General Exam question form last years - MCQ, EMQ, SAQ Flashcards

1
Q

FFWhat happens to the non working condyle when lateral excursion occurs?

A

During lateral excursion movement, the non-working condyle moves downward, inward and forward.

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2
Q

With metal primer - what bond do they use?

A

A carbon double bond

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3
Q

What radiogrpahy technique uses two beams at right angles?

A

Miller’s technique. bisected angle, PA and occlusal

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4
Q

What theory explain phantom pain theory?

A

Neuromatrix

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5
Q

What is the name for the TMJ side that does not participate in the chewing process?

A

Balancing side - moves inferiorly, anteriorly and medially

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6
Q

What microbes increase in periodontoal disease?

A

Gram + facultative anaerobe cocci

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7
Q

What is the common sprichetes psecies found in periodontitis?

A

Treponema denticola

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8
Q

What is the enzymes that normally breaks glycosidic bonds during glycoprocessing or catabolism of oligosaccharides?

A

Glycosidase

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9
Q

Which nerve pathway is responsible for pain/fear?

A

Limbic pathway

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10
Q

What nerve innervates the anterior belly of the digastric muscle?

A

Trigeminal nerve through inferior alveolar nerve (V)

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11
Q

If you move 44 laterally againt an opposing tooth, what force is induced on buccal cervical regoin of 44?

A

Tensile force

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12
Q

What is the main operative difference between prismatic enamel rods and aprismatic enamel rods?

A

Prismatic enamel rods are more resistant to etch

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13
Q

What is the key feature of cariogenic plaque?

A
  1. Low resting pH, proliferatipn of acidogenic and aciduric bacteria and decrease in urea ammonia production
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14
Q

Which taste buds from which portion of the tongue are innervated by chondra tympani CN VII?

A

Anterior two thirds of tongue

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15
Q

Upper and middle of the masseter muscles sometimes get pain what can the pain be
mistaken for?

A

Pain in the uper posteir teeth

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16
Q

What is the composition of flexular stength?

A

Tensile and compressive strengths

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17
Q

What is the mechanism behind burning mouth syndrome?

A

Potentially -idiopathic neuropathic (psychological) or due to trigeminal neuralgia

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18
Q

What is the purpose of periodontal mechano receptors or PMRs?

A

They aid in oral stereognosis

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19
Q

Which receptors are responsible to discriminate between 2 points?

A

Merkel cell receptors

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20
Q

Which anatomical structure can elicits fear and anxiety from smell?

A

Olfactory bulb sending singnals to the amygdala

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21
Q

What receptors are effective for jaw stabilisation during running?

A

Spindle receptors on the mostly) jaw closing muscles that detectet stretch and compensate it using reflexes

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22
Q

What jaw reflexe is inhibited during mastication?

A

Periodontal mechanoreceptors

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23
Q

Veilonella is a group of bacteria that is found in periodontal pockets. What is the danger of this bacterium?

A

Veillonellae are able to use some of the lactic acid produced by bacteria such as streptococci and lactobacilli that potentially induce dental caries below the gingival margin.

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24
Q

What is the most common initial coloniser group?

A

Mitis group

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25
Q

What are water trees?

A

They are water channels in adhesive layer

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26
Q

What does the smear layer do?

A

It decreases tensile strength of CR and GIC

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27
Q

What does the decrease in filler size particles affects?

A

Polymerisation shrinkage

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28
Q

What is the management of seizures?

A

If history of epilepsy or seisures is present - please use a bite block on the patient

  1. Stop dental treatment
  2. Ensure patient is not in danger
  3. Turn the patient to the side
  4. Avoid restrainning
  5. Wait until seizure stops
  6. Maintain airways
  7. Assess the patient
  8. If still unconscious, call 000 and maintain airways
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29
Q

What are the oral consequences of kidney disease?

A
  1. Greater bleeding tendency due to reduction in platalets
  2. Hypertension due to extra blood volume

3.Anaemia

4.Drug intolerance - antibiotic and analgesics

  1. Increased susceptibility to infections
  2. Halitosis, burning sensation int eh mouth, uremic stomatitis, periodontal disease
  3. Xerostomia
  4. Impared healing

Please consider collaborating with a nephrologis

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30
Q

Wht should be your general approach of managing a person of a general medical complication in the dental chair?

A

Consider

  1. Time of day for appointment
  2. Duration of the appointment
  3. Positioning of the patient
  4. Pre-procedure preparation/action plan - e.g. ask the patient to bring their medication
  5. Use of local anaesthetics
  6. Medications - contraindications, toxicities, interaction
  7. Caries risk
  8. Perio risk
  9. Xerostomia
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31
Q

How would you quickly assess the patients severity of COPD asthma?

A
  1. If they are managed situational by an inhaler - they are probably okay
  2. If they take medication - this may be a little more sus
  3. If they have been hospitalised - maybe consult with tutor
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32
Q

How does the diabetes damage the body?

A

Higher Blood glucose leads to advanced glycosylated end products (AGE) and free radicals which damage tissues - mostly on two levels

Microvascular damage - think perio

Macrovascular - think coronary artery disease and renal disease

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33
Q

What would you mention to a patient who has periodontitis?

A
  1. Periodontitis - a disease that destroys the bone underneath the tooth
  2. Usually occurs from bacteria aggrevating the gums
  3. Aggrevating the gums leads to inflammatory condition - gingivitis
  4. When gingivitis is present with some underlying risk factors such as smoking, diabetes or immunuesupressed organism - periodontitis is caused
  5. Periodontitis is caused by the immune system trying to fight off the bacteria in the plaque - but not bring very mindful of the surrounding tissue
  6. Unfortunatley periodontitis is irreverisble - but if proper treatment - it can be slowed down or even arrested - thus we need to collaborate on this issure
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34
Q

What are the Koch’s Postulates?

A

1) The microorganism must be found in diseased but not healthy individuals;

2) The microorganism must be cultured from the diseased individual;

3) Inoculation of a healthy individual with the cultured microorganism must recapitulated the disease;

4) The microorganism must be re-isolated from the inoculated, diseased individual and matched to the original microorganism.

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35
Q

Why do microorganism preffer to reside in the biofilm?

A
  1. 3D structure of the extra-cellular matrix provide a site for adhesion
  2. Provides water and nutrient channels
  3. Provides protection from desication
  4. Provides protection from host defences - think B-Lactam aggregation
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36
Q

What is the most common bacteria associated with fissure caries?

A

S. Mutants

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37
Q

Give 5 differential diagnosis for a white lesion

A
  1. Leukodema
  2. Leukoplakia
  3. Lichen Planus
  4. Frictional keratosis
  5. Oral squamous cell carcinoma
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38
Q

Give 5 differential diagnosis for red lesions

A
  1. Pyogenic granuloma
  2. Haemangioma
  3. Peripheral Giant Cell Granuloma
  4. Erythroplakia
  5. Oral squamous cell carcinoma
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39
Q

Give 5 differential diagnosis for a pigmented lesion?

A
  1. Oral melanotic macule
  2. Mucosal melanocytic naevus
  3. Amalgam tattoo
  4. Malignant melanoma
  5. Smokers melanosis
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40
Q

FheFGive 5 differential diagnosis for a gum lump?

A
  1. Haemangioma

2.Fibroepithelial polyp

  1. Pyogenic granuloma
  2. Peripheral giant cell granuloma
  3. Calcifying fibroblastic granuloma
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41
Q

Give 5 differential diagnosis for an ulcer?

A
  1. Herpetiform ampthous ulcer
  2. Mild amthous ulcer
  3. Major ampthous ulcer
  4. Traumatic acute ulcer
  5. Traumatic chronic ulcer
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42
Q

Why are 5th and 7th generation of adhesive system kinda mid?

A
  1. Because they are known to leave moisture bubles at the surface as well as water tress that impare bonding
  2. Because there is an issue with the acid that is used with self etching. Essentially a special compound is used to neutraulise the acid over time so that self etching does not continue to destroy tooth structure - but unfortunaley that compound affect may be delayed thus the created resin tags are not formed properly - this reduced their effectiveness thus making the restoration last less time :(
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43
Q

What is the process of activation and initiation of dental composite material?

A
  1. Photo-initiator - in a form of specific frequency of light (light cure or UV light) initiates the creation of free radicals within the composite material
  2. The free radicals with an extra electron will bind with monomers in order to create a polymer - at the end of this process an electron is loss thus another free radical can be initiated
  3. This continues when around 80% of resin is polymerised and 20% is not - this is important to allow addition of other composite resin
  4. Over time, free radicals will combine - creating a stable compound
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44
Q

How would you explain to the patient the CR survival?

A

An average composite may last around 3-8 years but only if it is maintained. Give car analogy.

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45
Q

Why do amalgams last more than composites?

A

Amalgams last longer due to the hardness of the material - but if they fail they fail spectacularly

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46
Q

How do we treat hypersensitivity?

A
  1. Block dentinal tubules - using restorations or protective coverings
  2. Block nerve activity - stanous fluoride and potassium nitrate
  3. Remove the cause - erosion and toothbrushing technique change
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47
Q

How do we manage dentine hypersensitivity?

A
  1. Occlude dentinal tubules to reduce impact of stimuli on fluid movement - can be done through chemical occlusion (fluorides) or physical occlusion (sealed resorations)
  2. Reduce sensitivity of nerves - using potassium nitrate
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48
Q

What are indications for indirect pulp capping?

A
  1. Deep cavity
  2. No pulpal exposure
  3. Removal of all infected dentine may result in pulpal exposure
  4. No signs or symptoms of irreversible pulpits
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49
Q

What is the most important aspect of indirect pulp capping?

A

CORONAL SEAL IS VITAL.

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50
Q

What happens to the pulp during direct pulp capping?

A

The varnish that is used is able to neutralise necrotic tissue and cause the deposition of tertiary dentine

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51
Q

What is the function of primer in dry bonding?

A

Re-stiffen collagen tubules/structure

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52
Q

What is the function of silane?

A

Coupling agent, act as intermediary which binds organic and inorganic components phases

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53
Q

What does the outflow of dentinal fluid trigger?

A

A-delta fibre and sometime C fibres

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54
Q

What does one click in the TMJ mean upon opening?

A

Anterio-medially displaced disc

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55
Q

LA for 36 for cestaration with cervical cord is needed. What LA would you give?

A

LHS IANB + long buccal nerve block

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56
Q

You give and IANB to a patient - they come back the next day with limited opening. WHat structure is involved?

A

Medial pterygoid

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57
Q

You give and IANB to a patient - they come back the next day with limited opening. WHat is this condition called?

A

Trismus

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58
Q

Your patient comes in with sensatvitiy to hot and cold, they also look very tired - seems like the tooth ache does not let them sleep at night. WHat is most likely diagnosis?

A

Irreversible pulpitis

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59
Q

Your patient comes in with pain in his tooth - he says it flares up after biting. What is most likely diagnosis?

A

Fractured cusp

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60
Q

Your patinet comes in with generalised pain in their upper molars - they complain of having a stuffy nose - the pain aggravates when they move their had. What is most likely diagnosis?

A

Maxillary sinusitis

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61
Q

What is an alteration in taste called?

A

Dysgeusia

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62
Q

What is the name of pain where trigger point can be identified from the patients face?

A

Myofacial pain

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63
Q

What is the pain with uncontrolled muscle movement with limited opening called?

A

Myospasm

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64
Q

What condition is assoiacted with loss of transport in chemical modality in sense of smell and teste?

A

Sjogren’s syndrome - lack of saliva thus no transport

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65
Q

What enzyme helps to break down amino acid starter chain?

A

Exoprotease

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66
Q

What muscles are associated with clenching?

A

Masseter and temporalis

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67
Q

What is left behind when Meckel’s cartilage is gone?

A

Malleus and Incus - bonny ossifications of the ear canal

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68
Q

In the adult graph charts - what is the fastest growing line?

A

Lymphoid

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69
Q

In the adult charts - what line goes into platoe the fastest?

A

Neural

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70
Q

What does it mean when a person is in the top 3 percentile of growth?

A

Means they are taller than 97% of the population

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71
Q

WHat chemical sensitises nociceptors?

A

Prostoglanding

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72
Q

What is the most common early coloniser?

A

Strep bacteria

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73
Q

What species attaches initially in attachment to the dental pellicle?

A

Actinomyces

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74
Q

When the mandible deviates to the left on opening which muscle is activated?

A

Righat lateral pterygoid

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75
Q

Where does superior medial pterygod muscle attach?

A

Pyramidal process

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76
Q

WHat nerve innervates sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles?

A

Cranial Nerve XI

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77
Q

What does shiny, non-scooped surface an indicator off?

A

Active grinding

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78
Q

What does shiny, scooped surface an indicator off?

A

Active erosion

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79
Q

Which part of the pyramid represent periodontitis?

A

The full pyramid

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80
Q

Which pyramid will you find pure fusobacterium nucleatum?

A

Orange complex bacterium

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81
Q

Which pyramid part will represent plaque from gingivitis?

A

Usually the green and small amount of orange complex bacterium

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82
Q

Which pyramid part will represent most gram negative bacteria?

A

The red complex bacteria only

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83
Q

Which cell is lysed to get iron for prolifiration of p.Gingivalis?

A

Erythrocytes

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84
Q

Which enzyme breaks sialic bonds?

A

Glycosidase

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85
Q

Which enzyme used to break down complex carbs to attach to acquired pellicle?

A

Amylase

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86
Q

Which enzyme does P.Gingivalis use to disrupt the enzyme control of collagen formation?

A

Matrix metalloproteinases

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87
Q

Which enzyme is used by initial colonizers to take down the immune defence?

A

IgA protease

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88
Q

On this envelope of motion diagram - what does 3 represent?

A

Edge to edge

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89
Q

On this envelope of motion diagram - what does 1 represent?

A

Retruded contact

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90
Q

On this envelope of motion diagram - what does 4 represent?

A

Maximum protruded contact

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91
Q

Secondary caries is a common cause of restoration failure. What is the most common cause of secondary caries at the margins of composite resin restorations?

A

Microleakage

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92
Q

While obtaining an alginate impression of a patient’s maxillary arch for night guard construction, you notice several air bubbles present in the impression material upon removal. The air bubbles are small and mainly located on the occlusal surfaces and cusp tips. What would you do to prevent this from recurring in the future?

A

Please dry the surface of the teeth before seating the tray

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93
Q

Odontoblasts continue to deposit dentine throughout life. What type of dentine is formed locally in response to noxious stimuli such as tooth wear, dental caries and restorative procedures?

A

Tertiary dentine

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94
Q

Dental alginate is a material used in the clinic when making impressions. When mixing the alginate for around 30 seconds you notice it becomes stiff and cannot be loaded into the tray. How could you overcome this problem on your second attempt while still maintaining the best physical and chemical properties of the material?

A

Decrease the water temperature

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95
Q

A shade match for anterior tooth-coloured restorations should always be done before rubber dam is placed. What is the main reason for shade selection prior to rubber dam placement?

A

Rubber dam isolates the tooth from the oral cavity and saliva and dehydrates the tooth, thereby changing its refractive index.

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96
Q

What is the origin and insertion of stylomandibular ligament?

A

Styloid process of temporal bone (origin) & angle of mandible (insertion)

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97
Q

How do you palpate the medial pterygoid on a patient during full occlusion?

A

Inner aspect of the mandible

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98
Q

Where would you palpate for the medial pterygoid muscle?

A

Medial/lingual surface of mandible

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99
Q

Mr Smith presents with the following symptoms related to his TMJ: sore teeth, frontal headaches and sore muscles upon waking, clicking on opening and closing. Further examination determines that the click is at the same position on opening and closing. Into which of the following diagnostic categories do Mr Smith’s symptoms best fit?

A

Muscle problems and TMJ internal derangement

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100
Q

A young girl presents at your clinic with a significant anterior open bite. Upon closer examination, you note that she has a Class 2 Division 1 malocclusion. What are the distinguishing features of this type of malocclusion?

A

Mesio-buccal cusp of upper 6 occludes mesial to the mesio-buccal groove of lower 6; significantly proclined central and lateral incisors

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101
Q

In the clinic/laboratory, facebows are often used in conjunction with an articulator. What is the purpose of a facebow?

A

To relate the condyles to the maxillary arch

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102
Q

In which area of the focal trough the narrowest?

A

Anterior

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103
Q

Distortion of panoramic images can be caused by the patient’s head position. What characteristics of a radiograph would you see if the patient rotates their head to the left?

A

The teeth on the right hand side appear wider than the left

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104
Q

Which fibre is anaesthesised last during local anaesthesia?

A

A-beta fibres

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105
Q

Which fibre is anaestehthesised first during local anaesthesia?

A

C-fibres

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106
Q

Hot pulp is a condition associated with antidromic release of what?

A

CGRP - calcitonin gene related peptide

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107
Q

What is ‘hot’ pulp caused by?

A

Antidromic activation of nociceptors/sensory endings

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108
Q

Which receptors allow for delicate manipulation of food?

A

Periodontal mechanoreceptors

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109
Q

Giving LA/GA to prevent post-op pain before extracting a tooth is an example of what?

A

Central sensitisation

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110
Q

Anterior temporalis muscle reffered pain can be felt where?

A

Maxillary anterior teeth

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111
Q

What are the three common reflexes in the jaw?

A
  1. Jaw opening
  2. Jaw closing
  3. Periodontal
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112
Q

Which papilla has the most taste buds?

A

Circumvallate

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113
Q

The tongue is the human body’s primary taste organ. To which taste are the sides of the tongue most sensitive?

A

Sour

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114
Q

Oral stereognostic ability (OSA) is the neurosensorial ability to recognize and discriminate different forms in the oral cavity. What receptors play a major role in OSA during free manipulation of test objects in the oral cavity?

A

Periodontal mechanoreceptors

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115
Q

What is the ecological niche for P. Gingivalis in health?

A

Tongue

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116
Q

How do cells generate nucleotides?

A

Through de nove and salvage and pathways

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117
Q

WHat is the common mechanisms of fluoride, CHX & Xylitol in caries control?

A

Inhibition of PEP/PTS

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118
Q

What do bacteria do to increase the pH of their environment?

A

Release ammonia

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119
Q

Which salivary enzyme is involved in the catabolism of complex carbohydrates binds to enamel to form part of the acquired pellicle and facilitates attachment of early colonisers?

A

Amylase

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120
Q

How to write a pulpal diagnosis?

A
  1. PULPAL diagnosis - pulpitis, necrosis or absent pulp
  2. PERIAPICAL DIAGNOSIS - Symptomatic/Asymptomatic Periodontitis/Abscess
  3. CAUSATIVE AGENT -caries, trauma, idiopathic

Please refer to the radiograph if you looking at one

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121
Q

Mrs X is a healthy 32 year old mother who comes into your practice complaining about ulcers in her mouth that appeared 3 days ago and which are preventing her from eating properly. She mentions that her children are also having the same problem and she wonders if it is because of something they ate. You notice that Mrs X’s hands are covered with small vesicular rashes and there are also multiple ulcers in her mouth. What is the most likely cause of Mrs X’s condition?

A

Coxsackie viruses (type A)

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122
Q

Jo, a newly employed dental assistant reports that recently, she has noticed some rashes on her hand after removal of her latex gloves. She adds that she has never experienced this before. What type of hypersensitivity is she most likely to be experiencing?

A

Type IV

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123
Q

54 year old Jakob presents at your surgery with mild pain on the right side. He is unsure whether the pain is from the top or bottom of his mouth. You wish to gain a full history and complete a thorough examination, including pulp sensibility tests, so you can accurately diagnose Jakob’s problem. His right premolar bitewing radiograph is presented above.

What is the most likely cause of the radiolucency evident on the distal cervical portion of Jakob’s lower second premolar?

A

Inappropriately packed restoration

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124
Q

It is important that a dentist understand patients’ ability to perceive touch, temperature and pain in the orofacial environment.
During running or jumping exercise, the position of the mandible relative to the maxilla is maintained. Which receptors help to maintain the rest position of the mandible during locomotion?

A

Muscle Spindle receptors

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125
Q

Sensory information from the teeth and supporting structures is transmitted to the brain via the trigeminal nerve. What is the location of the cell bodies of the first order neurons arising from the periodontal mechanoreceptors of the lower premolars?

A

Mesencephalic nucleus

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126
Q

Observe this patient - they are very fucked - what additiona testing would you do to them?

A
  1. Ask question about oral hygine - relevant history taking
  2. Diet diary
  3. Saliva tets
  4. OPG and other readiographic test
  5. Risk matrix or Traffic Light Matrix
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127
Q

How to write a treatment plan?

A

1.Completion of all histories and exams
2. Taking consent for additional testing - TRI-PLAQUE GEL
3. Diagnosis, presentation of treatment plan and consent
4. Chief Concern
5. Preventative care
6. In chair treatment
7. Close date recall
8. Transition to regular recall

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128
Q

There is usually always magnification with radiography, however there is one
radiograph technique can make the image smaller than the object?

A

DPR or OPG

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129
Q

Describe in detail how an OPG can make an object to appear smaller?

A

OPG: when the object is outside of the focal trough (closer to the film).
The calibration
of the horizontal film plate produces an approximate 1:1 ratio to offset the inherent
magnification. However this only works for objects in the focal trough. If you are too
anterior, then you will have minimization of the actual object. This only occurs in the
horizontal plane as there is only horizontal movement of the plate, and not vertical.

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130
Q

What is the systematic way to examine a lesion?

A
  1. Site - using anatomical terminology
  2. Size - measure with a probe
  3. Morphology - elevated, flat or depressed
  4. Colour - compare to adjacent normal tissue
  5. Consistency - how it feels (ONLY CLINICAL DO NOT SAY THIS IN EXAM), texture - how the surface looks like (PHOTOS ARE APPROPRIATE :))
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131
Q

What are the the different types of dysplasia?

A
  1. Mild (grade I) - dysplasia is in the first third of the pithelium
  2. Moderate (grade II) - dysplasia entering the middle third of the epithelium
  3. Severe (grade III) - dysplasia near the basal layer
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132
Q

What is the definitions of dyskeratosis?

A

An abnormal keratinization occurring prematurely within individual cells or groups of cells below the stratum granulosum.

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133
Q

What is the definition of hyperchromasia?

A

It is an increased capacity of a cell to stain with dye; usually refers to staining of cell nuclei with hematoxylin.

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134
Q

What is the definition of suprabasal mitoses?

A

Mitoses of cells that are just above the basal layer

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135
Q

Using a surgical sieve - please give at least one potential cause for a lesion like this.

A

Developmental - Oral White Spngey Naevus

Inflammatory - Smokers keratosis

Hyperplastic - Fibroepithelial Hyperplasia

Degenerative - Chronic hyperplastic Candiasis

Hormonal - /

Neoplastic - Oral squamous cell carcinoma

Idiopathic - Idiopathic lesion

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136
Q

Please give diagnosis given that the epithelial tissues have invaded the connective tissue however these are no evidence of vascularisation or neural proliferation?

A

Always think Oral Squamous Cell Carcinoma - send for biopsy

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137
Q

What are some of histological features of squamous cell carcinoma that needs to be talked about to the surgeon

A
  1. If there is any invasion of malignant epithelial cells - what is the nature of invasion
  2. Any local tissue destruction
  3. Potential spread to lymph nodes
  4. Any distant metastasis
  5. Any deeper structures involved
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138
Q

What are the 6 reasons have a deficient margins?

A
  1. Poor resistance
  2. Overcarving
  3. Underpacking
  4. Condensation error
  5. Inappropriate use of burs on the material post restoration during polishing
  6. Using the burs for gross reduction before the amlgam set
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139
Q

What are the test we can do to determine pulpal status of the tooth?

A
  1. Electric pulp teest
  2. COld test
  3. Pariapical radiograph
  4. DPR
  5. Thermal test with hot water
  6. Periodontal probing
  7. Mobility
  8. Tenderness on pulpation
  9. Percussion
  10. Local anaesthetic
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140
Q

What kind of material / materials would you use in order to restore this tooth - considering you will remove the amalgam?

A

I think a packable resin composite is appropriate because

  1. Appropriate strength and resistance to fractures
  2. There us enough tooth structure to bond to
  3. Easier ability to provide future repair if any fracture occur
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141
Q

What are the steps to restoring this tooth - please be very specific!!!!

A

First obtain consent

For this tooth specifically - apply Ziagel (5% lignocaine) in the labial area adjacent of 27 and 25, use Lignospan Special (2% lignocaine with 1:80000 adrenaline) in the labial area adjacent of 27 and 25 - 3/4 carpule at 25 and 1/4 carpule at 27

  1. Prepare rubber dam for isolation from 27 to 23 - use the W3 damn with prior flossing through - please try the clamp on first
  2. Take a shade before putting on the rubber dam - consult with the patient!
  3. Put the rubber dam and do appropriate inversion
  4. Access the cavity with an 838 or 822 diamond high speed bur
  5. Clean the caries with slow speed bur of appropriate size
  6. Use a caries disclosing solution
  7. After caries is clean apply a sectional matrix appropriately
  8. Use 37% orthophosphoric acid as an etch solution for 20-30 seconds or as recommended by the manufacturer and recent dental material research
  9. Wash and dry very well
  10. Apply the unfilled resin to the dentine and enamel - cure for 20 seconds every 2mm increments
  11. Apply packable resin - cure for 20 seconds
  12. Polish apropriatley
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142
Q

What structure is under number 1?

A

LHS inferior border of the orbit

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143
Q

What structure in under number 2?

A

LHS Condyle

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144
Q

What is structure under number 3?

A

Superimposed over the sinus, malar process

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145
Q

What is structure under number 4?

A

Pterygo-maxillary fissure

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146
Q

What is the structure number 5?

A

Condesnsing osteotitis around the 35

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147
Q

What structure is under number 6?

A

Zygomatic arch

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148
Q

What structure in under number 7?

A

Ear lobe

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149
Q

What is structure under number 8?

A

LHS Inferior Alveolar Nerve Canal

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150
Q

What is structure under number 9?

A

Central Hyoid bone

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151
Q

What is the structure number 10?

A

RHS Styloid Process

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152
Q

What structure is under number 11?

A

RHS Maxillary Sinus

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153
Q

What structure in under number 12?

A

RHS Zygomatic Arch

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154
Q

What is structure under number 13?

A

Primary image of RHS hard palate

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155
Q

What is structure under number 14?

A

Secondary image of RHS palate

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156
Q

What is the structure number 15a?

A

LHS External Acoustic Meatus

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157
Q

What structure is under number 15b?

A

Genial tubuciles

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158
Q

What structure in under number 16?

A

Mandibular notch/oro-pheryngeal space

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159
Q

What is structure under number 17?

A

Nasal septum

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160
Q

What is structure under number 18?

A

Infra-orbital fissure

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161
Q

What is structure under number 19?

A

Nasal cavity/sinus

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162
Q

What is structure under number 20?

A

RHS Maxillary tuberosity

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163
Q

What are the six features are wrong with this OPG and what are the error on effect on final image?

A
  1. Unnecessary artefacts i.e. the glasses - Results in unnecessary object being presented on the DPR, the glasses
  2. Patient positioned forward - Anterior teeth blury and too small - spine sen on the film
  3. Failure to position the tongue against the palate - large, dark, shadow over the maxillary teeth between palate and dorsum of tongue
  4. Head is tilted to the side in the horizontal direction - condyles are not equal in height, nasal structure is distorted
  5. Head is turned to one side - seems like the RHS was closer to the detector than LHS - resulting in LHS ramus appearing larger
  6. Exposure factors have not been selected properly - the image appears to be blur overall
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164
Q

Would you retake this OPG?

A

We always want to follow the ALARA principles.

But if the concern is to understand the overall periodontal health or have an understanding of a specific lesion - you might consider to retake the image.

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165
Q

What is a ghost image and give a ghost image example on this OPG?

A

A ghost image occurs when the object or anatomic structure located between the X-ray source and the center of rotation and has a density that is sufficient to ettenuate the X-ray beams.

This image subsequently presents the same morphology as the object, but with distortion, it appears on the opposite side and at a higher point than the corresponding real object and larger.

An example is that maxillary sinus on the LHS a little above the the trueLHS sinus - which is actually the ghost image of the RHS sinus

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166
Q

Why don’t teeth generate ghost images?

A

In order to generate a ghost image - the object needs to be between the source of radiation and centre of rotation.

The teeth re usually rotated between the centre of rotation and the rcepting plate at all times (that’s how most of OPGs are designed and programmed)

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167
Q

Why is the object in the ghost image appears higher?

A

Because of the negative nature of the angle at which the beam is pointed.

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168
Q

Please give a differential diagnosis to this blue lesion using surgical sieve

A

Developmental - Oral melanotic macule

Inflammatory - Smoker melanosis

Infective - Amalgam tattoo

Hyperplastic - Mucsal melanocytic naevus

Hormonal

Neoplastic - Oral Squamous Cell Carcinoma, Malignant Melanoma

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169
Q

What is the status of the pulp if the pulp sensebility test came back with no response?

A

No response = non-vital pulp or false- negaitve

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170
Q

What is the status of the pulp if the sensibility test came back with a mild response?

A

Mild response = normal pulpal health

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171
Q

What is the status of the pulp if the sensibility test came back with a strong bu brief response?

A

Strong but brief response = reversible pulpitis

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172
Q

What is the status of the pulp if the sensibility test came back with a strong but lingering response?

A

Strong but lingering = irreversible pulpitis

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173
Q

What are some of the causes of false negatives during pulpal sensibility testing?

A
  1. Calcified canals
  2. Immature apex
  3. trauma
  4. Premedication of the patient
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174
Q

When would you do a pulp test?

A
  1. Prior to restorative dental treatment
  2. Prior to root canal therapy
  3. Following trauma to teeth
  4. Prior to other dental treatment
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175
Q

How to maintain staff safety during the OPG?

A
  1. Distance
  2. Position
  3. SHielding
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176
Q

What is the clinical importance of the focal trough?

A
  1. Structures within the trough are relativley well defined int he final image
  2. The closer a structure is to the centre of the trough the more sharply defined is the final image. The further, the blurrier.
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177
Q

What are the zones of the panoramic imaging assessment?

A

Zone 1 - Nose and sinuses
Zone 2 - Md Body
Zone 3 - Articular Eminence, Condyle, Mx Tuberosities, Pterygo Mx
Fissures, EAM, Cervical Spine
Zone 4 - Epiglottis
Zone 5 - Md Ramus and Spine
Zone 6 - Dentition

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178
Q

What type of framework are you going to use to access hard tissue or soft tissue abnormalities?

A

Site
Size
Morphology
Colour
Cosnistency
Texture

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179
Q

What is the role of sodium alginate in alginate material?

A

Sodium alginate forms a hydrogel former

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180
Q

What is the role of calcium sulphate dihydrate in alginate material?

A

It provide calcium ions

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181
Q

What is the role of sodium phosphate in alginate material?

A

It controls working time - acts as a retarder of the rapid use of calcium within the reaction

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182
Q

Describe the setting process of alginate.

A
  1. When mixed with water, a cross-link polymer chain is formed, resulting in a three-dimensional network structure
  2. Calcium sulphate dihydrate provides the Ca ions for the cross-linking reaction that the sol to a gel
  3. In order to decrease the setting time, sodium phosphate is added, which acts as a retarder, decreasing the number of Ca ions available for cross linking
  4. When a certain threshold of Ca ions have been achieved, the cross linking reaction fully sets
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183
Q

What is syneresis?

A

It is the loss of fluid within the alginate gel - this causes shrinkage

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184
Q

What is evaporation?

A

It is the loss of water from the surface of the alginate gel - this causes shrinkage

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185
Q

What is imbibition?

A

It is swelling of the alginate if immersed in water - this causes distortion

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186
Q

What are the criteria to assess alginate impresion?

A
  1. Alginate mix is homogenous and smooth - is it mixed well, is it too runny
  2. Tray appropriate size - are all teeth included and past the tuberocity area
  3. Alginate has had adequate time to be inserted into the mouth, seated onto the teeth and set prior to removal - is it seated on teeth correctly, has it set, has the material flown past the CEJ
  4. Adequate amount of alginate in tray and the treay has been seated and muscled trimmed correctly - has muscle been trimmed, have the tongue been placed properly
  5. Tray has been removed correctly
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187
Q

What are three most common anaesthetics used in the ADH

A
  1. 2% Lignocaine with 1:80000 adrenaline (Lignospan special)
  2. 3% Mepivicaine (Scandonest Plain)
  3. 4% Articaine with 1:100000 adrenaline (Articadent)
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188
Q

What is the purpose of methylparabens in LA solution?

A

They act as an antibacterial preservative?

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189
Q

What is the purpose of bisulphote in LA solution?

A

They act as an anti-oxidant for the vasoconstrictor

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190
Q

What are the three important aspects of performing an appropriate inferior alveolar block?

A
  1. Level - coronoid notch, 1 cm above lower occlusal plane, midway between arches with mouth wide open
  2. Angle - opposite premoalrs
  3. Entry point - pterygotempora depression - but this may be missing so rely on the palpation of the coronoid notch
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191
Q

What to do in SADS if a patient shows symptoms of syncope?

A
  1. Stop dental treatment
  2. Elevate patient’s legs to achieve a position where their head is lower than the heart. If patient is in dental chair, tilt the chair back to a horizontal angulation
  3. Allow patient to recover slowly
  4. Measure patient’s blood pressure & heart rate
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192
Q

What are the steps to gingival assessment?

A

C - colour
C - contour
C - consistency
T - texture
E - exudate

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193
Q

What are the steps to ILA?

A
  1. Patient
  2. CC
  3. MHx
  4. SHx
  5. DHx
  6. Exam
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194
Q

What is TRIM?

A

TRIM is an acronomy for:
Timing
Relevance
Involvment
Method

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195
Q

How would you assess the teeth on the radiograph?

A
  1. State what radigraph and side you are looking at
  2. FDI: notatation with restorations and radioopacities
  3. Pathology: radiolucencies, extent and causes
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196
Q

What are the steps to occlusal analysis?

A

1.Teeth present/missing
2.Morphology of teeth
3.Wear - mild, moderate, sever
4.Crowding,spacingrotations
5.Axail inclanations
6.Shape of dental arch
7.Cruve of spee and wilsons curve
8.Angle molar classification/canine classification
9.Overbite (%) / overjet (mm)
10.Mediolateral

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197
Q

What nerve innovate the upper molars?

A

The posterior superior alveolar nerve

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198
Q

What nerve innovates the upper premolars?

A

The middle superior alveolar nerve

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199
Q

What nerve innovates the anterior upper teeth?

A

The anterior superior alveolar nerve

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200
Q

During odontogenic infection, what is the path of least resistance in the mandible?

A
  1. If above the mylohyoid line, the infection would progress lingually, eroding the lingual cortical plate and entering the sublingual space. This will elevate the tongue and create diffuculties with breathing
  2. If below the mylohyoid line, the infection would progress down into the submandibular space. This may causes swelling near the angle of the ,and able to potentially causing trismus and therefore diffuculties chewing..
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201
Q

What does informed consent include?

A
  1. Alternatives and all options for treatment
  2. Information surrouding the nature and what the treatment involves
  3. Risks of treatment
  4. Pros and Cons of treatment and No intervention
  5. Cost of treatment
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202
Q

How to write a diagnostic statement for gingivitis?

A
  1. Extend - localised or generalised depending on the BOP
  2. Disease - gingivitis
  3. Specification - biofilm induced, mediated by pregnancy or leukemia
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203
Q

How do we treat necrotising gingivitis?

A
  1. Debridment under LA (removal of biofilm, calculus and necrotic tissues)
  2. Local irrigation with chlorhexidine 0.2%
  3. Antibiotic therapy - Metronidazole 400 mg orally, 12-hourly, 3-5days
  4. Review and reffer when needed
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204
Q

How to write a diagnostic statement for periodontitis?

A
  1. Type of periodontal disease - periodontitis
  2. Disease extent - generalised or localised
  3. Stage - I, II, III, IV
  4. Grade - A, B, C
  5. Current disease status - stable, remission, unstable
  6. Risk profile smoking, diabetes, etc

E.g. Periodontitis; generalised, Stage III, Grade C, currently unstable. Risk factors: smoking 20cig/day

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205
Q

What are indications for indirect pulp capping?

A
  1. Deep cavity
  2. No pulpal exposure
  3. Removal of all infected dentine may result in pulpal exposure
  4. No signs or symptoms of irreversible pulpits
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206
Q

What is the most important aspect of indirect pulp capping?

A

CORONAL SEAL IS VITAL.

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207
Q

Why can facial paralysis occur during IANB administration?

A

Cause: needle was positioned too far posteriorly & LA administered instead in the body of the parotid gland where facial and tympanic nerve run through

Signs + sympotms: Facial paralysis, unilateral, drooping of eyelid and upper lip / corner of mouth

Managment:
1. Tell patient this is temporary
2. Tell patient to not rub their eye
3. Cover the affected eye with eye patch
4. Keep under observation until better
5. No driving back home
6. IF not recovered in 12 hours - will need a medical review

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208
Q

Why can truisms occur during IANB application?

A

Causes: Trauma to the muscles or blood vessels, often caused by withdrawing the needle through tissue distension

Signs + symptoms: may present as a prologned spasm of the jaw muscles with limited or complete inability to open the mouth, or pain associated with mouth opening

Managment: Usual improvement within 48-72 hurs with up to 6 weeks for complete recovery. Patient may seek heat therapy, wamr saline rinse, soft diet & jaw exercises.

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209
Q

Why can soft tissue damage occur during IANB administration?

A

Cause: It is usually self-inflicted injury by the aptient themselves; induced trauma or burn

Sings + symptoms: May present as a soft tissue lesion, accompanied by localised pain and swelling. More noticeable once LA has worn off.

Managment: Provide appropriate post-operative insructions. If sever, antibiotics may be prescribed to void infection. Warm saline rinses.

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210
Q

Why can temporary blidness occur during the IANB administration?

A

Cause: Intravascular administaton. Pathway: Inferior alveolar nerve into middle meningeal artery into opthalmic artery causing loss of vision

Signs + Symptoms: Loss of vision a few minutes post IANB administration.

Managment: Stop dental treaatment. Call 000 because patient needs to go to the emergency department. CPR if patient is unconcious.

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211
Q

Why can persisten anaesthesia occur when administering IANB?

A

Cause: Direct sensory nerve damage caused by the needle. Injecting too much LA at high concentrations. Haemorrhage from around/near the neural sheath put pressure on the nerve

Signs + symptoms: paraesthesia will vary depending on structures involved - usually drooling, numbness, pins & needles. If damage to lingual nerve there can be altered taste sensation.

Management: Paraesthesia resolves within approx 8 weeks, if above 8 weeks refer to oral surgeons. Reassure patient and reassess

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212
Q

Why can heart palpitations occur during administration of IANB?

A

Cause: Intravascular injection may cause an excitation of the cardiovascular system

Signs + symptoms: Tachycardia, palpitations and headache

Management: Typically only short in duration. Ensure to stop procedure and monitor the patient.

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213
Q

Why can oedema occur during IANB administration?

A

Cause: May be caused by physical trauma, an allergic response, haemorrhage or irritation

Signs + symptoms: Present as a swelling tissues on the medial side of the ramus after deposition of LA

Managment: Pressure and cold compress applied to the area for 3-5 minutes, acoompanied by warm saline rinse

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214
Q

Why can tingly in the trap and throat happen during IANB administration?

A

Causes: 1) LA travelling down the brachial plexus (unlikely)
2) LA deposited too far back into the fascia surrounding pharyngeal muscles -> anaesthetised supraclavicular branch of cervical plexus that innervates ur traps -> arm numbness (more likely)

Sing + symptoms: Tingling in the throat and trap

Managment: Reassure patient it is temporary. Monitor. If the paraesthesia is persistent, need to get medical care.

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215
Q

What is the key differene between the Miller technique and Tube shift technique in localisation?

A
  1. Miller technique - two radiographs are taken at right angles to each other - good at determining the position of an impacted tooth
  2. Tube shift - a slight shift of the tube is needed after the first radiograph (SLOB) to discern which root is which
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216
Q

What is the purpose of a facebow?

A

It relates a patients maxillary arch to the intercondylar axis and the point orbital and enable these relationships to be transferred to an artiulator where this can be reproduced

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217
Q

How do you perform a cold test?

A
  1. Identify a tooth in question
  2. Dry the tooth thoroughly and also try a tooth that you would use a base reading (maybe two)
  3. Explain to the patient to indicate if they feel pain using their hand
  4. Ask the DA to apply endofrost on a cotton bud while you retract the tissue over the tooth you going to use as base reading
  5. Carefully, without touching soft tissue, place the cotton bud with endo frost on the tooth that is used as baseline
  6. When the patient reacts, remove the cotton bud and ask how they feel - it should be “It felt cold but it went aaway fast”
  7. Now move on to the tooth in question and repeat the procedure
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218
Q

How do you perform and Electric pulp test?

A
  1. Ensure the patient understands what the procedures entitles
  2. identify the tooth of interest
  3. Dry the tooth thoroughly and also try a tooth that you would use a base reading (maybe two)
  4. Ask the patient to hold on to the lip clip for you
  5. Ask the patient to indicate when they feel something by raising their hand up
  6. Make sure that the light on the Electric pulp test is visible by operator, apply tooth paste to the tip of the EPT pen for conduction and begin conduction on the baseline tooth - carefully without touching the soft tissue and maintaining appropriate moisture control
  7. When patient reacts, record the reading and move onto the tooth in question
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219
Q

How to perform indirect pulp capping?

A
  1. Do normal steps of caries removal BUT do not remove all of the infected dentine
  2. When try to remove as much infected as possible, slowly, preferably not using a power headpiece with leaving a small layer at the bottom of the cavity prep
  3. Using RMGIC or GIC base cover the cavity, incrementally, ensuring THERE IS APPROPRIATLEY CORONAL SEAL
  4. Reduce the RMGIC and replace with Resin
  5. Tell the patient they might experience sesativity in the tooth, thus might needs to take some NSAIDS -recall in 3 months for re-examination if the tooth remains asymptomatic
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220
Q

What are the potential causes of reaction to LA for a patient with dental anxiety?

A

Patient causes: panic attack due to hyperventilation and dental anxiety

Operator: Intravascular injection

Or Both at the same time

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221
Q

How to manage a gagging patient?

A
  1. Let them know in advance
  2. Use fast set alginate
  3. Use warmer water
  4. Use salt on the roof of the mouth
  5. Add wax to the posterior of the tray
  6. Ask the patient to lean forward to reduce flow to the back of the mouth
  7. Get a vomit bag for the patient
  8. TRY NOT TO REMOVE THE TRAY
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222
Q

If a GP point is present in a radiograph, what intraoral signs will you experience?

A
  1. Draining sinus
  2. Non-responsive to sensibility test
  3. Tenderness to percussion
  4. Tooth mobility
  5. Tenderness to apical palpation
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223
Q

What are some of common conditions should we worry about in terms of the cardiovascular disease section of the medical history?

A
  1. Heart failure
  2. Acute Myocardial Infraction
  3. Hypertension - high blood pressure
  4. Congenital Heart Disease - bacterial endocarditis
  5. Arrhythmias - related to heart failure and blood thinners
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224
Q

What is important aspects to assist a patient with general stress?

A
  1. Open communication about fears and concerns
  2. Short appoitment
  3. Mornign appoitment
  4. Ensure profound local anaesthesia
  5. Need to provide adequate post-operative pain control
  6. Post-procedure telephone call
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225
Q

What are some of common conditions should we worry about in terms of the blood disorders section of the medical history?

A
  1. Inherited bleeding disorders - haemophilia
  2. Anaemia
  3. Leukemia or blood dyscrasias
  4. Blood thinners
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226
Q

What are some of common conditions should we worry about in terms of the respiratory tract disease section of the medical history?

A
  1. Asthma
  2. Chronic obstructive airways disease
  3. Tuberculosis
  4. Sleep apnea or sleep disordered breathing
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227
Q

What are some of common conditions should we worry about in terms of the neurological disorders disease section of the medical history?

A
  1. Stroke
  2. Epilepsy, seizures and convulsions
  3. Behavioral/psychiatric disorders
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228
Q

What are some of common conditions should we worry about in terms of the endocrine disease section of the medical history?

A
  1. Diabetes - type I and type II
  2. Thyroid disease - uncontrolled hyperthyroidism and stress sensativity
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229
Q

What are some of common conditions should we worry about in terms of the genitourinary tract disease section of the medical history?

A
  1. Kidney disease - abnormal drug metabolism
  2. Sexually transmitted disease - HIV, Hep b and C
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230
Q

What are some of common conditions should we worry about in terms of the muscuskeletal disease section of the medical history?

A
  1. Arthritis - relating to TMJ and use of NSAIDS
  2. Prosthetic joints
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231
Q

What are some of the other conditions to look out for when conducting a thorough medical history?

A
  1. Tobacco and alcohol use
  2. Drug addiction and substance abuse
  3. Cancer treatment
  4. Use of steroids
  5. Pregnancy
  6. Previous operations or hospitalisations
232
Q

What is considered to be normal blood pressure?

A

Any blood pressure where the systolic (first reading) is below 120 and diastolic (second reading) is below 80 e.g. 119/79

233
Q

What is the protocol of action if you suspect the patient having coronary ischaemia syndromes in chair?

A
  1. Stop treatment
  2. Measure: blood pressure, heart rate and pulse oximetry
  3. Assess consciousness
  4. To relieve symptoms use glyceryl as instructed, call the registered nurse

If patient reports pain to be THE WORST EVER DO:
1. Call 000
2. Give glyceryl to a patient with previous history of angina
3. Give aspiring 300 mg orally
4. Measure: blood pressure, heart rate and pulse oximetry
5. Start supplemental oxygen - call registered nurse
6. Provide reassurance
7. If patient loses consciousness - start DRSABCD protocol

234
Q

What is cardiac arrest, what are signs and causes, what is the management of the patient?

A

Cardiac arrest is the stop of heart function.

Signs: no pulse, loss of consciousnes and respiration

Causes: ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, asystole

Managment:
1. Stop dental treatment
2. Call 000
3. DRSABCD

235
Q

What are the different severity of an asthma attack?

A
  1. Moderate/mild: Saturation level of oxygen in blood abover 94%
  2. Severe: Oxygen saturation of 90-94%
    Life-threatning: oxygen saturation of less than 90%
236
Q

What is the management of mild or moderate asthma?

A
  1. 4 puffs of slabutamol inhaler, 1 puff at a time, shaken before each puff
  2. Ask the patient to take 4 breaths in and out of the spacer after each puff
  3. Wait 4 minutes
  4. If no imporvement - repeate
  5. If no improvement again - define this as a sever or life-threatening attack
237
Q

What is the management of sever or life threatening asthma attack?

A
  1. Call 000
  2. Start oxygen and airway support
  3. Salbutamol - 12 puffs for 6+ years, 6 puffs for less than 6 year olds
  4. 1 puff at a time, 4 breaths in between
  5. When waiting for help - perform the protocol every 20 minutes
  6. If patient is worsening - continuously administer salbutamol
238
Q

What are the steps of management if the patient is conscious with signs of airway obstruction?

A
  1. Call 000
  2. Reassure the patient and ask them to relax, breete deeply and try to dislodge the object by coughing
  3. If coughing is ineffective - give upto 5 back blows between the shoulder blades - check between each hit
  4. If the back blows dont work, do 5 chest thrust similar to CPR
  5. Continue until assistance arrives
239
Q

What are the steps of management if the patient is unconscious with signs of airway obstruction?

A
  1. Call 000
  2. Inspect the back of the throat for foreign object
  3. Start DRSABCD
  4. Consider performing cricothyroidotomy
  5. DO NOT DO THE HEIMLICH MANOEURVE
240
Q

What are the steps to managing a patient with a stroke?

A
  1. Stop dental treatment
  2. Call 000
  3. Measure: blood pressure, heart rate and pulse oximetry
  4. Start oxygen and airway support
  5. Monitor vital signs
241
Q

What is the management of seizures?

A

If history of epilepsy or seisures is present - please use a bite block on the patient

  1. Stop dental treatment
  2. Ensure patient is not in danger
  3. Turn the patient to the side
  4. Avoid restrainning
  5. Wait until seizure stops
  6. Maintain airways
  7. Assess the patient
  8. If still unconscious, call 000 and maintain airways
242
Q

What to do if you given the patient a partial paralysis of priocular muscles because of the injection intro the parotid plexus?

A
  1. Stop administratioe patchn of local anaesthetic
  2. Explain what happened
  3. Tell the patient to not rub their eye
  4. Close the eye with an eye patch
  5. Keep the patient under observation until the ability to blink starts to return
  6. Advise patient not to drive
  7. Phone the patient in 12 hours and make sure the issue resolved - if not refer for extra medical care
243
Q

How to manage a person with hypoglycaemia?

A
  1. Stop dental treatment
  2. Give 15 g of glucose or a similar drink or food
  3. Measure blood glucose - if does not return to normal - repeat the dose
  4. If after 3 doses normal blood sugar not returned - call for help
  5. If unconscious call 000 than DRSABCD
244
Q

How to manage a person with hyperglycaemia?

A

Call 000

245
Q

When does an addisonian crisis occur and how to manage it?

A

Usually occurs in patient with hyperthyroidism or use of corticosteroids 6-12 hours after surgica; stress

Managment:
1. Call 000
2. Give hydrocortisone 200 mg
3. Think about GIVING MORE STEROID BEFORE PROCEDURES

246
Q

What is step by step management of extensive urticaria or angiodema ro swelling involving eyelids, lips or tongue?

A
  1. Stop dental treatment
  2. Remove or stop administarion of the allergen
  3. Refer for urgent medical attention; systemic corticosteroids may be indicated
247
Q

What is step by step urticaria or angiodema with associated hypotension and evidence of anaphylaxis?

A
  1. Stop dental treatment
  2. Remove or stop administration of the allergen
  3. Call 000
  4. Give intramuscular injection of adrenaline
248
Q

What is the step by step management of a patient with anaphylaxis?

A
  1. Stop dental treatment
  2. Remove or stop administration of the allergen
  3. Lie patient flat
  4. Give an intramuscular injection of adrenaline
  5. Call 000
  6. Start supplemental oxygen and airway support if needed
  7. DRABCD
  8. Repeat adrenaline every 5 minutes
249
Q

What are some of the important information that needs to be considered when treating a patient with COPD?

A
  1. Avoid treating if upper respiratory infection is present
  2. Treat in upright chair position
  3. Avoid rubber dam in sever disease
  4. Use pulse oximetry in severe disease
  5. Avoid nitrous oxide/oxygen inhalation sedation with sever COPD - in order to not reduce the respiratory drive
  6. Avoid using narcoticts - in order to not reduce the respiratory drive
  7. Consider using steroids before the appoitment
250
Q

What treatment can we give to a patient with previous history of tuberculosis?

A

Thorough history is important - contact their respiratory physician about the stage of their disease and procautions that they need.

If patient is confirmed free of disease than patient is safe to be treated as normal.

251
Q

What are the two main types of sleep apnoe?

A
  1. Obstructive sleep apnea
  2. Central Sleep Apnea - lack of breathing as a result of lack of CNS respiratory drive
252
Q

What are some of the potential way to manage OSA?

A
  1. General measures - weight loss, exercise, nsala decongestants
  2. Positive airway pressure machine
  3. Oral appliances
  4. Upper airway surgery - Powell-Riley protocol - ENT and maxilofacial surgery
253
Q

What is the purpose of the mandible advancement device?

A

The main purpose is to protrude the mandible forward (and the tongue) in order to reduce the airway restriction.

Some association with TMD.

254
Q

What is the difference between incision biopsy and excitional biopsy?

A
  1. Incisional - small section of a lesion taken
  2. Ecsitional - all of the lesion is taken
255
Q

What is the difference between a cancerous lymph-node and a node during an infection?

A

Cancerous
1. Fixed
2. Enlarged
3. Rubbery and hard
4. None-tender

During an infection:
1. Can be rolled
2. Enlarged
3. Kinda soft

256
Q

What are the oral consequences of kidney disease?

A
  1. Greater bleeding tendency due to reduction in platalets
  2. Hypertension due to extra blood volume

3.Anaemia

4.Drug intolerance - antibiotic and analgesics

  1. Increased susceptibility to infections
  2. Halitosis, burning sensation int eh mouth, uremic stomatitis, periodontal disease
  3. Xerostomia
  4. Impared healing

Please consider collaborating with a nephrologis

257
Q

What are the steps to the dental management of a person who is on haemodialysis?

A
  1. Consultation with nephrologist
  2. Platelet dysfunction and anaemia resulting in bleeding tendency should be discussed
  3. Heparin anticoagulation can be given to patient who is on haemodialysis - thus maybe try to do a procedure on another day
  4. Avoid compression on the arm with the vascular access
  5. Do not presribe some drugs - check with MIMS or consult with the renal specialist
  6. Look out for renal osteodystrophy - there is weaker bone with those patients so extra care need to be taken care when performing surgery
258
Q

What are the steps to the dental management of a person who had a kidney transplant?

A
  1. Consultation with nephrologist
  2. Platelet dysfunction and anaemia resulting in bleeding tendency should be discussed
  3. Risk of adrenal crisis if they are teated with long standing corticosteroid therapy: morning appoitment and consider the need of supplemental steroids
  4. Immunosuppression may require antibiotic prophylaxis prior to invasive dental procedures
  5. Disturbances in removal of drugs: care is needed prior to prescribing analgesia or antibiotics
  6. Gingival overgrowth as result of immunosuppressive drugs such as cyclosporin - also consider medication interactions

If anything beyond a clean is needed - please consider sending them to a specialist such a special needs dentist or a OMFS.

259
Q

What is the key distinction between a direct and indirect restoration?

A

Direct - the tooth surfae is preparred and the material is directly applied to it
Indirect - restoration is prepared in a lab and only after inserted onto the desired tooth/teeth

260
Q

What are the 4 main types of adhesion in dentistry with examples?

A
  1. Macromechanical (Amalgam)
  2. Micromechanical (Resin)
  3. Interfacial / chemical (Resin composite to ceramic)
  4. Chemical (GIC)
261
Q

What is the basic adhesive interaction between porcelain and enamel in porcelain crown bonding?

A
  1. Porcelain
  2. Etched porcelain
  3. Silane
  4. Resin cement
  5. Adhesive resin
  6. Etched enamel

This results in a continuous bonded layer with chemical and micromechanical bonding

262
Q

What are some of the factors that influence the adhesion to tooth structure?

A
  1. Factors associated with the type and quality of the tooth structure (e.g. prismatic vs aprismatic enamel or secondary vs tertiary dentine)
  2. Factors associated with cavity preparation (moisture, cavity size, smear layer, foundation of the bonding substrate)
  3. Factors associated with restorative materials (etch concentration, patient factors, polymerisation shrinkage)
263
Q

Where is aprismatic enamel located and why is it harder to etch?

A

Aprismatic enamel usually occur on the outer enamel surface or permanent and deciduous teeth. It is irregular in organisation and does not have the same hexagonal structure of enamel rods.

In a sense, aprismatic enamel is not harder to etch, it is harder to achieve an even etch in aprismatic enamel thus it is less likely to retain material using micro-mechanical retention.

264
Q

What is a smear layer?

A

It is a thin layer of tooth fragments and other materials that is formed during cavity preparation. It reduces the bonding ability.

265
Q

What are the main problems with etch-and-rinse adhesives that affect the formation of appropriate hybrid layer?

A
  1. Incomplete infiltration of primer into demineralized collagen
  2. Long-term water sorption into the hybrid layer with HEMA based adhesives
266
Q

What is the main problem with self-etch adhesives that affect the formation of appropriate hybrid layer?

A
  1. Formation of water blisters at the resin/dentine interface
  2. Semi-permeable membranes
  3. Greater failure rates and poorer bonding strengths than etch-and-rinse adhesives
267
Q

What is dentinal sensitivity?

A

It is a condition characterised by short, sharp pain arising from exposed dentine in response to stimuli.

Rapid onset of pain - can persist as dull, throbbing pain.

Usually associated with deeper dentine because deeper dentine wider and more dense dentinal tubules.

268
Q

Which fibres within the dentine are responsible to certain pain sensations?

A

Alpha fibres - short and sharp pain
C fibres - dull, lingering pain

269
Q

What are the steps for differential diganosis of caused of dentinal hypersensitivity?

A
  1. Carious dentine
  2. Tooth fracture exposing dentine
  3. Cracked tooth syndrome
  4. Postoperative sensitibity
  5. Traumatic occlusion
  6. Marginal leakage with exposed dentine around the margins
  7. Irreversible pulpitis
  8. Vital bleaching
270
Q

What is the main treatment for dentinal hypersensitivity?

A

Desensitisation of the tooth with blocking of the dentinal tubules or reducing sensitivity of the pulp to stimulus.

271
Q

What are the two main stretagies for tooth desensitisation?

A
  1. Prevention - removing cuasative factors, address relevant histories
  2. Management - tubule occlusion by adhesion of exogenous materials, modification of nerve excitability
272
Q

What are some of the good applicable solution for topical application for dentinal sensitivity?

A
  1. Potassium Nitrate
  2. Fuji bond LC
  3. CPP-ACP, F or Stanous fluoride
273
Q

How does potassium nitrate works?

A

Potassium nitrate is able to over-saturate the space outside the nerve cell membrane with positive potassium ions (K+) thus blocking the re-polarisation phase of the action potential, thereby blocking pain impulses.

274
Q

What options do you usually have with larger cavities?

A
  1. Direct - resin, amaglam, liners and basis
  2. Indirect - crowns, bridges, inlay, onlay
275
Q

What makes up a standard resin composite?

A
  1. Inorganic phase - filler particles like glasses containing quartz or zirconia + barium or strontium for radiopacity
  2. Organic pahse - BisGMA, UDMA and TEGDMA
  3. Interfacial phase - silane coupling agent - essentially bind the organic and inorganic phases
  4. Miscellaneous parts - like accelerators
276
Q

Why are 5th and 7th generation of adhesive system kinda mid?

A
  1. Because they are known to leave moisture bubles at the surface as well as water tress that impare bonding
  2. Because there is an issue with the acid that is used with self etching. Essentially a special compound is used to neutraulise the acid over time so that self etching does not continue to destroy tooth structure - but unfortunaley that compound affect may be delayed thus the created resin tags are not formed properly - this reduced their effectiveness thus making the restoration last less time :(
277
Q

What is the process of activation and initiation of dental composite material?

A
  1. Photo-initiator - in a form of specific frequency of light (light cure or UV light) initiates the creation of free radicals within the composite material
  2. The free radicals with an extra electron will bind with monomers in order to create a polymer - at the end of this process an electron is loss thus another free radical can be initiated
  3. This continues when around 80% of resin is polymerised and 20% is not - this is important to allow addition of other composite resin
  4. Over time, free radicals will combine - creating a stable compound
278
Q

How would you explain to the patient the CR survival?

A

An average composite may last around 3-8 years but only if it is maintained. Give car analogy.

279
Q

Why do amalgams last more than composites?

A

Amalgams last longer due to the hardness of the material - but if they fail they fail spectacularly

280
Q

How do we treat hypersensitivity?

A
  1. Block dentinal tubules - using restorations or protective coverings
  2. Block nerve activity - stanous fluoride and potassium nitrate
  3. Remove the cause - erosion and toothbrushing technique change
281
Q

How do we manage dentine hypersensitivity?

A
  1. Occlude dentinal tubules to reduce impact of stimuli on fluid movement - can be done through chemical occlusion (fluorides) or physical occlusion (sealed resorations)
  2. Reduce sensitivity of nerves - using potassium nitrate
282
Q

What are indications for indirect pulp capping?

A
  1. Deep cavity
  2. No pulpal exposure
  3. Removal of all infected dentine may result in pulpal exposure
  4. No signs or symptoms of irreversible pulpits
283
Q

What is the most important aspect of indirect pulp capping?

A

CORONAL SEAL IS VITAL.

284
Q

What happens to the pulp during direct pulp capping?

A

The varnish that is used is able to neutralise necrotic tissue and cause the deposition of tertiary dentine

285
Q

What are some of exteroceptors located in the oral cavity?

A
  1. Receptors in the PDL
  2. Receptors in alveolar mucosa
  3. Receptors in gingiva
  4. Receptors in periosteum of the jaw bone

They inform about the external loading when for example we chew

286
Q

What are some of the proprioceptors in the oral cavity?

A
  1. Muscle spindles in mastictory muscles
  2. TMJ spindles
287
Q

What is the importance of periodontal mechanoreceptors in clinical prectice?

A

They enable patients to detect new restoration which are high in occlusion

288
Q

What is the purpose of TMJ receptors?

A

They function as pain receptors and proprioceptors. They may act as velocity detectors and static-position of the TMJ detectors.

289
Q

How do we know that the tongue is so sensitive?

A

Because during two-point discrimination test, the tongue can detect 2 distinct points at around 1.4mm distance between them.

This sensitivity is related to tongue function and can be damped with local anaesthetics.

Tongue is also very very sensitive to temperature changes especially o n the dorsum area.

290
Q

What is osseoperception?

A

It is a type of perception that occurs int eh absence of a functional periodontal mechanoreceptive input.

The mechanoreceptors are derived from TMJ, muscles or periosteal mechanoreceptors.

They provide mechanosensory infromation for oral kinaesthetic sensibility in relation to the jaw function and the contacts of artificial teeth.

291
Q

What is oral stereognosis?

A

It is the ability to recognise and discriminate forms. Oral stereognosis is the ability to feel depth and understanding of 3 dimentions of objects.

Oral stereognosis can be used to measure oral functions.

Oral stereognosis is influences by forms, size and surface characteristics of the test piece.

Oral steregnosis is associated with health.

Oral stergnosis is HIGHLY DEPENDENT ON PERIODONTAL MECHANO RECEPTORS.

PULP IS NOT INVOLVED

292
Q

What are the two different types of pain and WHAT FIBRES are responsible for them?

A
  1. Fast pain - sharp pain that is well localised and has a short duration - facilitate by A-delta fibres
  2. Slow pain - aching, burning pain that is poorly localised and is long in duration - involves unmyelinated C fibres
293
Q

What is antidromic activation of nociceptors? Explain how it relates to the ‘hot pulp’ syndrome.

A

it is belied that in some cases, injury that is detected by the receptor through orhodromic means, meaning due to the injury itself, may cause propogation of the action potential to other receptors thus causing the pain to intensify through Substance P release.

Hot pulps:

  1. In ‘hot pulps’ the pain from the lesion is able to causes antidromic activation though the stimulus thus releasing substance P and Calcitonin gene related peptide (CGRP)
  2. Substance P is able to induce oedema formation through plasma extravasation
    and also cause mast cells degranulation, releasing histamines which activate more nociceptors
  3. CGRP are able to cause aditional oedema through dilation of peripheral blood vessels
  4. The increase in oedema causes an additional release of bradykinin which activates more nociceptors
  5. Through this multi step process, patient has a large number of nociceptors released thus causing hyperlgesia meaning the action potential threshold is considerably lower
294
Q

How does some patient adapt so quickly to dental occlusal change or rehabilitative procedures?

A

It relates to central sensitisation and neuroplasticity.

Central sensitisation is process of shifting of the sensation by the central nervous system due to new stimuli.

Neuroplasticity is a process in which the central nervous system may change it’s ability to detect different stimuli.

The adaptation to the new stimuli occurs first to central sensitisation and lead to the changes to the face sensorimotor cortex due to neuroplastic changes.

295
Q

What nerve fibres are present in the pulp?

A

A-beta
A-delta
C unmyelinated fibres - close to the pulp

296
Q

What are the 3 areas of the body that are able to detect taste and what nerves are able to carry the action potential form those areas?

A
  1. Anterior 2/3 of the tongue - nerve supply: Chorda tympani - VII
  2. Posterior 1/3 of the tongue nd pharynx - nerve supply: Glossopharyngeal - IX
  3. Anterior epiglotis and larynx - nerve supply: Vagus - X
297
Q

What conditions must the chemical meet in order to become detected and cause an olfactory stimulus?

A
  1. Must be volatile
  2. Must have sufficient water solubility
  3. Must be lipid soluble

]4. Must have a minimal concentration and minimal time of exposure to be detected

298
Q

What are peridontal mechanoreceptors, what is their function and what is their make up and ability?

A

Periodontal mechanoreceptors are ruffini type receptors that are within periodontal ligament.

They regulate the forces applied by the teeth in occlusion and mastication.

Response of the receptors vary ith the force applied to the tooth, but there is greater sensativity at low force levels.

This allows the mechanoreceptors to aid patient with finding high spots on restorations

299
Q

What is the step by step process to understand the arisal of a certain oral lesion?

A

Use this scheme

  1. Developmental origin
  2. Inflammatory origin
  3. Hyperplastic origin
  4. Degenerative origin
  5. Hormonal origin
  6. Neoplastic origin
  7. Idiopathic origin

DIHDHNI

300
Q

How do we take history about a lesion?

A
  1. Duration when the patient first started seeing the lesion
  2. Variations in site and character of the lesion
  3. Symptoms - related to the lesion and any systemic symptoms
  4. Onset - any associated hsitorical events related to the lesion
301
Q

What is the systematic way to examine a lesion?

A
  1. Site - using anatomical terminology
  2. Size - measure with a probe
  3. Morphology - elevated, flat or depressed
  4. Colour - compare to adjacent normal tissue
  5. Consistency - how it feels (ONLY CLINICAL DO NOT SAY THIS IN EXAM), texture - how the surface looks like (PHOTOS ARE APPROPRIATE :))
302
Q

What are some of the terminology in a lesion with elevated morpholoy?

