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Boards 1 > General Anatomy > Flashcards

General Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

Which plane would you find the lumbar facets?

A

Sagittal;

C2 > T12 are coronal

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2
Q

The vertebral artery enters the transverse foramen at which cervical level?

A

C6

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3
Q

What is the correct shape of the tracheal cartilage rings?

A

C shaped; open at posterior aspect

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4
Q

The apex of the lung is located

A

Above the 1st rib;

Apex is also called the “cupola”

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5
Q

Where is the carotid tubercle located

A

C6;

Cricoid cartilage is also found at C6

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6
Q

In which part of the spine are the accessory processes located?

A

Lumbars

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7
Q

The umbilicus is part of which dermatome?

A

T10;
Nipples = T4
Xyphoid = T7
Umbilius = T10

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8
Q

Which of the following makes up the superior 2/5 of acetabular fossa?

A

Ilium;
Pubis = Anterior superior 1/5
Ischium = Fossa floor & posterior inferior 2/5

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9
Q

Where is the horizontal transpyloric plane located?

A

T7;

Transpyloric means kidney

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10
Q

What is directly distal to the coronoid fossa on the humerus?

A

Trochlea;

Olecranon fossa - on posterior humerus
Capitium - lateral & inferior to coronoid fossa
Olecranon process - on ulna

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11
Q

Which carpal bone has the most articulations?

A

Capitate;
The Lunate entraps the median nerve
The Hamate entraps the ulnar nerve

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12
Q

The epithelial later of the cornea and the lens are both derived from:

A

Ectoderm;
Nerve & skin > Ectoderm
Lungs and GI > Endoderm
Every other tissue > Mesoderm

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13
Q

Which of the following best describes a “dermatome?”

A

A segmental band of dermis supplied by a sensory spinal nerve

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14
Q

On which bone is the trochlear notch?

A

Ulna

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15
Q

The conoid process is located on

A

Clavicle;
Coronoid > Ulna
Corocoid > Scapula

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16
Q

The most commonly fractured carpal bone is the

A

Scaphoid

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17
Q

The groove for the radial nerve is located on the

A

Posterior humerus;

Entrapment of the Radial nerve in the spiral groove of the Humerus causes: “crutch palsy” or “Saturday night palsy.”

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18
Q

On which tubercle is the origin of the long head of the triceps brachii muscle?

A

Infraglenoid

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19
Q

The soleal line is on:

A

Tibia

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20
Q

The trochanteric fossa is located on the

A

Greater trochanter

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21
Q

The sustentaculum tali is located on which bone?

A

Calcaneus

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22
Q

On which bone is the lesser sciatic notch located?

A

Ischium

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23
Q

Development of the upper limb, beginning with the appearance of the limb bud and ending with the separation of the digits occurs _____ days after fertilization?

A

26-52

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24
Q

Which structure has a primary ossification center that appears after birth?

A

Clavicle;
Clavicle is the most commonly fractured bone of the body.
It has three ossification centers

