexes 
Gradual sensory loss 
Nystagmus
54
Q

Testing in Fredreich’s ataxia

A

MR

Genetics

55
Q

Drugs commonly causing parkinsonism

A

neuroleptics

56
Q

Suspect what in pt who is <40y/o with Parkinsonism

A

Wilsons disease

57
Q

Blood test in muscular dystrophy

A

Creatinine kinase

58
Q

What organ needs monitoring in muscular dystrophy?

A

cardiac

59
Q

prognosis of those with muscular dystrophy

A

20 years

60
Q

Vertigo

A

illusion of rotatory movement

61
Q

vetigo usually due to pathology of?

A

inner ear or 8th CN

62
Q

Causes of dizziness

A 
Anaemis 
Hypo 
Anxiety 
Hypoventilation 
Postural hypotension 
Pyrexia
63
Q

Disorders of the inner ear causing vertigo

A

BPPB
Menieres
Otitis media
Labyrinthitis

64
Q

8th CN pathology causing vertigo

A

Acoustic neuroma
Otoxic drugs
HZV

65
Q

Associated symptoms with dizziness

A 
Nausea 
Vom 
Sweating 
Ear symptoms 
Neuro symptoms 
Aura - migraine
66
Q

Caloric tests

A

Use cold water in the ear to cause nystagmus

reflex lost with 8th CN pathology

67
Q

Tests in dizziness

A

Lying and standing BP
ECG
Vital signs
Hearing tests

FBC
ESR

Brain scan

68
Q

Signs of raised ICP

A

Worse in morning
Vomiting
Visual disturbance

69
Q

Associated symptoms with headache

A 
Vision 
Vomiting 
Neck stiffness 
Drowsiness  
Fever / rash
70
Q

Important blood test in temporal arteritis

A

ESR

71
Q

Treatment of SAH

A

Angiography then endovascular coiling or clipping

72
Q

Primary headache

A

No underlying pathology

73
Q

Secondary headache

A

Underlying pathology e.g. tumour / vasculitis

74
Q

When does GB syndrome reach a peak

A

4 weeks

75
Q

Pathogenesis of GB syndrome

A

acute inflammatory demyelination of peripheral nerves

76
Q

AB to check for in GB syndrome

A

Antiganglioside antibodies

77
Q

Special tests in GB syndrome

A

ECG
EMG and nerve conduction studies
LP for CSF analysis

78
Q

Acute treatment of GB syndrome

A 
Medical emergency 
ABCDE 
Admit 
ITU involvement early with resp support 
IV immunoglobulin
79
Q

Medication for SAH

A

Nimodipine

80
Q

Guillain-Barre syndrome presentation

A

Bilateral glove and stocking parathesia
Distal symmetrical weakness
CN dysfunction
2/3 autonomic dysfunction

81
Q

symptoms assoc with migraine

A

nausea
photophobia
phonophobia

82
Q

Common triggers for migraines

A 
tiredness, stress
alcohol
combined oral contraceptive pill
lack of food or dehydration
cheese, chocolate, red wines, citrus fruits
menstruation
bright lights
83
Q

when should triptans be taken for a migraine?

A

as soon after the start of the headache

84
Q

SE of triptans

A 
tingling 
heat 
tightness in throat and chest
heaviness
pressure
85
Q

Contraindications for triptans

A

Hx of or risk of IHD or CV disease

86
Q

Which gland is often abnormal in Myasthenia gravis?

A

thymus

87
Q

myasthenia gravis pathophysiology

A

antibodies directed against acetylcholine receptors in the post synaptic muscle membrane

88
Q

Treatment of myasthenia gravis

A

Medical - pyridostigmine, immunosuppressants

Surgical - thymectomy

89
Q

Treatment of a myasthenia gravis crisis

A

IV immunoglobulins

90
Q

Causes of sensory neuropathies

A

Diabetes
Alcohol
B12 deficiency
Chronic renal failure

91
Q

Causes of motor neuopathies

A

GB syndrome

CMT

92
Q

Important history points in peripheral neuropathy?

A

PMH - diabetes
SH - hx of alcohol abuse
SE - anaemia symptoms

93
Q

CMT findings on neuro exam

A 
Atrophy (peripherally) 
Hammer toe / high arch 
Weakness 
Hypo/areflexia 
Sensory loss in a glove and stocking distribution
94
Q

Causes of facial nerve palsy

A 
Idiopathic - Bells palsy 
Vascular - stroke 
Infective - Ramsey hunt syndrome (herpes zoster), Lyme disease 
Tumour - acoustic neuroma 
Sarcoidosis - parotid gland enlargement
95
Q

Carpal Tunnel syndrome is associated with

A

RA
Pregnancy
HypotT
Acromegaly

96
Q

Management of CTS

A

Conservative - splinting
Medical - steroid injections
Surgical - Decompression by division of flexor retinaculum

97
Q

Two systems involved in nystagmus

A

central posterior

vestibular system

98
Q

Transverse myelitis

A

Heterogeneous focal inflammatory disorder of the spinal cord characterised by acute or subacute development of motor weakness, sensory impairment, and autonomic dysfunction.

99
Q

Investigations in transverse myelitis

A

LP

MRI

MRI of the spinal cord reveals a focal hyperintense lesion and cerebrospinal fluid usually shows pleocytosis.

100
Q

Therapy in acute transverse myelitis

A

Corticosteroids

Plasmapherisis (2nd line)

101
Q

triad of normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

Ataxia, urinary incontinence and dementia

102
Q

first line treatment in trigeminal neuralgia

A

Trigeminal neuralgia - carbamazepine is first-line

Neuro - C.U (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions