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Pharmacology > General > Flashcards

General Flashcards

0
Q

Primary chemotherapeutic drug for CML

A

Imatinib

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1
Q

What is the primary chemotherapeutic drug for ALL?

A

Asparaginase

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2
Q

DOC for sickle cell anemia

A

Hydroxyurea

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3
Q

DOC for the parasitic infection that can lead to megaloblastic anemia

A

Praziquantel

Diphyllobothrium latum

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4
Q

DOC for parasitic infection that can lead to microcytic hypochromic anemia

A

Albendazole

hookworms - Necator, Ancylostoma

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5
Q

Rescue therapy for methotrexate

A

Leucovorin/Folinic acid

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6
Q

Rescue therapy for cyclophosphamide

A

Mesna

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7
Q

Rescue therapy for doxorubicin

A

Dexrazoxane

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8
Q

Rescue therapy for cisplatin

A

Amifostine

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9
Q

Treatment for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

A

Lepirudin, Agartroban

Direct thrombin inhibitors

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10
Q

DOC for outpatient management of lead poisoning

A

Succimer

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11
Q

DOC for malignant hyperthermia

A

Dantrolene

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12
Q

DOC for CMV infection

A

Ganciclovir

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13
Q

None of the cephalosporins are effective against ___________, ____________ & _____________.

A

Listeria monocytogenes
Enterococci
Methillin-Resistant Staph Aureus

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14
Q

DOC for Yersinia pestis

A

Streptomycin and/or Doxycycline

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15
Q

DOC for eradication of chronic carriage of Salmonella in the gallbladder. Why?

A

Ampicillin

For enterohepatic recycling

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16
Q

Drugs that are known to cause pseudo membranous colitis

A

Clindamycin, Ampicillin, 3rd Generation Cephalosporins

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17
Q

Ach is synthesized from acetyl CoA and choline by the enzyme choline acetyltransferase which is inhibited by

A

Hemocholinium

cholinergic synthesis

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18
Q

ACh is actively transported into vesicles for storage by vesicle-associated transporter (VAT), inhibited by

A

Vesamicol

cholinergic storage

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19
Q

Entry of calcium triggers interaction among SNARE proteins (VAMPs and SNAPs). ______________ toxins alter synaptobrevins to prevent release of ACh.

A

Botulinium

cholinergic release

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20
Q

Degradation of ACh into choline and acetate by acetylcholinesterase, inhibited by ____________

A

Carbamates or organophosphates

cholinergic termination

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21
Q

Messenger of M1 (nerve endings)

A

Gq - Increase IP3, DAG cascade

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22
Q

Messenger of M2 (heart, some nerve endings)

A

Gi - Decrease cAMP, activates K channels

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23
Q

Messenger of M3 effector cells

A

Gq - Increase IP3, DAG cascade

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24
Q

Used for bladder and bowel atony post surgery

A

Betanechol

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25
Q

Cholinomimetic used for Sjogren syndrome and Sicca syndrome

A

Pilocarpine

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26
Q

Cholinomimetic used for smoking cessation

A

Varenicline

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27
Q

Used in diagnosis of myasthenia gravis

A

Edrophonium

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28
Q

Used in the treatment of myasthenia gravis

A

Neostigmine

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29
Q

Differentiates a cholinergic crisis from a myasthenic crisis

A

Tensilon test

myasthenic crisis - undermedication
cholinergic crisis - overmedication

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30
Q

Cholinomimetic used in Alzheimer’s disease

A

Rivastigmine, Galantamine, Donepezil, Tacrine

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31
Q

First choice antidote for organophosphate poisoning

A

Atropine

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32
Q

Antidote for organophosphate poisoning and nerve gas poisoning (sarin, tabun)

A

Pralidoxime

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33
Q

Cholinergic antagonist used for Parkinson’s disease

A

Benztropine, Biperiden, Trihexyphenidyl

TRI to park your BENZ, BIP here.

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34
Q

Why is Ipatropium DOC in asthmatic patients with comorbid COPD and heart disease?