A

Blisters - Fuild filled masses:

  1. Vesicle - upto 0.5cm
  2. Bulla - more than 0.5cm
  3. Pustule - pus of any size

Non-blisters - not fluid filled elevations

  1. Papule - upto 0.5cm
  2. Nodule - from 0.5cm to 2 cm
  3. Tumour - more than 2 cm
  4. Plaque - more than 0.5cm but it is only clightly raised
303
Q

What are some of the terminology of a lesion with depressed or flat morphology?

A

Depressed:
1. Ulcer (epithelium lost) - if it is yellow tissue more likely to be an ulcer

  1. Erosion (epithelium lost)/atrophy - if it is redness tissue more likely to be an erosion/atrophy

Flat:
1. Macule - discoloration (freckel)

  1. Patch - big discolouration
304
Q

What should you do with some of the lesions that you may encounter to understant if they are vascular?

A

Use a small, transparent plate and apply pressure - if the lesion stars to blanch, it is most likely to be vascular

305
Q

What are some common stains in oral pathology?

A
  1. Haematoxylin and eosin
  2. Periodic Acid-Shiff - used for fungal infection
306
Q

What is fine needle aspiratin used for?

A

It is mostly used for intraosseous pathology and fluctuant soft tissue pathology and neck masses

307
Q

What is core biopsy used for?

A

It is used to remove the core of some tissues - it is similar to scalpel biopsy but it has more complication than fine needle biopsy.

Mostly used in biopsy in the abdomen but also can be used on a lymph node

308
Q

What can a microbial culture show us?

A
  1. If it is a fungul infection
  2. If it is a bacterial infection - antibiotic infection may be needed
  3. If it is a viral infection
309
Q

What are the four layer of the epithelium?

A
  1. stratum basale (D)
  2. stratum spinosum (C)
  3. stratum granulosum (B)
  4. stratum corneum (A)

E and F and the papillary and reticular layer accordingly

310
Q

What are some the benign lesion of epithelial layer with idiopathic or developmental origin?

A
  1. Leukoedema
  2. White Sponge Nevus
  3. Epidermolysis Bullosa
311
Q

What is a leukoedema?

A

It is a common developmental lesion of the oral mucosa. It is a variation of normal mucosa and it is more common in individuals with dark skin. Mainly in buccal mucosa

It can be implicated by the use of tobacco or alcohol.

They are asymptomatic, bilateral, poorly defined and it disappears when the mucosa is stretched or whipped with a gauze. Please consider not to stretched the attached gingiva!

312
Q

What is the histology of leukoedema?

A

It appears in the supperficial half of the epithelium.

There are large vacuolated cells present with some Pyknotic nuclei.

Epithelial hyperplasia present as well as long elongated rete pegs

313
Q

What is the White Sponge Naevus?

A

It is a rare inherited condition. It is autosomal dominants trait and it is early onset. Majority of cases present with oral lesion, other mucosal surface may be affected.

It is asymptomatic, diffuse, with white thickening and if irregular thickening

314
Q

What is the histology of White Sponge Naevus?

A

It appears in the superficial layer of the epithelium.

Large vacuolated cells.

Pyknotic nuclei and thickened parakeratin layer

No dysplasia present

315
Q

What is benign migratory glossitis?

A

It is also known as geographic tongue - it is quite common and the aetiology is well known

It is a result of loss (atrophy) of filiform papillae. Sometimes it can be sore but again not much can be done - if concerning please refer for biopsy

316
Q

What can be commonly seen int eh benign migratory glossitis histologically?

A

Numerous microabscesses in the surface of epithelium filled with neutrophils and lymphocytes

317
Q

What is hairy tongue (aka coated tongue)?

A

It is a condition with poorly understood aetiology and a result of increased length of filliform papilla.

May be initiated by heavy smoking, atiobiotics and other.

Usually asymptomatic.

Increased number of chromogenic microorganisms thus a change in colour to usually darker one

318
Q

What do we do in the instance of hariy tongue, migratory glossitis or other benign developmental deviation?

A
  1. Ensure the patient that this is not something pathological
  2. Take a smear if needed
319
Q

What is haemangioma?

A

It is a localised vascular proliferation that may be congenital or arise later in life.

Could be single or multiple and results in soft tissue lesions usually

320
Q

What is the hsitological appearance of haemangioma?

A
  1. Layer of epileium
  2. Perforations of endothelial blood vessels and cells - forming capillaries
321
Q

What type of haemangioma is this?

A

This is capillary haemangioma due to the small capillary vessels presence

322
Q

What type of haemgioma is this?

A

This is cavernous haemangioma due to larger blood vessels present

323
Q

What conditions is this?

A

This is a caliber persistent labial artery.

It occurs when the inferior alveolar artery maintains it’s size after leaving the mental forament and becomes superficial in the lower lip.

It can present as a nodule. PLEASE PULPATE IT BECAUSE IT WILL PULSE

324
Q

What is normal physiological pigmentation?

A

It is usually:
1. Symmetrical

  1. Follows normal anatomy/tissue architecture
  2. Commonly seen in the gingivae
  3. Associated with increase melanin production
325
Q

What is this condition?

A

Oral melanotic macule or focal melanosis or an intraoral freckle

It is a well demarcated, uniform in colour, asymptomatic and has the same consitency as the surrounding mucosa macule.

Histologically it is related to increase melanin deposition.

Sometimes can arise due to medication use specifically oral medications.

Remeber macules DO NOT CHANGE OVER TIME

326
Q

What is this condition?

A

This iss a mucosal menocytic naevus.

It is a rare oral cavity lesion or patch.

It is bening proliferation of neaevus cells.

The lesion is not neoplastic but is a hamartomatous lesion

327
Q

What type of naevus is this?

A

This is a junctional naevus because is confined to the basal layer of the epithelium

328
Q

What type of naevus is this?

A

This is intraomucosal naevus - because is is not in the epeithelium

329
Q

What condition is this?

A

This is an amalgam tattoo - it is associated with some of the amalgam being incorporate into the adjcent soft tissue over time. PLEASE LOOK AT AMALGAM NEAR BY.

This lesion can grow but usually at a none alarming rate.

330
Q

What are Fordyce spots?

A

They are ectopic sebaceous glands that usually occur on the buccal mucosa - their instance increases with age.

They are slightly elevated yellowish nodules.

It arises due to the arisal of the tissue from the ectoderm during the embrio development

331
Q

What are the histological features of the Fordyce spots?

A

They are very similar to sebaceous glands

332
Q

What condition is this?

A

These are lingual tonsils.

This is part of the lymphoid tissue (Welder’s ring) that is used to fight infection.

The lymphoid tissue underneath the folliate papilla goes through lymphoid hyperplasia (growth) and result in an elevation on the postra-lateral tongue surface.

333
Q

What type of tissue is this?

A

This is lingual thyroid tissue

334
Q

What are the Tori and exostoses?

A

They are bony protuberances.

Non-neoplastic.

Possibly inherited

Exotoses - multiple or single nodules at the buccal aspect of the alveolar bone

335
Q

What is hyperplasia?

A

It is an increase in the size of a particular tissue by increase in cell number - it is reversible and stimulus dependent

336
Q

What is hypertrophy?

A

It is an increase in the size of particular tissue by increase in cell size.

337
Q

What are the two basic morphological potentials of a lesion?

A
  1. Senssile lesion - broad based lesion
  2. Pedunculatedlesion - on a stalk - use a perioprobe to see if a lesion has a neck
338
Q

What are some of the other adjectives that can be used to describe a lesion?

A
  1. Papillary - any small growth projectin into a cavity
  2. Verrucous - warty surface appearance (small hyperkeratinised projections)
  3. Epulis - lump on the gum non-neoplastic
339
Q

What is fibroepithelial hyperplasia?

A

It is a growth of fibrous connective tissue underneath an epithelium

340
Q

WHat are the clinical features of fibroepithelial hyperplasia?

A

It is a exophytic lesion.
Site is a site of trauma

Size is around 1-2mm upto 1cm

Moprphology could be sessile or pedunculated

Colour is similar to normal mucosa but could look inflamed

Consistency could be soft to hard depending on the age of the fibrous tissue

341
Q

What is the aetiology, pathogenesis and treatment of fibroepethilial hyperplasia?

A

Aetiology: Chronic physical trauma, cheek biting, irritation from broken teeth etc.

Pathogenesis - cellular proliferation and production of cell product - predominantly connective tissue

Treatment: Excision of the tissue and removal of the cause

342
Q

What is papillary hyperplasiaof the palate?

A

It is a nodular overgowth that is associated with dentures and S.Candida infection.

Associated with nodular hyperplasia in histological samples

343
Q

What is the common histological presentation of the S.Candida infection

A

It is a presented as a nodule appearance with chronic inflammatory cell infiltrate

344
Q

What condition is this?

A

This is fibroepithelial polyp. It is a localised fibroepithelial hyperplasia. Can occur anywhere but commonly sites prone to trauma.

It is similar to the colour of the surroinding tissue but may appear a bit more inflammaed.

345
Q

What condition is this?

A

This is fibroepithelial polyp. It is a localised fibroepithelial hyperplasia. Can occur anywhere but commonly sites prone to trauma.

346
Q

What is the histopathology of fibroepithelial polyp?

A

It is an overlying epithelium - hyperplastic or atopic or normal. Bulk lesion is made up of densely collagenous fibrous connective tissue.

MAY OCCUR WITH OSSIFICATION

347
Q

What is the aetiology and treatment of fibroepithelial polyp?

A

Aetiology: chronic physical trauma and inflammation

Treatment: Excision

348
Q

What is the aetiology and treatment of fibroepithelial polyp?

A

Aetiology: chronic physical trauma and inflammation

Treatment: Excision

349
Q

What condition is this?

A

This is pyogenic granuloma.

It is a localised soft tissue lesion that is common in people who are pregnant due to the hormone imbalance.

Site: Anywhere but classically arises from the interdental papilla

350
Q

What are the clinical features of pyognic granuloma?

A

Usually sensile

Sudden onset and rapid growth

Bright red and haemorrhagic, ulcerated surface.

Tissue may mature thus becomes fibrosed

351
Q

What are the clinical features of pyognic granuloma?

A

Usually sensile

Sudden onset and rapid growth

Bright red and haemorrhagic, ulcerated surface.

Tissue may mature thus becomes fibrosed

352
Q

What is the hsitopathology of Pyogenic granuloma?

A

Many lesions are made up of exuberant granulation tissue. It is a very vascular lesion with large numbers of thin walled dilated blood vessels lined by endothelial cells

353
Q

What is the treatment for pyogenic granuloma?

A

Excision and removal of causative factors

354
Q

What is peripheral giant cell granuloma?

A

It is a similar lesion to the pyogenic granuloma but it also involves bone tissue

355
Q

What is the histopathology of the peripheral giant cell granuloma?

A

It is a well vascularised cellular tissue with mononuclear cells.

If you see multinucleadted diant cells - probs a peripheral giant cell granuloma

356
Q

What is the imortant aspect of the peripheral giant cell granuloma?

A

It is important to determine that the lesion is not an intra-bony or central lesion which has perforated cortical bone

357
Q

What is ulcerated fibrous epulis with ossification? what are the clinical features?

A

It is a relatively common oral lesion. Presents as localised lesion of gingiva like fibrous epulis and pyogenic granuloma.

Clinical features:
1. Painless

  1. Relatively rapid growth
  2. Size usually less than 1 cm
  3. Sometimes - surface ulceration
358
Q

What is the histopathology of ulcerated epulis with ossification?

A

It is a very cellular lesion - well vascularised and collagenous. IT CONTAINS CALCIFICATIONS.

359
Q

What are generalised gingival hyperplastic lesions?

A

They are lesion that occur due to underlying factors such as plaque or use of certain medications such as hypertension medication (calcium channel blockers) or anti-covulsants or immunosupresants.

Drug Induced Gingival Overgrowth is one of them

360
Q

What is a linea alba?

A

It is a lesion occurring on the buccal mucosa as a result of a local mechanical trauma

361
Q

What is morsicatio buccarum?

A

It is cheek biting which causes chronic mechanical trauma.

Clinical presentation is a unilateral or bilateral white patch on the buccal mucosa, which is rough and whitenned. Usually symptomless

362
Q

What is the management of cheek biting?

A
  1. Control of habit
  2. Might need to treat the underlying stress
363
Q

What is frictional keratosis?

A

It is similar to the cheek biting and linea alba but usually occurs on commonly traumatised sites such as the lips, lateral border of the tongue, buccal mucosa, edentulous alveolar ridge.

Appears as a poorly demarcated white lesion.

364
Q

What happens histologically in frictional keratosis? What is the management?

A

Histological features:
1. Hyperkeratosis

  1. No dysplastic changes

Management:

  1. Identify and try and remove a cause - might be difficult with edentulous patients
  2. Always biopsy if in doubt :)
365
Q

What is smoker’s keratosis?

A

It is a diffused, white, moderately thickened palate that can be sometimes roughened.

It usually involves the entire palate with characteristic, red, minor salivary gland dots.

Associated with tobacco smoking, especially reverse smoking.

366
Q

What is the histopathology of smokers keratosis?

A

Hyperkeratosis is common. Thickening of stratum spinosum (prickle cell layer)

367
Q

What condition is this?

A

This chronic hyperplastic candidiasis.

It is usually a single, fixed, white or mix of white and red patch that syays when whipped.

May occur anywhere but common sites are the tongue and buccal mucosa.

368
Q

What is the histopathological appearance of chronic hyperplastic candidiasis?

A

Thickening large bulbus epithelial with keratinisation

369
Q

What are the three common oral HPV infections?

A
  1. Squamous papillomas/Oral warts - EXCISE MIGHT BE MALIGNANT
  2. Condyloma accuminatum - EXCISE MIGHT BE INFECTIOUS
  3. Focal epithelial hyperpklasia
370
Q

What are histopathological features of the giant cell fibroma? What are the clinical features?

A

The main difference between giant cell fibroma is the Giant Stellate Cells rather than the osteoclast like cells.

The clinical features are similar: small, raised, pedunculated lesion that is asymptomatic

371
Q

What is the treatment for giant cell fibroma?

A

usually surgical excision.

The reoccurance of giant cell fibroma is relativley rare

372
Q

What is traumatic neuroma? What are it’s clinical signs?

A

It is a lesion thatoccurs due to the damage of a nerve trunk following some sort of injury (like surgery or pressure on dentures).

Essenially - the repair of the axon does not go as planned and the lesion if fully comprised of the neural tissue.

Clinical features: small swelling or nodule on mucosa near mental foramen, alveolar ridge, lips or tongue. Pressure on the nodule cuases pain

373
Q

What is histapathology and treatment of traumatic neuroma?

A

Histopathology: Presents as a mass of irregular bundle situated in variable amount of connective tissue stroma.

Treatment: surgical excision

374
Q

What is this condition?

A

This is verruciform xanthoma, it is a rare lesion that mimic squamous cell carcinoma.

It is flat, velvety, pebbly.

375
Q

What is the histopathological appearacnce of verruciform xanthoma?

A

It is usually associated with foamy, lipid filled marophages.

The lesion is bening

376
Q

What is an ulcer?

A

An ulcer is the loss of contnues of epithelial linings and some fo the connective tissue. It is associated with colour yellow.

377
Q

What are the parts of an ulcer?

A
  1. Border
  2. Depression
378
Q

What are some of the oral that require urgent attention and referral?

A
  1. Long-standing ulcers with no obvious cause
  2. Indurated (hard) borders - PLEASE PALPATE
  3. Deep ulcers with rolled borders
  4. Ulcer that is fixed to underlying tissues - usually ulcers are mobile
  5. Painless ulcer
  6. Ulcers associated with lymphadenopathy - if there is a large swelling - EMERGENCY
379
Q

What are the different sub types of ulcers that can occur?

A
  1. Reactive lesions
  2. Developmental
  3. Inflammatory/immunologic
  4. Infective
  5. neoplastic
  6. Idiopathic
380
Q

What is a traumatic ulceration?

A

It is a type of ulceration from mechanical, chemical, thermal and radiation injury.

Please recall the patient in 2 weeks and during the session try to remove the cause.

381
Q

What are the two types of traumatic lesions?

A
  1. Acute traumatic lesions - a lot of pain, surface covered by yellow fibrinous exudate and halo border
  2. Chronic traumatic lesions - minimal pain, elevated margins, fibroepithelial hyperplasia, epithelial hyperkeratosis, induration
382
Q

What is a traumatic eosinophilic ulcer?

A

It is a bening chronic ulcer usually presenting on the tongue.

It is crateriform in shape.

383
Q

What is the histopathological significance of eosinophilic ulcer and why should it worry us?

