general derma Flashcards

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1
Q

what percentage of teenagers will experience acne

A

90%

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2
Q

by 40 what percentage of men will still have lesions?

A

1%

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3
Q

by 40 what percentage of women will still have lesions?

A

5%

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4
Q

what genetic syndromes result in increased risk of acne?

A

XYY genotype, polycystic ovarian syndrome, hyperandrogenism, hypercortisolism

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5
Q

mild acne total lesion count

A

total <30

<20 comedones

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6
Q

moderate acne features

A

lesion, papules, pustules, nodules and cysts

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7
Q

total lesion count for moderate acne

A

total 30-125

20-100 comedones

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8
Q

severe acne total lesion count

A

> 125

total comedone count >100

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9
Q

demodex folliculorum is associated with?

A

Rosacea

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10
Q

rosacea is missing what form of lesion in comparison to acne?

A

no comedones

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11
Q

what are the variants of rosacea

A

vascular
inflammatory
phymatous
ocular

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12
Q

causes of erythroderma

A
psoriasis
eczema
drugs
cutaneous lymphoma
hereditary
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13
Q

what percentage of inpatients can have dermal drug reactions

A

5%

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14
Q

how long after exposure to drug for a reaction to be noticeable

A

1-2weeks

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15
Q

what drugs may stimulate SJS or epidermal necrolysis

A

antibiotics
anticonvulsants
allopurinol
NSAIDS

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16
Q

Nikolsky sign means

A

outer epidermis separates easily from basal layer

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17
Q

SCORTEN score for SJS and epidermal necrolysis

A
age >40
malignancy
HR >120
epidermal detachment
serum urea >10 
serum glucose >14 
serum bicarbonate >20
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18
Q

long term complications of SJS and epidermal necrolysis

A
pigmentation changes
scarring
eye disease, blindness
nail and hair loss
joint contractures
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19
Q

erythema multiforme commonly caused by

A

HSV then mycoplasma pneumonia

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20
Q

self limiting time frame for erythema multiforme

A

2 weeks

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21
Q

mortality percentage for DRESS

A

10%

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22
Q

staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, the staphylococcus produces a toxin that targets what?

A

desmoglein 1

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23
Q

majority of acute urticaria is caused by

A

idiopathic then infection

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24
Q

what drugs should be avoided in acute urticaria

A

opiates and NSAIDS

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25
Q

what is the majority cause of chronic urticaria

A

autoimmune/idiopathic

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26
Q

time frame for classifying chronic urticaria

A

> 6 weeks

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27
Q

pros of cryotherapy

A

cheap and easy

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28
Q

cons of cryotherapy

A

scarring or failure

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29
Q

different types of cyst

A
epidermoid
pilar
steatocystoma
dermoid
hidrocystoma
ganglion
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30
Q

dermatofibroma is caused by

A

fibroblasts

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31
Q

dimple sign means

A

when lesion is squeezed a dimple can be elicited

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32
Q

percentage of Bowen’s disease risk of becoming malignant

A

5%

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33
Q

photo-dynamic therapy means

A

photochemical reaction using red light to selectively destroy cancer cells

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34
Q

imiquimod mechanism

A

stimulate cytokine

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35
Q

pros of imiquimod

A

a way to avoid surgery, good cosmetic result

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36
Q

cons of imiquimod

A

6 weeks
significant inflammation
failure

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37
Q

minimum SPF for suncream

A

30/ 4 star

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38
Q

factors that affect absorption

A
concentration
vehicle
chemical properties
thickness and hydration of stratum corneum
temperature
skin site
occlusion
39
Q

retinoids are analogues for what vitamin

A

A

40
Q

isotretinoin - retinoid is used in what?

A

acne

41
Q

acitretin - retinoid is used in what?

A

psoriasis

42
Q

Bexarotene - retinoid is used in what?

A

cut. T cell lymphoma

43
Q

alitretinoin - retinoid is used in what condition?