A

Less likely to cause tachycardia and arrhythmias

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35
Q

Cholinergic antagonist used for motion sickness

A

Scopolamine

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36
Q

Obsolete hypertensive drug due to its significant postural hypotension

A

Hexamethonium

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37
Q

Depolarizing neuromuscular blocker

A

Succinylcholine

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38
Q

Tyrosine is hydroxylated by tyrosine hydroxylase to DOPA which is inhibited by

A

Metyrosine

adrenergic synthesis

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39
Q

Norepinephrine and dopamine are transported into vesicles which is inhibited by

A

Reserpine

adrenergic transport

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40
Q

Entry of calcium triggers interaction among SNARE proteins inhibited by

A

Guanethidine

adrenergic release

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41
Q

Diffusion and reuptake of norepinephrine via NET and DAT in synaptic cleft is inhibited by

A

Cocaine and TCAs

adrenergic termination

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42
Q

Norepinephrine and epinephrine are metabolized by ____________ and ____________ into metanephrine and VMA

A

MAO and COMT

adrenergic termination

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43
Q

Messenger of alpha1(effector tissues, smooth muscles, glands)

A

Gq - increase IP3, DAG

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44
Q

Messenger of alpha2 (nerve endings, smooth muscle)

A

Gi - Decrease cAMP

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45
Q

Messenger of beta1 (cardiac muscles, JG apparatus)

A

Gs - Increase cAMP

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46
Q

Messenger of beta2 (smooth muscle, liver, heart)

A

Gs - Increase cAMP

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47
Q

Sympathomimetic used for anaphylaxis

A

Epinephrine

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48
Q

Non selective sympathomimetic used in cases of shock due to its action on splanchnic and renal vessels

A

Dopamine

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49
Q

Receptors activated by dopamine dependent on dose

A 
Low dose (1-5mcg) - dopamine receptors
Medium dose (5-15mcg) - beta receptors
High dose (>15mcg) - alpha receptors
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50
Q

Sympathomimetic used as decongestant

A

Phenylephrine, Pseudoephedrine

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51
Q

DOC for preeclampsia

A

Methyldopa

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52
Q

Used for acute heart failure and may also be used in cardiac stress test

A

Dobutamine

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53
Q

DOC for acute asthma attacks

A

Albuterol, Salbutamol

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54
Q

Used for tocolysis in preterm labor

A

Terbutaline, Rotodrine

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55
Q

Sympathomimetic used in spinal shock

A

Alpha1 agonists (Pseudoephedrine, Phenylephrine)

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56
Q

DOC for pheochromocytoma

A 
Phentolamine
Phenoxybenzamine (of historical interest)
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57
Q

Alpha1 antagonist most selective for prostatic smooth muscle

A

Tamsulosin

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58
Q

Has intrinsic sympathomimetic activity

A

Pindolol, Acetabulol

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59
Q

Beta blocker with the longest half life

A

Nadolol

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60
Q

Beta blocker with the smallest half life

A

Esmolol

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61
Q

Bet blocker that can be used to supraventricular tachycardia

A

Esmolol

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62
Q

First line drug for hypertension for patients without comorbidities

A

Thiazide diuretics - Hydrochlorthiazide, Chlorthalidone, Indapamide, Metolazone

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63
Q

DOC for nephrogenic DI

A

Thiazide diuretics

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64
Q

Used to treat rebound hypertension from Clonidine use

A

Phentolamine

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65
Q

Vasodilator that is used for also alopecia

A

Minoxidil

It stimulates hair follicles in the telagen phase to differentiate into growth follicles in the anagen phase

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66
Q

Used in hypertensive emergencies but has SE of cyanide toxicity

A

Nitroprusside

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67
Q

Why are patients with diabetic nephropathy treated with ACE inhibitors or ARBs?

A

Decrease albumin excretion and slow progression from microalbuminuria to macroalbuminuria

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68
Q

Why do patients taking angiotensin antagonists develop hyperkalemia?

A

They reduce aldosterone levels and cause potassium retention

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69
Q

Vasodilator used for cyanide poisoning

A

Amyl nitrite

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70
Q

Drugs that have narrow therapeutic index

A 
WALA na Cyang PaPa VasTeD na
Warfarin
Aminoglycosides
Lithium
Amphotericin B
Carbamazepine
Phenobarbital
Phenytoin
Vancomycin
Theophylline
Digoxin
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71
Q

DOC for digitalis toxicity

A

Lidocaine

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72
Q

First line drugs for chronic heart failure

A

Angiotensin antagonists

ACE inhibitors and ARBs

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73
Q

First line therapy in both systolic and diastolic heart failure

A

Diuretics

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74
Q

Role in immediate reduction of the pulmonary congestion and severe edema associated with acute heart failure

A

Furosemide

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75
Q

What are the effects of class I antiarrhythmias on AP duration?

A

Class IA: prolongs AP duration
Class IB: shortens AP duration
Class IC: no effect on AP duration

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76
Q

Used for treatment of class IA antiarrhythmia overdose

A

Sodium lactate

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77
Q

DOC for ventricular arrhythmias and post MI. Least cardiotoxic among conventional antiarrhythmics.

A

Lidocaine

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78
Q

Used for refractory arrhythmias

A

Class IC

Flecainide, Encainide, Propafenone

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79
Q

Used for all types of arrhythmias and for arrhythmias in the acute phase of myocardial infarction

A

Class IA

Disopyramide, Quinidine, Procainamide

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80
Q

Used for treatment and prophylaxis of atrial fibrillation

A

Dofetilide

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81
Q

Most efficacious of all antiarrhythmics but also most toxic

A

Amiodarone

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82
Q

Why are dihydropyridine CCBs not used as antiarrhythmics?

A

Evoke compensatory sympathetic discharge which facilitates arrhythmias

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83
Q

DOC for paroxysmal supraventricular arrhythmias

A

Adenosine

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84
Q

Diuretic that can be used for mountain sickness

A

Aetazolamide

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85
Q

Efficacy is decreased by NSAIDs and has synergistic ototoxicity with aminoglycosides

A

Furosemide

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86
Q

Diuretic that reduces progression of DM Nephropathy and reduces mortality in post-MI

A

Eplenerone

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87
Q

Diuretic usually used to decrease intracranial pressure

A

Mannitol

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88
Q

May occur with rapid correction of hyponatremia

A

Central pontine myelinosis

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89
Q

Why are statins used in the management if acute coronary disease?

A

For stabilization of atherosclerotic plaques

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90
Q

Increases TGs and VLDL in patients with high triglyceride

A

Cholestryamine

Bile acid resin

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91
Q

Most effective agent for increasing HDL levels

A

Niacin

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92
Q

DOC for hypertriglyceridemia

A

Fibrates

Gemfibrozil, Fenofibrate, Bezafibrate

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93
Q

Endogenous molecules with powerful pharmacologic effects that do not fall into traditional autonomic groups

A

Autacoids

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94
Q

Excess histamine production is detected in the urine as

A

Imidazole acetic acid

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95
Q

Messenger of H1 (smooth muscle)

A

Gq - Increase IP3, DAG

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96
Q

Messenger of H2 (stomach, heart, mast cells)

A

Gs - Increase cAMP

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97
Q

Histamine receptor antagonist used for motion sickness

A

Meclizine, Cyclizine

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98
Q

Drug used for chemotherapy and postoperative vomiting

A

Ondansetron

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99
Q

DOC for acute migraine

A

Sumatriptan

5-HT1D receptor agonists

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100
Q

Ergot alkaloid used for postpartum bleeding

A

Ergonovine, Methylergonovine

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101
Q

Group of endogenous fatty acid derivatives that are produced from arachidonic acid

A

Eicosanoids

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102
Q

Prostaglandin E1 analog used for prevention of NSAID induced gastric mucosal injury but is an abortifacient

A

Misoprostol

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103
Q

Prostaglandin E1 analog used for maintenance of PDA

A

Alprastodil

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104
Q

Prostaglandin analog used for induction of labor

A

Dinoprostone

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105
Q

Prostaglandin analog used for control of postpartum hemorrhage

A

Carboprost

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106
Q

Prostaglandin analog used in pulmonary hypertension and reduces platelet aggregation in dialysis machines

A

Prostaglandin I2 analogs

Epoprostenol, Beraprost, Iloprost, Treprostinil

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107
Q

Antidote for methylxanthine overdosage

A

Beta blockers

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108
Q

DOC for asthma prophylaxis

A

Fluticasone

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109
Q

Prophylaxis of severe, refractory asthma not responsive to all other drugs

A

Omalizumab

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110
Q

Iron with highest elemental iron

A

Ferrous fumarate

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111
Q

Iron with lowest elemental iron

A

Ferrous gluconate

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112
Q

Used for anemia associated with chronic renal failure

A

Epoetin alfa

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113
Q

Used for neutropenia associated with chemotherapy, myelodysplasia and aplastic anemia

A

Filgrastim

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114
Q

Used for secondary prevention of thrombocytopenia in patients undergoing cytotoxic chemotherapy

A

Oprelvekin

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115
Q

Toxic dose of ASA

A

150mg/kg

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116
Q

Lethal dose of ASA

A

500mg/kg or 30g

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117
Q

Antiplatelet used during PCI to prevent thrombosis

A

Abciximab, Eptifibatide, Tirofiban

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118
Q

Antiplatelet used for prevention and treatment of arterial thrombosis

A

Clopidogrel

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119
Q

Used in prevention of thromboembolic complications of cardiac valve replacement and in secondary prevention of ischemic stroke (with aspirin)

A

Cilostazol, Dipyridamole

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120
Q

Antidote for heparin toxicity

A

Protamine sulfate

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121
Q

DOC for anticoagulation during pregnancy

A

Heparin

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122
Q

Used for chronic anticoagulation monitored with PT

A

Warfarin

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123
Q

Antidote for alteplase

A

Aminocaproic acid

124
Q

Used for prevention of hemorrhagic diatheses in newborns

A

Vitamin K

125
Q

Increases the factor VIII activity of patients with mild hemophilia A and von Willebrand disease

A

Desmopressin

126
Q

Indications for use of aspirin in the pediatric age

A

Rheumatic fever
Kawasaki disease
Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis

127
Q

Only intravenous NSAID used for postsurgical analgesic control

A

Ketorolac

128
Q

Nonselective COX inhibitor used for closure of PDA

A

Indomethacin

129
Q

Antidote for Paracetamol overdose

A

N-Acetylcysteine

130
Q

Toxic dose of paracetamol

A

150mg/kg

131
Q

Lethal dose of paracetamol

A

15g

132
Q

DMARD that is also an antimalarial drug

A

Chloroquine

133
Q

DMARD that can be used in inflammatory bowel disease

A

Sulfasalazine

136
Q

Abnormal sleep pattern from use of benzodiazepines

A

Decreased REM sleep

137
Q

Benzodiazepine with the longest half life

A

Chlordiazepoxide (36-200 hours)

138
Q

Treatment for benzodiazepine overdose

A

Flumazenil

139
Q

Barbiturates that are used in Gilbert’s syndrome

A

Long acting

Phenobarbital, Mephobarbital, Primidone

140
Q

Used for sleep disorder (insomnia)

A

Zolpidem, Zaleplon

141
Q

Used for generalized anxiety disorder

A

Buspirone

142
Q

Responsible for ethanol metabolism at blood levels higher than 100 mg/dl

A

Microsomal ethanol oxidizing system

143
Q

DOC sedative-hypnotic for alcohol withdrawal

A

Long acting benzodiazepine

Diazepam, Chlordiazepoxide

144
Q

Treatment for methanol poisoning

A

Ethanol

Competitively inhibits oxidation of methanol

145
Q

Treatment for ethylene glycol poisoning

A

Fomepizole

Slows or inhibits formation of oxalic acid

146
Q

Only antiseizure drug with effect on K+ channel

A

Oxcarbazepine

147
Q

First line in treatment of acute attack

A

Colchicine

148
Q

Antiseizure drug that is the DOC for trigeminal neuralgia

A

Carbamazepine

149
Q

DOC for absence seizures

A

Ethosuximide

150
Q

Antiseizure drug used for Lennox-Gestaut syndrome (frequent seizures of different types)

A

Topiramate

151
Q

Antiseizure drugs also used in postherpetic neuralgia

A

Gabapentin, Pregabalin

152
Q

Best measure of potency of inhaled anesthetics

A

Minimum alveolar concentration

153
Q

Inhaled anesthetic with lowest potency and least cardiotoxicity. Used for minor surgery and dental procedures