A

Eosinophilic ulcers are usually associated with an abnormal presentation of eosinophils thus it is important to send a biopsy sample of the ulcer for histopathological investigation to ensure it is not malignant

384
Q

What is this condition?

A

This is a minor aphthous ulcer - which one of the most common ulcer of infectious origin.

It usually occurs in non-keratinised mucosa, it is shallow and rounded.

It has erythematous margins and yellowish floor

385
Q

What is this condition?

A

This is a major Aphthous Ulcer - an uncommon ulcer of infectious origin.

It is usually very large and can involve keratinised mucosa. This need to be reffer for biopsy because this could be a melignancy.

386
Q

What is this condition?

A

This is Herpetiform aphthous ulvers - it is an uncommon and are very very small.

Named herpetiform due to the resemblance of the ulcers to those of herpetic stomatitis

ONLY OCCURS ON NONE-KERATINISED TISSUES

387
Q

What are the basic management plan for aphthous ulcers?

A
  1. Accurate diagnosis
  2. Symptomatic treatment
  3. Steroid
388
Q

What are the oral manifestations of Crohn’s disease?

A
  1. Diffuse lip swelling
  2. Coble stone thickening of the mucosa
  3. Ulcers
389
Q

What is glossitis?

A

It is the atrophy of the lingual papilla

390
Q

What are the three common origins of oral infections?

A
  1. Viral disease
  2. Fungal disease
  3. Bacterial disease
391
Q

What is this condition?

A

This is necrotising gingivitis. It is usualy caused by a presence of an opportunistic bacteria and an underlying stress factor.

Clinical features: necrosis of the papilla, sudden onset, ulcer covered by greyish pseudomembrane from surrounding mucosa

Treatment:

  1. OHI
  2. Debridement
  3. CHx
  4. Metronidozole 400mg 6 hourly for 5-7 days
392
Q

What is this condition?

A

This is cancrum oris (noma) - it is a destructive condition involving oral soft tissues and jawbone.

Usually associated with children who are malnourished and have lower immunity due to systemic infections.

Thought to arise from NG

393
Q

What is this condition?

A

This is actinomyces - an infection characterised by multiple foci of chronic suppuration.

Patient present with firm swelling commonly in the submandibular region with variable pain symptoms.

Treatment: prologned antimicrobial treatment after cultures

394
Q

What are the histological features of Actinomyces?

A
  1. Chronic granulomatous inflammation surrounded by abundant granulation tissue and fibrosis
  2. Granules consisting of tangled meshes of organisms may be seen
395
Q

What is syphilis and what are the 2 common types of syphilis?

A

It is a sexually transmitted disease that is cause by T. Pallidum

Two common types

  1. Congenital
  2. Aquired
396
Q

What are some of the oral manifestations of congenital syphilis?

A
  1. Notched permanent incisors
  2. Hypoplastic first molars
  3. Saddle bone deformity
397
Q

What are the lesion of the primary syphilis?

A

It is a chancre - which occurs at the site of primary inoculation 3-4 weeks after infection.

Lesions are high infectious - be careful!

Heals naturally

398
Q

What are the lesion of the secondary syphilis?

A

They are usually described as some mucous patch, rash or condyloma lactum.

Usually occur 6-8 weeks after primary stage.

Still infectious - please be careful

399
Q

What are the lesion of the tertiary syphilis?

A

They are called Gumma - they usually involve the hard palate perfiration or syphilitic glossitis

400
Q

What are the oral manifestation of Tuberculosis?

A

Mulitlobular ulcerated growth due to immundeficency - histologically it is associated with granuloma inflammation.

401
Q

What are the oral manifestations of Leprosy?

A

Nodular mucosa lesions are present in 20-60% of the patient

402
Q

What are the aitological factors to Oral Candidosis?

A

Local factors:
- Poor denture hygiene
-Reduced vertical dimension
-Reduced salivary flow

Systemic factors:
-Extreme of age
-Endocrine disturbances
-Malnutrition
-Antibiotic therapy

403
Q

What are the classifications of oral candidosis?

A
  1. Acute:
    - Atrophic (denture or antiotic-associated)
    - Pseudomembranous condidosis - thrush
  2. Chronic
    -Atrophic
    -Hyperpastic
  3. Mucocutaneous
    - Usually T cell deficiency
404
Q

What is an Acute Atrophic Candidosis? What is the management?

A

It is a generalised, red focal area of red/inflamed oralmucosa.

This condition has no other specific symptoms other than pain.

Management:
-Correct diagnosis
-Oral denture hygiene
-Antifungal agents

405
Q

What is the acute pseudomembranous candidosis or thrush?

A

it is most common type of acute candidiasis.

This is a lesion/lesions that is associated with soft, white/yellow plaque that can be lifted off the mucosa.

These plaques represent inflammatory exudate, dead cells and fungal colonies

406
Q

What is the management of acute pseudomembranous cndidosis?

A
  1. Base your diagnosis on oral features and cytology smear
  2. Managment depedns on sverity of symptoms and predisposing factors:
  • for simple case - antibiotic therapy, topical antifungal agents and oral hygiene instructions
  • for a complex case e.g. patient with immunosuppression - medical consultation and topical/systemic antifungal agents
407
Q

What is chronic atropic candidosis?

A

Chronic Atrophic Candidosis - is a non-specific red area in the mouth.

Some of the example of it is angular cheilitis

Take a smear.

408
Q

Whatis a Chronic Hyperplastic Candidosis?

A

It is lesion/lesions that may occur anywere but are common to the tongue and buccal mucosa.

Present as white or mixed white/red patches or plaques on the mucosa.

THIS LESION CAN RESEMBLE OTHER PATHOLOGY - like lichen planus or early squamous cell cercinoma biopsy and re-biopsy after antifungal treatment

409
Q

What can exfoliative cytology be used for?

A
  1. Fungal infections
  2. Bacterial infections
  3. Viral infections
410
Q

What is one of the treatment of oral candidosis?

A

Miconazole 2% gel 2.5 mL topically (then swallowed), 4 times daily, after food, for 7 to 14 days; continue treatment for at least 7 days after symptoms resolve - NO WOFERIN

Or Amphotericin B 10 mg lozenge sucked (then swallowed),4 times daily, 7 to 14 days; continue treatment 2 to 3 days after resolved

411
Q

What is a treatment for a patient with angular cheilitis?

A

Miconazole 2% gel 2.5 mL topically (then swallowed), 4 times daily, after food, for 14 days; continue treatment for at least 14 days after symptoms resolve - NO WOFERIN

or

Chlorimazole 1% cream topically to the angles of the mouth, twice daily for at least 14 days; continue treatment for 14 days after symptoms resolve

412
Q

What are quite common viruses with oral manifestations?

A
  1. Herpes labialis
  2. HPV
  3. HIV
  4. Hep C
413
Q

What is gingivostomatitis?

A

It is a widespread vesicular eruption involving skin, vermillion and mucosa.

It results in painful widespread infection that can be observed in the photo.

It is associated with young children or older adult who are immunocomprimised

414
Q

What is recurrent herpes simlex vitus?

A

It is a vesicular eruption affecting perioral skin, lips, gignivae and palate - knowns as harpes labialis

415
Q

What are the histological features of herpetic lesions?

A
  1. Intraepitheial vesicle formation - aka acantholysis
  2. The vesicles contain inflammatory cells and exudate
  3. Destruction of epithelial cells
416
Q

What is the varicells virus?

A

It is also known as chicken pox!

It is a vesicular infection that migh have some oral mucosal involvement

417
Q

What does the reactivation vericells virus lead to?

A

It leads to shingles.

Shingles may result in oral manifestations like vesicular lesiosn aorund the oral cavity.

418
Q

What is a dermatome?

A

A dermatome is an area of sking that is associated with a root of a single neural connection to the spine or orofacial (cranial) nerves

419
Q

What is Oral Hairy Leukoplakia?

A

It is a oral manifestation that relates to the Epstein Barr Virus and is associated with HIV invection

420
Q

What are the two conditions related to Coxsackie virus infections?

A
  1. Hand-foot-and-mouth disease
  2. Herpangina

Both are self limiting infections that effect children more than the adults

421
Q

What do you usually associate infections with?

A

Systemic symptoms such as fever and enlarged tender lymph nodes.

422
Q

What is the difference between true herpes infection ulcer and a herpetiform apthous ulcer?

A

True herpes infections come with systemic symptoms herpetiform does not

423
Q

What is a meaning of tumour?

A

Tumour - means swelling above the size of 2cm.

424
Q

What is a meaning of a neoplasm?

A

Neoplasm - is a tumour that does not stop growing

425
Q

What are the terminology of the bening and malignant tumours?

A
  1. Bening tumours have the suffix “…oma”
  2. Melignant tumours:
    - Epithelial tumours are “carcinoma”
    - Mesenchymal tumour have a suffic “…sarcoma”

The exeptions are: melanoma and lymphoma which are both malignant

426
Q

What is the orgini of most benign fibromas in the oral cavity?

A

Most of them arise from fibropepithelials polyps and fibroepithelial hyperplasia

427
Q

What are oral potentially malignant disorders?

A

It is a clinical presentation that carry a risk of cancer development in the oral cavity whether in a clinically definable precursor lesion or in clincally normal oral mucosa.

428
Q

What are risk factors for cancer?

A
  1. Tobacco
  2. Alcohol
  3. Betel-quid (tobaco in a different form) - bucal sulcus
429
Q

What is the cinical spectrum of normal mucosa to erythroplkia?

A
  1. Normal mucosa
  2. Thin, smooth leukplakia
  3. Thick, fissured, leukoplakia
  4. Granular, verruciform leukoplakia
  5. Red tissue - erytholeukoplakia
430
Q

What is a leukoplakia?

A

It is a predominantly white plaque of questionable risk having excluded other known diseases or disorders that carry no increased risk of cancer

431
Q

What is proliferative verrucous leukoplakia?

A

Proliferative verrucous leukoplakia is a progressive, persistent and irreversible disorder characterized by the presence of multiple leukoplakia that frequently become warty.

432
Q

What is eryhtroplakia?

A

Erythroplakia is a predominantly fiery red patch that cannot be characterized clinically or pathologically as any other definable disease

433
Q

What is lichen planus?

A

A lichen Planus is a chronic inflammatory disorder of uknown etiology with characteristis relapses and remissions, displaying white reticular lesions, accompanied or not by atrophic, erosive and ulcerative and/or plaque type areas. Lesion are frequently bilaterally symmetrical.

Desquamative gingivitis may be a feature.

434
Q

What condition is this?

A

This is an oral lichenoid lesion - which is similar to oral lichen planus but is usually around a single site.

Usually associated with medications and go away when medication is stopped

435
Q

What is dysplasia?

A

It is the presence of cells of an abnormal type within a tissue, which may signify a stage preceding the development of cancer.

436
Q

What are some of the architectural changes that occur in dysplasia?

A
  1. Drop shaped rete pegs
  2. Irregular eppithelial stratification
  3. Loss of polarity in basal cells
  4. Increased number of mitotic figures
  5. SUPERFICIAL MITOSES
437
Q

What are the cytological changes in dysplasia?

A
  1. Nuclear pleomorphism

2.Cellular pleomorphism

  1. Increased nuclear size
438
Q

What are the the different types of dysplasia?

A
  1. Mild (grade I) - dysplasia is in the first third of the pithelium
  2. Moderate (grade II) - dysplasia entering the middle third of the epithelium
  3. Severe (grade III) - dysplasia near the basal layer
439
Q

What is carcinoma in situ?

A

It is when dysplasia that has been only registered in one layer of the tissue but is through out the whole layer - the epithelium have not yet created island in the connective tissue below thus the basal layer has not yet been breached

440
Q

How do you manage dysplastic lesions?

A
  1. Observation:
    - Mangaing lifestyle risk factors
    - Regular follow-ups
    -Clinical risk assessment

Excision
- Cold-knife excision
- Cryosurgery
- CO2 laser ablation
- Photodynamic therapy

441
Q

What are the most common types of oral cancers?

A

90% of the oral malignancies are from the oral mucosa and are squamous cell carcinomas

442
Q

What is the definition of oral squamous cell carcinoma?

A

It is a carcinoma with a squamous differentiation arising from the mucosal epithelium

443
Q

What are risk factors for cancer

A
  1. Tobacco
  2. Alcohol
  3. Betel-quid (tobaco in a different form) - bucal sulcus
  4. Human Papillomavirus (HPV) types 16 and 18
  5. Ultraviolet radiation
444
Q

What is the parthenogenesis of cancer?

A
  1. Loss of cell cycle control through loss of apoptosis proteins (p53) and up regulation of proliferation proteins - cell communication occurs
  2. Invasion and metastasis - through breach of basement membrane and over expression of oncogenic enzymes - metastasis could be distant
445
Q

What is the clinical presentations of malignant lesions?

A

RULE acronym:

  1. Red/white
    2.Ulcer
    3.Lump

Exceeding 3 weeks in duration

446
Q

What are some of the other presentations of oral cancer coudl arise?

A
  1. Non-healing extraction socket
  2. Pigemented lesion (melanoma) with irregular borders
447
Q

What is the pathology of squamous cell carcinomal?

A
  1. Invasion of malignant epithelial
  2. Localised tissue destruction like bone erosion - floating tooth on the radiograph (primary intraosennous carcinoma
  3. Spread to the lymphatic system
  4. Distant metastasis
448
Q

What is the grading of tumours?

A

It is a process of examining the degree of differentiation of cells

Grade 1 - well differentiated squamous cell carcinoma

Grade 2 - moderately differentiated squamous cell carcinoma

Grade 3 - Poorly differentiated squamous cell carcinoma

Grade 4 - anaplastic - fucked

The greater the grade the worst a prognosis

449
Q

What are the 4 pathways of spread of an oral carcinoma?

A
  1. Direct extension into adjacent tissue
  2. Perineural infiltration
  3. Vascular invasion
  4. Lymphatics
450
Q

What is the staging system used for oral cancers?

A

Based on TNM system
T is size
N is invasion of surrounding tissue
M is distant malignancies

Minimum is Stage 1: T1N0M0

Max Stage 4 : Any M

451
Q

What is the survival rate of each stage of oral cancer?

A

Stage 1 and 2 - around 50% over 5 years

Stage 3 - 15-20% over 5 years

Stage 4 - less than 5% over 5 years

452
Q

What is main treatment for patient with oral cancer?

A
  1. Initial diagnosis
  2. Definitive treatment
  3. Management of complications and monitoring
453
Q

What are the actual treatment options for oral cancer?

A
  1. Surgery
  2. Radiotherapy
  3. Chemotherapy
  4. Combination of treatments above
454
Q

What is the role of a general denstist for a patient with oral cancer?

A
  1. Detection of potentially problematic lesions and referral
  2. Management role - for any other oral concern, including complications from treatment of oral cancer
  3. Ongoing screening
455
Q

What is the effect of radiotherapy on salivary glands?

A
  1. Loss or atrophy of acini
  2. Inflammation
  3. FIbrosis
  4. Dilation of ducts
456
Q

What is the effect of radiotherapy of the bone tissue?

A
  1. Endarteritis obliterans - destruction of blood vessels thus making the tissue depleted of oxygen and nutrients
  2. Osteonecrosis
  3. Infection and pain
  4. Can be potentially life threatnening
457
Q

What are the 5 categories of most frequent lesions of the oral cavity?

A
  1. Apthous ulcers
  2. Herpex simplex lesions
  3. Trauma associated lesions
  4. Migratory glossitis
  5. Candidiasis infection lesions
458
Q

What is oral granulomatosis?

A

It is a process where multiple granulomas can be seen in the oral cavity.

Associated with:

Crohn’s disease

Leprosie

TB

459
Q

What lesion is associated with human papilloma virus?

A

Squamous papilloma.

An asymptomatic, solitary lesion that is associated with cauliflower like apperance

460
Q

What are the histological features of squamous papilloma?

A

Exaggerated growth of usually parakeratinsed benign squamous epithelium.

Finger-like projections of epithelium with central cres of fibrovascular tissue

461
Q

What is the link between HPV and cancer?

A

Sometimes HPV can playe a role in oropharyngeal carcinoma - which is a basaloid subtype of squamous cell carcinoma.

462
Q

What is another type of lesion that can be caused by HPV?

A

Genital warts in the mouth or Oral Condyloma Accuminatum.

It is an infections lesion that can cause transmission through direct contact.

It presents as a broad based pink nodule that grows and coalesce (come as one)

463
Q

What are the two haematolynphoid tumours?

A
  1. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
  2. Hodgkin lymphoma
464
Q

What are the oral manifestation of non-hodgkins lymphoma?