A

hand eczema

44
Q

name all 4 orally used retinoids

A

isotretinoin
acitretin
bexarotene
alitretinoin

45
Q

side effects of retinoids

A
teratogenic
dry lips
dry skin
increased triglycerides
psychiatric
46
Q

derma immunosuppressants

A
oral steroids
azathiopurine
ciclosporin
methotrexate
mycophenolate mofetil
47
Q

what function tests should you do with immunosupression

A

FBC
renal function
liver function

48
Q

suffix CEPT stands for

A

receptor binding

49
Q

MAB suffix stands for

A

monoclonal antibodies

50
Q

infix ZU stands for

A

humanised

51
Q

infix IX stands for

A

chimeric

52
Q

infix U stands for

A

fully human

53
Q

infix LI/L stands for

A

immunomodulator

54
Q

infL-IX-i-MAB stands for

A

immunomodulator chimeric monoclonal antibodies

55
Q

biologic for spontaneous urticaria

A

omalizumab

56
Q

Eczema biologic

A

Dupilumab

57
Q

plaque psoriasis biologic

A

Adalimumab

58
Q

biologic side effects

A

infection
no vaccines
malignancy
TNF I - demyelination

59
Q

endogenous eczema types

A
atopic
discoid
venous
seborrheic dermatitis
pompholyx
juvenile plantar dermatitis 
asteatotic
60
Q

allergic contact dermatitis type of hypersensitive

A

type 4

61
Q

type 4 hypersensitivity regulated by

A

clonal expansion of T cells in response to hapten/allergen

62
Q

occupational risk of irritant contact dermatitis

A
hairdressers
NHS staff
cleaners 
ring
soap
nappy rash
63
Q

potent topical steroid

A

betamethasone

64
Q

calcineurin inhibitor names

A

pimecrolimus

tacrolimus

65
Q

hair cycle stages

A

anagen
catagen
telogen

66
Q

anagen for hair cycle refers to

A

active growing phase

67
Q

catagen phase for hair cycle refers to

A

growth stops, follicle shrinks

68
Q

telogen phase in hair cycle refers to

A

resting phase

69
Q

chromosome responsible for determining age of onset for psoriasis

A

chromosome 6

70
Q

psoriasis susceptibility region gene

A

PSORS1-9

71
Q

psoriasis histology findings

A
hyperkeratosis
neutrophils in corneum 
hyperplasia- acanthosis 
dilated dermal capillaries 
T cell infiltrate
72
Q

psoriasis Koebner phenomenon refers to

A

skin lesions on lines of trauma

73
Q

woronoff’s ring

A

blanched halo of uniform width following treatment for psoriasis

74
Q

sub types of psoriasis

A
chronic 
palmo-plantar 
guttate 
scalp
nail
flexural 
pustural 
erythrodermic psoriasis
75
Q

differentials for psoriasis

A

seborrheoic dermatitis
lichen planus
mycosis fungoides

76
Q

PsArthritis treatment

A

methotrexate

77
Q

what percentage of excess mortality is there in winter in the UK

A

40%

78
Q

risk factors for skin cancer

A
UV
photochemotherapy 
P-UVA
carcinogens
radiation
HPV
familial
immunosupression
79
Q

high risk signs of SSC

A
immunosuppression
>20mm diameter
>4mm depth
ear, nose, eyelid
perineural invasion
poorly differentiated
80
Q

ipilimumab mechanism and use

A

CTLA-4 and melanoma metastatic

81
Q

pembrolizumab mechanism and use

A

PD-1 and metastatic melanoma

82
Q

vemurafenib and dabrafenib mechanism and use

A

metastatic melanoma and B-RAF

83
Q

sezary cells refer to

A

atypical T cells

84
Q

prognosis for sezary syndrome

A

2-4 years

85
Q

extracorporeal photophoresis refers to

A

WBC drawn and mixed with psoralen to make sensitive to UVA radiation and then treated, re-infused

86
Q

commonest skin cancers

A

BCC, SCC

87
Q

impetigo bacterial causes

A

staph Aureus

88
Q

erysipelas bacterial cause

A

group A streptococci

89
Q

cellulitis bacterial cause

A

Str. pyogenes

90
Q

complication of shingles

A

post-herpetic neuralgia

91
Q

viral warts cause

A

HPV

92
Q

molluscom contagiosum cause

A

POX virus

93
Q

pityriasis versicolor cause

A

malassezia

94
Q

scabies causitive agent

A

sarcoptes scabiei