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25
The primary ossification centers develop from the:
Diaphysis; | Metaphysis > Most metabolic area of the long bone.
26
What is the primary purpose of the epiphyseal plate?
Longitudinal growth
27
_______bone develops from membranous bone formation
Parietal
28
Which reabsorbs bone matrix?
Osteoclasts; | Paget's disease is caused by increased Osteoclastic activity
29
The tensile strength of bone comes from
Collagen fibers
30
Mineralization of the bone matrix occurs with which of the following activities?
Osteoblastic; | Osteoblastic activity increases alkaline phophatase
31
Which of the following produces osteoid?
Osteoblast
32
What separates the Haversian systems found in bone?
Interstitial lamellae
33
What is the action of a trochoid joint?
Rotation; Trochoid aka pivot Example: Proximal radioulna joint
34
A fibrous joint is classified as:
Syndesmosis; | Examples: Sutures, gomphosis, syndesmoses
35
Which is an immoveable joint?
Synarthrodial
36
What joint is responsible for circumduction?
Spheroid; Aka Ball & Socket
37
The epiphyseal plate is classified as a _____ joint
Synchondrosis
38
The articulation of the tooth with the jaw is classified as a _____ joint
Gomphosis; Hold in your teeth with your "GOMS." Syndesmosis is a correct classification but not as specific
39
With which structure does the head of the fibula articulate?
Tibia
40
Which joint has an articular disc which completely divides the joint into two cavities?
Temporomandibula
41
What articulates with the sternal angle?
Second rib; | AKA Sternal angle of Louis, where the sternum and manubrium meet
42
The acetabular labrum is made up of
Fibrocartilage
43
The primary joint of the ankle is
Talocrural
44
The _____ and _____ bones are connected by the spring ligament
Calcaneus and navicular
45
What type of movement is in the wrist?
Circumflex
46
Movement of an ellipsoid joint would occur in how many axes?
Two
47
The femoral head is directed medially ____ and ____
Superiorally; anteriorally
48
The subtalar joint allows the foot to perform which movements?
Inversion and eversion; | Most common ankle sprain is internal
49
Flexion of the head occurs primarily at:
Occiput-C1; Occiput > C1 = "Yes" C1 > C2 = "No"
50
The distal part of the triceps brachii is on the
Decranon
51
The pisiform bone lies within the tendon of which muscle
Flexor carpi ulnaris
52
Which muscle would be most affected if there was damage to the ventral ramus of the C5 nerve?
Deltoids
53
Which nerve innervates the muscle of the hypothenar eminence?
Ulnar; | Median nerve innervates thenar eminence muscles
54
Which structure passes lateral to the antecubital fossa?
Radial nerve; Radial nerve innervates extension of the phalanges, wrist, and elbow and is entrapped in the base of the snuff box
55
What nerve innervates the supraspinatus muscle?
Suprascapular; Subscapular (Teres major) Radial (Extensors) Axillary (Deltoid & Teres minor)
56
Which structure is a component of the pelvic diaphragm?
Levator ani muscles
57
The tendon for the peroneus longus muscle runs through which bone?
Cuboid
58
Which of the following peripheral nerves supplies the gluteus medius muscle?
Superior gluteal; Inferior gluteal (Gluteus maximus) Obturator (Adductors)
59
Which nerve supplies the gracilis muscle?
Obturator
60
Extensors of the knee are supplied by which nerve?
Femoral; | Remember Rectus Femoris crosses two joints.
61
The urachus remains in the adult as a remnant of the:
Media umbilical ligament
62
The muscles of the shoulder are derived from :
Cervical myotome
63
Embryonic muscle growth occurs by fusion of which of the following?
Myoblasts; Myo = muscle Myelo = spinal cord
64
Muscles of the lower limb are derived from:
Mesoderm
65
After the 7th week of development both limb buds rotate, which of the following statements is most accurate?
Upper limbs rotate laterally 90° and lower rotate medially 85°
66
Which fontanel is found in the adult?
Bregma; | Coronal suture > between frontal & parietal bones
67
Which of the following separates the true pelvis from the false pelvis?
Arcuate line
68
Which structures are found in the quadrangular space?
Axillary nerve; posterior circumflex humeral artery; | Triangular space has Circumflex Scapular Artery in it.
69
Which of the following is characteristic of skeletal muscle?
Fosiform shape
70
The capture and release of calcium is a function of ____ in muscle.
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
71
The perimysium is a connective tissue that encloses a:
Fasciculus
72
The stem cells of muscles are:
Myoblast; Myo = muscle Cyte = cells Blast = build Clast = break down
73
The arch of the aorta is located in the ____ mediastinum
Superior
74
What are the Purkinje cells?
Modified cardiac cell
75
Which of the following structures is ONLY contained in the right ventricle?
Pectinate muscle
76
Which of the following structures is located between the right atrium and right ventricle?
AV node; SA node = 60-80 beats per minute AV node = 40-60 beats per minute Bundle of His = 20-40 beats per minute Purkinje fibers = 0-20 beats per minute
77
Which of the following arteries is the main supply to the sinoatrial node?
Right coronary; *Coronary arteries are the only arteries controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system*
78
The following is a branch of the medial plantar artery?
Posterior tibial
79
The ascending colon is supplied by what artery?
Right colic
80
The lingual artery is a direct branch of the ____ artery.
External carotid
81
Which two veins join to form the portal vein?
Superior mesenteric and splenic
82
Which of the following veins drains into the proximal axillary vein?
Cephalic; | Jugular vein is the "main brain drain."
83
Which vein drains the majority of blood from the body?
Superior
84
The external iliac vein receives blood from the following anatomical structure:
Lower limbs
85
If you had tonsillitis, which lymph nodes would be affected?
Jugulodi gastric
86
The majority of lymph enters the circulation through the:
Thoracic duct
87
Blind ended lymph vessels in the villi of the small intestine are called:
Lacteals; | The appendix is a blind lacteal. Pain at McBurney's point indicates appendicitis
88
The sublingual caruncle is a duct for the ____gland
Submandibular
89
Which structure in the fetal heart keeps atrial blood from entering the pulmonary circulation?
Foramen ovale; | Most congenital defects of the heart occur here!
90
The thymus gland is derived from the ____ pharyngeal pouch
3rd; | Thymus gland is part of the immune system. (Reticuloendothelial system)
91
Post partum, ductus arteriosus becomes the:
Ligamentum arteriosum
92
Erythropoetin is secreted by which cell?
Extraglomerular masangium
93
What is a cardiac skeleton made of?
Fibrous connective tissue
94
Where are “Hassall corpuscles” located?
Thymus gland
95
What cell attaches to capillaries and nerves?
Astrocytes
96
The duct which crosses the masseter and opens the mouth originates from the ____ gland
Parotid
97
Which part of the tooth contains blood vessels and nerves?
Pulp cavity
98
Where is the pharyngeal orifice of the auditory tube?
Roof of the nasopharynx
99
What separates the nasopharynx and the oropharynx?
Soft palate
100
Payers Patches are most numerous in the:
Ileum
101
The crypts of Lieberkuhn are located in which anatomical structure?
Small intestine
102
The shape of the haustra in the large intestine is due to the:
Taenia coli
103
The esophagogastric junction is surrounded by which portion of the stomach?
Cardia; | Fundus means most superior point
104
Persistence of the yolk stalk may result in:
Meekel’s diverticulum
105
The smooth muscle of the digestive system is derived from:
Splanchnic mesoderm; | Sclerotome originates from vertebral column
106
What develops from the hindgut of the embryo?
Rectum
107
What is the mucous membrane that forms the longitudinal folds in the distal end of the anal canal?
Columns
108
Where does simple columnar meet stratified squamous?
Anal canal
109
Where are Brunner’s glands located?
Duodenum; Parietal cells are in the stomach. They secrete IF and HCL.
110
Which of the following cells secretes enzymes?
Paneth

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