General Anaesthetics Flashcards

1
Q

What is GA used for?

A
  • Produce unconsciousness and lack of responsiveness to all painful stimuli
  • Balanced anesthesia:
    ~ Triad of hypnosis/unconsciousness, amnesia and analgesia/pain relief
    ~ Inhalation + IV used together
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the stages of GA?

A

1) Pre-assessment
2) Induction of amnesia
3) Airway management
4) Maintenance of analgesia
5) Reversal/emergency
6) Post-op

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the most common drug types for each point of balanced anaesthesia?

A

Induction:
- Short acting barbiturates

Muscle relaxation:
- Neuromuscular blocking agents

Analgesics:
- Opioids and nitrous oxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the tissue distribution for gaseous anaesthesia?

A

Gas -> Lung -> Blood -> Brain and other tissues

Higher the solubility in blood = slower onset
- If it is not very soluble in blood, it accumulates in the brain quicker
~ Nitrous oxide has low solubility
~ Halothane has high solubility
~ NO < Sevo < Iso < Enflurane < Halothane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the classification of gaseous anaesthesia?

A

Gases:
- NITROUS OXIDE

Volatile liquids (need to be vaporised)
- HALOTHANE
- Enflurane
- Desflurane
- ISOFLURANE
- SEVOFLURANE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the MOA of GA?

A

1) Increases GABA receptor sensitivity to action
- Enhances neurotransmission at inhibitory synapses
- Positive allosteric modulator

2) Blocks glutamate neurotransmitter acting on NMDA receptor
- Depresses neurotransmission at excitatory synapses
- Prevents NMDA receptor activation
- Negative allosteric modulator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is minimum alveolar potency?

A
  • Anesthetic potency
    ~ Low MAC = high potency
    ~ Min. conc. of a drug in the alveolar air that will produce immobility in 50% of px exposed to a painful stimulus
  • Nitrous oxide has the lowest potency
    ~ Des < Sevo < Isoflurane (highest potency)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the pharmacokinetics of gaseous anesthetics?

A
  • Must reach CNS conc. sufficient to suppress neuronal excitability

Absorption:
- Conc. of anesthetic in inspired air
- Solubility of GA
- Blood flow through lungs

Distribution:
- Determined by regional blood flow
- In highly perfused organs, tissue anesthetic levels quickly equilibrate with blood leveks after administration
~ Brain, liver, lungs, heart

Elimination:
- Almost entirely by lungs/exhalation
- Minimal hepatic metabolism
- Factors that determine uptake also determine elimination

Metabolism:
- Isoflurane and enflurane fluorides are nephrotoxic
- Halothane is hepatotoxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the traits of halothane?

A
  • Potent
  • Medium rate of onset and recovery
  • Analgesia
    ~ Little to no UNTIL unconsciousness occurs
  • Relaxant
    ~ Relaxes skeletal muscle and potentiates relaxants
  • Not compatible with epinephrine

Adverse effects
- Causes respiratory depression dose-dependently
- Decreases BP due to depression of CO
- Bradycardia or arrhythmia
~ Leads to hypotension and dysrhythmia
- May lead to halothane-associated hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the traits of isoflurane and sevoflurane?

A

Isoflurane:
- Pungent
- Potent
- Medium rate of onset and recovery
- Similar to halothane with less hypotension and arrhythmia
- Decreases BP mainly due to dec in systemic vascular resistance

Sevoflurane:
- Potent
- More rapid rate of onset and recovery
- Metabolized in the liver
~ Nephrotoxic
- Unstable
~ When exposed to CO2 absorbents in anesthesia machines
~ Degrades into a nephrotoxic compound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the traits of nitrous oxide?

A
  • Odorless
  • Rapid-onset and recovery
  • Lacks potency
  • Gives analgesia and amnesia
  • Does not give complete unconsciousness or surgical anesthesia
    ~ Supplements the analgesic effects of primary anesthetic instead (eg NO + halothane)
    ~ If used alone, only as an analgesic agent in situations where px does not need to be unconscious (eg dentistry)
  • Not much effects on BP and respiration

Side effects:
- Major postop N/V

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are IV GA used for?

A
  • Mostly as an induction agent to induce consciousness
    ~ But does not necessarily keep asleep for long
  • Depresses respiration
    ~ Manual respiration needed
  • May be used alone or to supplement gaseous agents
  • THIOPENTONE
  • PROPOFOL
  • KETAMINE
  • Etomidate
  • Midazolam
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the advantages of using gaseous + IV anesthetics together?

A
  • Permits dosage of gaseous agent to be reduced
  • Produces effects that cannot be achieved with inhalation alone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the traits of thiopentone/sodium thiopental?

A
  • Barbiturate with high lipid solubility
    ~ Enters brain easily and rapidly
    ~ Within 10-20 sec after IV
  • Potentiates action of GABA on GABA ion channels
    ~ Causes CNS depression (due to hyperpolarization of cell)
  • Single dose
    ~ Re-distributes to less vascularized tissues (ultra-short duration)
  • Multiple doses
    ~ Duration of action depends on clearance
  • Slow elimination
  • Large volume of distribution
    ~ Easily goes to peripheral organs (especially fatty ones)
  • Active metabolite (pentobarbital)
    ~ Complicates liver cirrhosis
  • Extensively bound to plasma protein
    ~ Small amount of free drug can be excreted by kidneys
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the traits of propofol?

A
  • No need to reconstitute
  • Induction rate similar to thiopentone, but more rapid recovery rate
  • Used both for induction and maintenance
  • Short duration of action
    ~ Due to rapid redistribution from brain to other tissues
    ~ Needs continuous, low-dose infusion for extended effects
  • Has reduced postop vomiting

Side effects:
- Decreased BP, hypotension during induction
~ To be used w caution in elderly px, cardiac dysfunction px and hypovolemic px

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the traits of ketamine?

A
  • Causes dissociative anaesthesia
    ~ Consciousness is intact but feels dissociated from the environment
  • Rapid induction
  • Can cause sedation, immobility, analgesia and amnesia
  • Only IV anesthetic with analgesic property
  • Metabolized in the liver, excreted in urine and bile
  • Large volume of distribution rapid clearance
    ~ Suitable for continuous infusion without lengthening the duration of action

Side effects:
- Hallucinations, disturbing dreams, delirium during recovery
- Risk of adverse reactions may be reduced with diazepam or midazolam

17
Q

What are anesthetic adjuncts?

A

BZP
- Anxiolytics, amnesia and sedation prior to induction

alpha2 adrenergic agonists
- Sedation prior to and during procedures in non-intubated px

Analgesics

Neuromuscular blocking agents
- Induction of anesthesia to relax muscles to facilitate laryngoscopy and ETT

18
Q

What are the traits of midazolam?

A
  • Used for anxiolysis, amnesia and sedation during induction
  • Rapid onset of unconsciousness
  • High therapeutic index
    ~ Lesser CVS and respiratory depressing effects compared to other IV anesthetics
  • Metabolized in the liver
    ~ Elderly tend to be more sensitive and have a slower recovery
  • Side effects are compounded by concurrent use of other agents
  • Adverse effects can be minimized by slow injection of midazolam (> 2 mins)
19
Q

What are the traits of alpha2 adrenergics?

A

DEXMEDETOMIDINE

  • Highly selective
  • Short-term sedation
  • Sedation and analgesic effects
    ~ but not reliable GA even at maximal doses
  • Little respiratory depression
  • Tolerable decrease in blood pressure and heart rate

Side effects:
- Nausea
- Dry mouth
- Hypotension
- Bradycardia

20
Q

When are NSAIDs used as analgesics?

A
  • Minor surgical procedures
  • Opioids (morphine, fentanyl)

Duration of actions:
- Remifentanil (ultra short 10 mins)
- Sufentanil (15 mins)
- Alfentanil (20 mins)
- Fentanyl (30 mins)

Metabolized in the liver
- Except remifentanil (esterases)

Excreted in urine and bile

21
Q

What are the traits of neuromuscular blockers?

A
  • Administered during induction of anesthesia to relax muscles of the jaw, neck and airway
    ~ to facilitate ETT

Will precipitate barbiturates if mixed together so need to clear line first

22
Q

Traits summary

A

Sedation
- Midazolam (BZP IV)
- Dexmedetomidine (a2 adrenergic IV)

Analgesic
- Dexmedetomidine (a2 adrenergic IV)
- NSAIDS (opioids iv)
- Halothane (slight, gaseous)
- Nitrous oxide (gaseous)

Anxiolysis
- Midazolam (BZP IV)

Amnesia
- Midazolam (BZP IV)
- Nitrous oxide (gaseous)

Muscle relaxant:
- Succinylcholine, vecuronium (neuromuscular blockers IV)
- Halothane (slight, gaseous)
- Isoflurane, sevoflurane

23
Q

summary slide

A
  • GA produce unconsciousness and insensitivity to painful stimuli
  • Balance anaesthesia
  • MAC : dec MAC → ^ potency
  • Mechanism of action by
    inhalation anaesthetics
  • Inhalation anaesthetics
    eliminated through expired air
  • Principal adverse effects of GA:
    depression of respiratory & cardiac performance
  • Nitrous oxide differs from other
    Gas in: (1) very high MAC, cannot
    be used alone to produce GA & (2)
    high analgesic potency, tf
    frequently combined with other
    gas to supplement their analgesic
    effects
  • Induction of anaesthesia usually
    accomplished with a short-acting
    barbiturate (eg. thiopentone)
  • IV Ketamine– dissociative anaesthesia

Ability of an adequate GA includes the ability to suppress ‘recall’ / awareness