A

Large ulceration, swelling, pain, paraesthesia and losse teeth
Aetiology is unknowns

465
Q

What is the main feature of oral malignant melanomas?

A

They have a defused appearance

466
Q

What is periodontitis?

A

Periodontists is a multi factorial, inflammatory diseases associated with dysbiotic microbial dental biofilms and characterised by non-reversible progressive periodontal tissue destruction. It manifests through: CAL, radiographically assessed alveolar bone loss, presence of periodontal pocketing, gingival bleeding and leads eventually to tooth loss.

467
Q

Explain, briefly, the Yellow, orange and red groups that were suggest by Dr. Socranky research of 1998. Please include the names of at least 3 different bacteria in all of the groups.

A
  1. The yellow, orange and red groups are suggested groups of bacteria that are associated with periodontal health and pathology
  2. Yellow group - include: S. Mitis, S. Oralis and S, Snagius - are early coloniser groups that are related to healthy periodontium
  3. Orange group - include: P.Intermedia, P.Nigrescens and F. Nucleatum - are late coloniser that are believed to be an intermediate step and are able to facilitate red group (the most pathogenic group) in binding in the periodontal pocket
  4. Red group - include: P. Gingivalis, T.Forsythia, T. Denticola - believed to be the most pathogenic group
468
Q

What is A. Actinomycetemcomitans?

A

A. Actinomycetemcomitans or AA is a gram negative anaerobe that is associated with localised aggressive periodontitis.
Able to produce high level os leukotoxins thus causes the lysis of PMNs.
It is equiped with adhesis and invasisn which means it can penetrate the tissue and attach to the space it has penetrated

469
Q

What is P.Gingivalis?

A

P. Gingivalis is a gram negative anaerob that is associated with periodontits (around 79-90% of perio cases will have this bacteria)
Main cause of the inflammation to the tissue - release of endotoxin (name: P.Gingivalis LPS)
Contains invasins, adhesins and also collagenases which degrade connective tissue.

470
Q

What are the stages of the IMPEDE model

A

Stage 0 - gingival and periodontal health
Stage 1 - gingival inflammation
Stage 2 - Polymicobial emergence
Stage 3 - Inflammation - mediated dysbiosis - initial perio
Stage 4 - Late stage periodontitis

471
Q

What is the consensus on how periodontal destruction actually occur?

A

It is widely believed that periodontal destruction occurs due to effects of the immune response and not directly due to bacteria. 80 immune response, 20 bacteria.

472
Q

What is the aetiology of periodontitis?

A
  1. Predominance of PMNs in pocket epithelium/activation in connective tissue
  2. Elevated activity of macrophages
  3. Plasma cells dominate the infiltrate
  4. Increase of pro-inflammatory cytokine production (like IL-6 and IL-8 and more)
  5. This results in disturbed tissue homeostasis leading to destruction of collagen, connective tissue matrix and bone
  6. This results in true pocket development from the junction epithelium
473
Q

What causes bone resorption?

A
  1. RANKL - produced by osteocytes in large quantities, due to stimulation of pro-inflammatory cytokines like IL-6 and IL-8, able to activate osteo clasts - bone resorbing cells
  2. RANK - receptor on osteocalst - binding site of RANKL
  3. OPG - scavenger receptor that prevents RANKL binding thus preventing bone resorption

RANKL:OPG ratio: relative amount regulate the bone turn over

474
Q

What are some of the pre-disposing factors for periodontitis?

A

Any factor that result in retention of biofilm or prevents ts removal thus predisposing for disease progression.

E.g.:

Anatomical factors: root proximity, tooth malposition, concavities and furcation

Aquired/Iatrogenic factors: overhangs, open contacts and appliances

All this needs to happen in a susceptible host.

475
Q

What are modifying or systemic factors?

A

They are factors that modify disease expression and may influence disease progression by altering host’s immune response
e.g. in periodontitis: smoking and diabetes

476
Q

How does smoking increases the risk of periodontitis and by how much on average does it increase the instance of periodontitis according to latest studies?

A

The mechanisms:
1. Chronic reduction in blood flow and vascularity
2. Increase the prevelance of potential periodontal pathogens in the sulcus
3. Shift in neutrophil function towards destructive activities
4. Shift to a dysbiotic, pathogen enriched microbiome
5. Affects PMNs making them more aggrevated
6. Increase the number of aggravated T cells that produce inflammatory cytokines

It increases the risk of periodontitis by 85%!

Smoking cessation has beneficial effect on therapy outcomes and disease progression - this should be attempted for patient with nicotine dependence/

477
Q

What are two useful statistics to give to a smoker patient in order to discourage them from smoking?

A
  1. Regular smokers have around 50% less improvement in clinical parameter after nonsurgical therapy
  2. Regular smoker have 2x implant failure rate compared to nonsmokers
478
Q

How does diabetes increases the risk of periodontitis and by how much on average does it increase the instance of periodontitis according to latest studies?

A
  1. No solid evidence of causal relationship between poorly controlled diabetes and periodontal microbial dysbiosis in humans, but there some evidence in vitro thus it is biologically plausible
  2. Osteogenesis reduction due to apoptosis of osteoblasts and PDL fibroblasts
  3. Increase in RANKL expression and OPG expression is decreases
  4. Increase in collagenase activity

It increases the risk of periodontitis by 3x to 4x!

Multidisciplinary control and treatment of diabetes is ESSENTIAL to treatment of periodontitis.

479
Q

What is the relationship between diabetes and periodontitis?

A

There is a bi-directional relationship between diabetes and periodontitis, meaning improvement in diabetes improve periodontitis but also improvement in periodontitis improve diabetes!

480
Q

How do you write a diagnostic statement for diabetes?

A
  1. Type of periodontal disease
  2. Disease extent
  3. Stage
  4. Grade
  5. Current disease status
  6. Risk factor profile

E.g.
Periodontitis: generalized (65%), Stage III (CAL <10 mm), Grade C (HbA1c 8.9%), currently unstable (PPD <8mm, BOP 45%).
Risk factors: uncontrolled diabetes (HbA1c 8.9%), smoking 20 cig/day, high strss levels (change in work)

481
Q

What have the 70-80s research into Sri Lankan tea labourers showed us?

A
  1. 10-15% resist periodontitis
  2. 10-15% have rapid progression
  3. 70-80% have moderate progression
482
Q

How can you link back the instances of severe periodontitis with the current classification standards?

A

It was discovered, that on avergaere, people with sever cases of periodontists have attachment loss of around 0.45mm per annum.

Thus in the new classification, Grade C (fast progressing) is considered to be when an individual has a rate of progression of more than 2mm per 5 years (5 x 0.45)

483
Q

What BOP score are we aiming to achieve?

A

BOP score of less or equal to 20% because that is associated with significantly lower risk of CAL progression and want the score to decrease continuously and keep stable.

484
Q

What the Community Periodontal Index of Treatment Needs codes and what treatment do they need?

A

Code 0 - healthy - treatment: home care
Code 1 - bleeding on probing but no attachment loss - treatment: oral hygiene instructions
Code 2 - calculus present + BOP - treatment: calculus removal and scaling + OHI
Code 3 - pockets of below 5 mm - treatment: calculus removal and scaling + OHI
Code 4 - pockets of above 6 mm - treatment: complex therapy + calculus removal and scaling + OHI

485
Q

What is the second group of systemic disease and conditions that relate periodontitis?

A

They are some relatively common systemic conditions that have a moderate impact on prevalence / severity of priodontitis.

These diseases usually have an influence on the parthenogenesis of periodontal disease.

Some of these disease and disorders are:
1. Diabetes
2. Obesity
3. Osteoporosis
4. Arthritis - could through are process of inflammatory aggravation called citrulination
5. Stress and depression
6. Hypertension - maybe but probably not - but people with perio are more likely to have hypertension

486
Q

What is the theory of “direct pathway” that connects periodontal health with systemic health?

A

It believed that due to increased number of bacteria and smaller barrier to penetrate (ulcerated epithelial pocket lining).
1. The ulcerated periodontal pocket liing acts as a gate for viable bacteria, bacterial toxins/componetns
2. It results in frequent transient bacteremia
3. And could result in substantial systemic inflammatory response

This pathway also goes via other organs and systems like during swallowing or inhalation.

Important to understand that systemic bacteraemia as a result of periodontal infection is rare.

There is actually a way you can calculate periodontal inflamed surface area thus it is important to reduce that area with treatment.

487
Q

What is the theory of indirect pathway?

A

It also relates to the periodontal inflamed surface area.

It is a theory that states that affects on the systemic health from periodontal disease result due to pro-inflammatory mediators that are involved in periodontitis.

Less plausible than the direct pathway.

488
Q

What is the association between periodontitis and diabetes?

A

Periodontitis and diabetes have a bilateral relationship thus an improvement in one of them may result in improvement of the other

The process of periodontitis affecting diabetes:

  1. Periodontal infection causes elevation of serum pro-inflammatory cytokines
  2. Systemic inflammation leads to insulin resistance by blocking insulin receptors
  3. Bacterial dissemination may alter b cell secretion through b-cell dedifferentiation - also enzymes produced by P.Gingivalis may reduce glucose-induced insulin production
  4. There are also some evidence that P.Gingivalis may cause gut dysbiosis but take it with a grain of salt
489
Q

What to do if a patient has uncotrolled diabetes?

A

You should do non-surgical treatment ad collaborate with GP and inform patient that perio help with diabtes

490
Q

What is the system of tooth prognosis by Nibali?

A

It is a very objective system that involves

  1. Bone loss
  2. Furcation and modbility
  3. PAI score
491
Q

When should we extract a tooth?

A

Only teeth with hopeless prognosis and that are not favourable

492
Q

When would you suggest an immediate extraction?

A
  1. Due to pain
  2. Due to acute abscesses
  3. If patient request due to other treatment like ortho
493
Q

What is favourable periodontal disease progression?

A

It is when the periodontal status of the tooth can be stabilised with comprehensive periodontal treatment and periodontal maintenance. Future loss of periodontal supporting tissue in unlikely.

494
Q

What are some of the goals of periodontal treatment?

A
  1. Absence of pain
  2. Reduction and elimination of infections and inflammation
  3. Cessation of attachment loss and gain of attachment
  4. Restoration of physiologic bone and gingival contour to aid plaque control
  5. Satisfactory function and aesthetic for the individual
495
Q

What are the steps of periodontal treatment for good and fair prognosis teeth?

A
  1. Initial therapy
  2. Revaluation or reassessment of prognosis
  3. Surgical or maintenance phase
496
Q

How to set up a case report for perio?

A
  1. Reason for referral
  2. CC
  3. MHx
  4. DHx
  5. Family Hx
  6. Diagnosis
  7. Oral hygiene
  8. Establishing goals and motivation
  9. Prognosis
  10. Treatment plan
    11 Treatment
497
Q

How to set up a provisional treatment plan for perio?

A
  1. Emergency phase - e.g. exo
  2. Systemic phase - e.g. control systemic diseases
  3. Initial phase - e.g. testing and debridement
  4. Surgical phase - regenerative surgery
  5. Restorative phase - temporary crowns
  6. Maintenance phase - depending on risk close recall or normal recall
498
Q

Would you give antibiotic prophylaxis to patient before root planing?

A

Yes you would if they have an underlying health condition.

499
Q

What is the objective of the initial phase of therapy?

A

The objective is to achieve clean and infection free conditions for the oral environment by removal of soft and hard deposits and any retentive points and factors that might propagate them

500
Q

What are the steps to the initial phase of treatment for Stage I-III of periodontitis?

A
  1. Patient self care and removal of biofilm by patient with - behavioral modification, mechanical (like brushing and using of inderdental brushes or other methods) and chemical (mouthrinse and oral irrigation)
  2. Supragingival scaling and reduce predisposing factors such as bad restorations - the evidence suggest that are not preffered way i.e 1 quadrant per session or half the mouth per session
501
Q

What are some of the difficulties with subgingival root plaining?

A
  1. Macromorphology of the roots - e.g. the mesial forcation of the upper sixes is quite deep and hard to get
  2. Micromorphology of the cellular cementum
  3. Irregular of the base of the pocket

Even with these problems, subgingival debridement seen to be incredibly useful in causing a reduction in bacteria levels and pathogenic bacteria like P.Gingivalis reduces

502
Q

What are some of the factors that may impact outcome of non-surgical periodontal therapy?

A
  1. Smoking
  2. Number of roots on the tooth
  3. Plaque levels
503
Q

What is one of the ways periodontal pocket repairs after the subgingival debridement?

A

Repair through long junctional epithelium:

It is a restoration of the continuity in the wound or defect area, without regeneration of the originally intact tissues from and function for example long junctional epithelial attachment with new collagen fibers parallel to it. Thus the periodontal pocket closes up.

Some of the tissue may actually reattach but it important for those tissues to not be infected.

504
Q

What are some of the complexity factors could occur in the periodontium?

A
  1. Pocket depth and type (supraboney or infraboney)
  2. Vertical bone loss
  3. Furcation involvement
  4. Ridge defects
  5. Masticatory dysfunction
505
Q

What are some of the common boney defects and how would you describe them?

A
  1. 3 Wall defect - balcony-like defect
  2. 2 wall defect - 2 roots of adjacent teeth are connected ( a little bit) or where is 2 walls of the defect
  3. 1 wall defect - might manifest itself as a v shape with a single wall

All defects must undergo non-surgical therapy.

The defects can be accessed using horizontal strokes, mini-currettes or special ultrasonic scalers.

506
Q

What are some of the aetiology of furcation involvement?

A
  1. Periodontitis
  2. Endodontic infection
  3. Iatrogenic - rct perforation
  4. Anatomy - like enamel pearls
507
Q

What are the advantages of access flap debridement?

A
  1. Improved access for professional instrumentation
  2. More efficient calculus removal
  3. Significant clinical improvements
508
Q

What are other techniques that could be useful in improving the oral hygiene caee for furcations for a patient?

A

Tunneling technique - surgical exposure of inter-radicular space. Most common complication - root caries.

Root resection - for a patient with RCT and class 3 furcation

509
Q

What occurs in the primary occlusal trauma and how does it affect the periodontal health?

A
  1. There is excessive occlusal force
  2. This results in acute inflammation and compression
  3. This lead to bone resoprtion and widening of the PDL with no clinical attachment loss
  4. When occlusal forces removed - PDL goes to normal
510
Q

How should we treat mobile teeth?

A
  1. Treat the cause
    2.Periodontal surgery
    3.Splinting - remember to adjust the occlusion
511
Q

What are the 2 main ways to apply antibiotics for periodontitis?

A
  1. Local - to the site
  2. Systemic - through the blood stream
512
Q

What are some of the challenges faced with use of antibiotic therapy on periodontal bacteria?

A
  1. There are thousands different types of periodontal bacteria present - hard to choose one antibiotic
  2. The bacteria reside within a biofilm thus they are harder to reach - THUS BIOFILM NEEDS TO BE REMOVED AND ANTIBIOTICS ADMINISTERED 24 HOURS POST DEBRIDEMENT
513
Q

What is the common combination of anti-biotics used to treat periodontal disease?

A

Metronidazol & amoxicillin which is known as Winkelhoff cocktail - it is the most researched combination and also does produce clinically significant improvements

514
Q

What are the recommendations of anti-biotic prescription for periodontal disease in Australia?

A

Amoxicillin 500 mg orally, 8-hourly for 7 days PLUS Metronidazole 400 mg orally, 12-hourly for 7 days

515
Q

What patient should get anti-biotic therapy?

A
  1. Young patient
  2. Generalised severe periodontitis patient
  3. Patients with systemic diseases
  4. Rapidly progressing form
  5. Refractory/therapy-resistant forms of periodontitis
516
Q

What should you do after the patient has come back after the 12 weeks?

A
  1. Review MHx and risk factors
  2. Assess the OH performance
  3. Periodontal examination
  4. Re-evaluation - caries check, restorative and implant status
  5. Supportive periodontal therapy session - the aim of therapy is to have pocket of no more than 4 mm
  6. The third step can be taken aswell after another reassessment - this involves teeth that did not respond to therapy well and may need to address those remaining point of biofilm accumulation
  7. If the pocket are more than 6mm, surgeyr may be needed
517
Q

What is supportive periodontal treatment?

A

It is treatment that plans to maintain already achieved goals with improvement of periodontal health. Patient should come back for assessment every 3-12 months depending on their risk profile )high risk - come every 3 months, low risk - every 12 months)

518
Q

How can we evaluate risk of periodontal disease progression in the patient?

A

There dirrent matrix you can use to determine the recall frequency - a common one is the PRA (periodontal risk assessment) and it can be accessed online.

Preio-tools.com seems like the website to go to to find different matrix that may assist you.

519
Q

What are the steps to a good supportive periodontal treatment session?

A
  1. Patient greeting and interview
  2. Review of medicla history
  3. Existing factors evaluation and counselling
    4, Clinical examination and re-evaluation: Oral Path, OH status, Perio exam, Caries check, fix-pros check
  4. Hygiene
  5. Motivation
  6. ALWAYS BOOK ANOTHER APPOINTMENT
520
Q

Shouldyou probe all the teeth at SPT session

A

YES of course you should to understand the health of pockets - but you can choose not to do a brand new perio chart unless you find some findings

521
Q

What would you mention to a patient who has periodontitis?

A
  1. Periodontitis - a disease that destroys the bone underneath the tooth
  2. Usually occurs from bacteria aggrevating the gums
  3. Aggrevating the gums leads to inflammatory condition - gingivitis
  4. When gingivitis is present with some underlying risk factors such as smoking, diabetes or immunuesupressed organism - periodontitis is caused
  5. Periodontitis is caused by the immune system trying to fight off the bacteria in the plaque - but not bring very mindful of the surrounding tissue
  6. Unfortunatley periodontitis is irreverisble - but if proper treatment - it can be slowed down or even arrested - thus we need to collaborate on this issure
522
Q

What bacterial shift is associated with periodontitis?

A

The bacterial shift that associated with periodontitis is a shift from facultative gram positive bacteria to anaerobic gram negative bacteria. It is important to state that this shift is seen in cultivable gingival micro-flora meaning this statistic is only understood in lab grown bacteria.

The level of cultivated bacteria also explain why gingivitis is considered a transitional stages, because in gingivits it can be seen that the bacterial makeup is relatively equal.

523
Q

What are the common bacteria that are associated with chronic periodontists?

A
  1. P. Gingivalis
  2. T. denticola
  3. T. Farsythia
  4. A. Actinomycetemcomitans

And more but 75% of them are gram negative and nearly all are strict anaerobes

524
Q

What are the virulence factors that are asosciated with aeitology of perdiodontitis?

A
  1. Attachemnt - cell surface through adhesins
  2. Multiplication - enzymes to obtain nutrients through tissue damage of the host tissue
  3. Evasion of defense - capsule production, leukotoxin production and other
  4. Tissue damage - direct - through collagenese, hyaluronidase, bone resorbing factors, cytotoxins and more
  5. Tissue damage - indirect - through hightening of the inflammatory response
525
Q

What are some of the treatments of periodontal disease?

A
  1. Plaque control
  2. Professional debridement
  3. Potentially antibiotic therapy
526
Q

What is endodontic therapy?

A

It a process of elimination of the causative agents, thereby providing an environment (sterile) conducive to healing.

Basically - remove as much bacteria from he root canal system as possible.

527
Q

What bacteria is associated with endodontic bacteria?

A

Mainly anaerobic bacteria - becauses of low oxygen availability within the pulpal tissue (autogenic succession - driven by bacterial consumption of oxygen) - anaerobic bacteria are very destructive due to their fastidious nutritional requirements

528
Q

What are some of the routes of entry of bacteria into the pulp?

A
  1. Caries
  2. Mechanical exposure
  3. Trauma
  4. Anachoresis - bacteremia
  5. Periodontal pockets - when pockets reach root apex
529
Q

What are some of the locations found in tooth non hard tissue?

A
  1. Root canals
  2. Lateral/ accessory canals
  3. Dentine tubules
  4. Extra-radicular tissues
530
Q

What are the three steps to endodontic treatment?

A
  1. Instrumentation - physical bacterial reduction of the infected root canal system with irrigation and medication - major challenge: anatomical complexities of the root canal system
  2. Irrigation - using a root canal irrigant that has an anti-microbial properties - sodium hypochlorite (hypochlore) could be used - make sure not toxic to the host - major challenge: infiltration into dentinal tubules problematic
  3. Medicaments - high pH medicine with strong antimicrobial action - like calcium hydroxide (pH12.5)
531
Q

What is the target of chemotherapy?

A

Nucleotide synthesis - which occurs during nucleic acid synthesis - when it is effected, no DNA can be produce thus a cell can not replicate, thus cancer is stopped in its rapid division

532
Q

Which enzyme does chemotherapy target?

A

Thymidylate synthase

533
Q

What are some of the side effects of chemotherapy on other cells of the body?

A

Due to targeting of dTTP - it is possible that chemotherapy causes damage to some normal but fast replicating cells in the body like immune cells

534
Q

What are the two classes of chemotherapy drugs?

A
  1. Pyrimidine analogs - destroy thymidylate synthase - adrucil is an example - reduction in conversion of dUMP into dTMP
  2. Folate analogs - interfere with formation of the methyl group - methotrexate is an example - conversion of serine to glycine
535
Q

What is the classification of streptococci?

A
  1. Alpha - patial lysis of red blood cells
  2. Beta - complete lysis or red blood cells
  3. Gamma - no haemolysis
536
Q

What type of infections can be cause by S. aureus?

A
  1. Skin infections
  2. Food poisoning
  3. Toxic shock syndrome - associated with biofilm formation

Mostly infections are associated with hospitlaisation

537
Q

What is the danger of Staphylococci and diabetics?

A

Staphylococci have a unique ability to invade bone tissue thus are able to destroy said tissue - diabetics are more susceptible due to lover immune function and tissue regeneration - oral implications: perimplantitis

538
Q

How do we differentiate between S.Aureus and S.Epidermidis (associated with hospitals)?

A

Coagulase test - extra-cellular protein that binds to prothrombin - coagulation only occurs with S.aureus

539
Q

What stain can we use to stain M.Tuberculosis?

A

Acid-fast stain can be used - the TB will be seen in red

540
Q

What is the most common bacteria associated with fissure caries?

A

S. Mutants

541
Q

What is the spirit of motivational interviewing?

A

4 concepts are the:
1. Partnership or collaboration between individual and councillor
2. Acceptance - respecting the client’s autonomy
3. Compassion - keep clients best interest in mind
4. Evocation - the best ideas come from the client

542
Q

What are the 4 basic counselling skills?

A
  1. Open questioning
  2. Affirmations
  3. Reflections
  4. Summaries
543
Q

What type of plan works the best for client who would like to change?

A

A SMART plan:
Specific
Measurable
Achievable
Relevant
Timed

544
Q

What is the 5 As framework?

A
  1. Ask - ask if they smoke
  2. Assess - assess their stages of change
  3. Advise - information is the key
  4. Assist - discuss the benefits of quitting
  5. Arrange - arrange for follow-up
545
Q

What are the goals of treatment for a person with nicotine addiction?

A
  1. To increase motivation
  2. To reduce withdrawal intensity
  3. To decrease exposure to tobacco smoke
  4. To improve coping responses to stress and anxiety
  5. To facilitate abstinence from tobacco smoking
546
Q

What are the potential implications for e-cigarette smokers in terms of periodontal disease?

A

There are some research that suggests that e-cigarette smokers are at higher risk of periodontal disease than non-e-cigarette smokers due to increase in inflammation, cell injury and impaired cell repair.

It is also worth mentioning that e-cigarette smokers are at a lower risk of periodontal disease than conventional cigarettes users - more research is needed!

547
Q

Use a motivational interview framework by QuiteAutrlaia in a dental context.

A

Roll with resistance - getting information about behaviours that does not support patient goals - e.g. “Patrice, would it be okay if we discussed what smoking and vaping may to your gum health?”

Express empathy - try to listen and understand patient struggle - e.g. “I can see that you really want to make a change but this time around it is a little harder”

Avoid solutions and suggestions - sit the patient don’t control them - e.g. “There are a few method we could try, would you like to know more about them?”

Develop choice - help the patient to weigh pros and cons - e.g. “Are there any downsides to smoking for you?”

Support success - accentuate the positives - e.g. “I can see you made great progress in moving away from cigarettes to vapes, that will definetly help to reduce the impact of nicotine on your oral health!” (Quit Australia 2023).

548
Q

What are the steps to radio-graph assessment?

A
  1. Exposure
  2. Detector orientation
  3. Horizontal detector positioning
  4. Vertical detector positioning
  5. Horizontal beam angulation
  6. Vertical beam angulation
  7. Central beam position
  8. Colimator rotation
  9. Sharpness
  10. Overall diagnostic value
549
Q

What are the aims of endodontic therapy?

A

Reduce the potnetial tooth loss that may occur from apical periodontitis.

550
Q

A patient with previous history of asthma has come in, his asthma is sever and his current dental condition is not urgent, what would you do in thi scenario?

A

Patient does not seem to be in need for any emergency medical treatment thus the following needs to be done:

  1. Dental treatment shoudl be haulted - due to high risk of asthma attack in the patient due to dental triggers such as aerosols
  2. Patient GP should be contacted and informed about the aptient condition
  3. A consultation with the GP regarding the patient should be ongoinging to ensure minimisation of potential asthma attack
  4. Patient should bring appropriate medication to their next visit
551
Q

What should you do if the patient tell you that they might be thorughly asthmatic?

A
  1. When were they diagnosed
  2. When was their last attack
  3. Were they ever hospitalised due to asthma
  4. What medication do they take
  5. What medication do they have with them
552
Q

Is ti appropriate to state that sleep apnoe and night time bruxism are related events?

A

No because of:

  • Flawed study designs
  • Inbility to appropriate test an individual

Flawed study design:
The common theory is that night bruxsim is triggered due to a obstructive sleep apnoe episode.

During the arousal following an OSA episode, the mandible protrudes foward in order to increase the openess of the airways which could be interpreted as bruxism, but that does not take into the account a population of people who have bruxism but do not have OSA.

This flawed study design leads to inappropriate conclusions and bias understanding of the relationship between OSA and NB

Inability to appropriate test an individual:

In sleep studies, subject are usually situated in specialised clinics. This may increase their stress level. Stress level are associated with night time bruxism. Thus it creates a bias environment.

553
Q

What are some of the radiographic features of potentially malignant lesions of the oral cavity?

A
  1. Ill-defined borders
  2. Asymmetric appearace
  3. Destruction of adjacent bone
  4. Radiolucency with pieces of bone trapped
  5. Destruction of the palatle or mucosa
554
Q

What are the steps to deal with a potential malignancy? Steps to management?

A
  1. Urgent refferal for biopsy
  2. Management of lifestyle factors - smoking cessation
  3. Managing the dental needs of a patient with cancer
  4. Providing appropriate supporting care and monitoring when the patient is in remisssion
555
Q

What are the steps to performing bisected angle?

A
  1. Informed consent
  2. Sit the patient up right or on a slight angle - situated the tube next to the patients side where the taking of the x-ray will take place - check the settings on the x-ray machine
  3. Grab a standart size film
  4. Situated the film dot to slot - black to beam
  5. Situated the film parallel to the palatal/lingual surface of tooth being imaged
  6. Ask your patient to gently hold the film with their thumb - make sure the patient does not bend the film
  7. Horizontal beam angulation - align the beam
556
Q

What are the steps to performing bisected angle?

A
  1. Informed consent
  2. Sit the patient up right or on a slight angle - situated the tube next to the patients side where the taking of the x-ray will take place - check the settings on the x-ray machine
  3. Grab a standart size film
  4. Situated the film dot to slot - black to beam
  5. Situated the film parallel to the palatal/lingual surface of tooth being imaged
  6. Ask your patient to gently hold the film with their thumb - make sure the patient does not bend the film
  7. Horizontal beam angulation - align the beam at the right angle to the tooth of interest - similarly to a bitewing
  8. Vertical beam angulation - assess the angulation of long axis of the tooth and angulation of detector - mentally bisect the angle created between the tooth & detector
  9. Vertical beam adjusted so central ray is at 90 degrees to bisecting line
  10. Technique is the same for all teeth in mouth
557
Q

What is the material indicated for indirect pulp capping?

A

Fluoride releasing material such as RMGIC or GIC

558
Q

What is the material indicated for direct pulp capping?

A

Calcium hydroxide or MTA

559
Q

What are some of the in chair ways to treate dentinal hypersensativity?

A
  1. Using unfilled resin - not great because it comes off over time
  2. Using RMGIC liner - not great because it erodes over time
  3. Using other restorative material - not great for erosion
  4. Using Duraphat - high Fluoride - occlusion of dentinal tubules but does not last for a long time
  5. Using MI Varnish - occlusion of dentinal tubules but does not last for a long time
  6. Silver fluoride - effective but aesthetic concerns and availability
560
Q

What are some of the out of chair treatment for dentinal hypersensativity?

A
  1. Sodium fluoride
  2. Stanous fluoride
  3. Potassium nitrate
  4. CPP - ACP
561
Q

What are some of the out of chair treatment for dentinal hypersensativity?

A
  1. Sodium fluoride
  2. Stanous fluoride
  3. Potassium nitrate
  4. CPP - ACP
562
Q

What are your steps to deal with erosion?

A
  1. Managing risk factors : referral for GERD and stopping acidic drinks
  2. Do additional testing - saliva testing
  3. Do testing for comparison - scratch test
  4. Do mouthiness in the middle of the day - 1 cup of water, 1 teaspoon of bicarb soda, 1 time per day, for 2 weeks
  5. At home use of Potassium Nitrate 2 times a day, no rinsing
563
Q

What is framework you can use in order to adress the patient concerns?

A

TRIM
Timing - asess the patients starting point
Relevance - make sure that the infromation relates to the patient
Involvement - involve the patient, make sure the patient contributes
Method - say it in chunks - rpovide panflates

564
Q

How do involve a patient?

A

Ask them their opinion

Give options

Remeber to re-assess and ask for feedback

565
Q

What are some of the common errors with bisected angle?

A
  1. Elongation - vertical beam angulation is too shallow
  2. Foreshortening - vertical beam angulation too steep
  3. Vertical detertor postion - not the entire tooth structure present
  4. Contact point of two adjacent teeth
  5. Cone cutting
566
Q

What are some of the potential white lesion in the retromolar area?

A
  1. Frictional keratosis
  2. Leukoplakia
  3. Fibroepithelial hyperplasia
  4. OSSC
567
Q

What are the six features are wrong with this OPG and what are the error on effect on final image?

A
  1. Unnecessary artefacts i.e. the glasses - Results in unnecessary object being presented on the DPR, the glasses
  2. Patient positioned forward - Anterior teeth blury and too small - spine sen on the film
  3. Failure to position the tongue against the palate - large, dark, shadow over the maxillary teeth between palate and dorsum of tongue
  4. Head is tilted to the side in the horizontal direction - condyles are not equal in height, nasal structure is distorted
  5. Head is turned to one side - seems like the RHS was closer to the detector than LHS - resulting in LHS ramus appearing larger
  6. Exposure factors have not been selected properly - the image appears to be blur overall
568
Q

What are some of the soft tissue that can be seen on the OPG?

A
  1. Tongue
  2. Earlobes
  3. Epiglotis
  4. Anteior and posterior walls of the pharynx
569
Q

What are some of the options to achieve anaesthesia in the mandible?

A
  1. IANB
  2. Gal-gates technique
  3. Mentla nerve block
  4. Supraperiosteal infiltration
570
Q

What diseases cause true orofacial granulomatisis?

A
  1. crown’s disease
  2. Actinomises
571
Q

What can you sya about the oral manifestation of shingles?

A

It usually follows the pathway of the nerve

572
Q

What are the steps to management of an oral lesion?

A
  1. Take full patient history
  2. Thourguh exam including palpations, stretchung and whipping - checking for symmetry
  3. Risk factor modification
  4. Accurate clinical diagnosis
  5. SYmptom relief
  6. Reviews/follow up
573
Q

How do you identify bone walls?

A

Radiographically you can only see upto 2 walls - the one in the interporximal and one in the labial or lingual - because of superimposition

Refer to the periochart to identify walls - compare the labia, interproximal and lingul

574
Q

When is the perio unstable?

A

When there is BOP aove 10% and perio pockets are above 4mm

OR

Pocket above 5 mm

575
Q

WHat is PSR?

A

It is perio screening test where teeth ahve been devided into sextant and probed

Grade - 0 - nothing is occuring and nothing has to be done

Grade 1 -bleeding on probing with no calculus - need for OHI and plque removal

Grade 2 - bleeding and calculus present - OHI and subgingival and supragingival calculus removal

Grade 3 - probing depth 3.5-5.5 - ohi, debridement and full periodontal exam and radiographs

Grade 4 - probing depth abover 6mm - ohi, debridement, full periodontal exam, radiographs and surgical therapy