A

Nitrous oxide

154
Q

Color of bottles of inhalational anesthetics

A

Desflurane - blue
Sevoflurane - yellow
Isoflurane - purple
Enflurane - orange

155
Q

Highest potency and lowest MAC among inhalational anesthetics

A

Methoxyflurane

156
Q

General anesthetic used for dissociative amnesia

A

Ketamine

157
Q

Called the milk of amnesia and causes prolonged sedation

A

Propofol

158
Q

Local anesthetic with longest half life

A

Ropivacaine

159
Q

Local anesthetic with shortest half life

A

Procaine

160
Q

All local anesthetics are vasodilators except

A

Cocaine

161
Q

Local anesthesia used for extravasation complications from venipucture and inadvertent intraarterial injections

A

Procaine

162
Q

Local anesthetic used for spinal anesthesia and topical ophthalmic anesthesia

A

Tetracaine

163
Q

Toxic dose of lidocaine

A

5mg/kg

164
Q

First line treatment for chronic gout

A

Allopurinol

168
Q

Irreversible inhibitor of GABA aminotransferase and is useful in the treatment of partial seizures and West syndrome

A

Vigabatrin

169
Q

DOC for Parkinson’s disease

A

Levodopa-Carbidopa

170
Q

Antiparkinsonism drug also used for restless leg syndrome

A

Pramipexole

171
Q

Used for on-off phenomena in Parkinson’s disease

A

Apomorphine

Alternating periods of improved mobility and akinesia occurring few hours to days

172
Q

Used for wearing off phenomena in Parkinson’s disease

A

Entacapone

Deterioration of drug effect in between medication due to progressive destruction of nigrostriatal neurons

173
Q

Occurs when selegiline is used with SSRIs

A

Serotonin syndrome

174
Q

5 dopamine receptors

A

D1 Mesocortical-Mesolimbic: regulating mentation and mood
D2 Nigrostriatal: extrapyramidal function
D3 Tuberoinfindibular: control of prolactin release
D4 Medullary-Periventricular: eating behavior
D5 Incertohypothalamic: anticipatory motivational phase of copulatory behavior

175
Q

Only antipsychotic with fatal overdose

A

Thioridazine

176
Q

Only antipsychotic that reduces the risk of suicide

A

Clozapine

177
Q

Nondepolarizng neuromuscular blocker with most rapid onset

A

Rocuronium (60-120 seconds)

178
Q

Most commonly used clinically nondepolarizing neuromuscular blocker

A

Cisatracurium

179
Q

Nondepolarizng neuromuscular blocker metabolized by bile

A

Vecuronium

180
Q

Nondepolarizng neuromuscular blocker metabolized by pseudocholinesterase

A

Mivacurium

181
Q

Novel reversal agent for rocuronium

A

Summadex

182
Q

Undergoes Hoffman elimination to form laudanosine

A

Atracurium

183
Q

Effects of nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers can be reversed by

A

Neostigmine

184
Q

Nondepolarizng neuromuscular blocker that was used for lethal injection

A

Pancuronium

185
Q

Nondepolarizng neuromuscular blocker used for strychnine poisoning

A

Pancuronium

186
Q

Atypical antipsychotic used for manic episodes in biolar disorder

A

Olanzapine

187
Q

Atypical psychotic also used for intractable hiccups

A

Risperidone

188
Q

Only antipsychotic approved for schizophrenia in the youth

A

Risperidone

189
Q

Least sedating atypical antipsychotic

A

Aripripazole

190
Q

Treatment of lithium overdose

A

Dialysis

191
Q

Threshold for toxicity of lithium

A

2 mEq/L

192
Q

Toxic dose of tricyclic antidepressants

A

7mg/kg

193
Q

Lethal dose of tricyclic antidepressants

A

15mg/kg

194
Q

First line drug for major depressive disorder

A

SSRIs

Fluoxetine, Paroxetine, Citalopram, Escitalopram, Straline, Fluvoxamine

195
Q

Antidepressant used for appetite stimulation

A

Mirtazipine

196
Q

Drug interaction of MAO inhibitor and tyramine

A

Hypertensive crisis

197
Q

Treatment for serotonin syndrome

A

Cryoheptidine

198
Q

Opioid with shortest half life

A

Remifentanil (3-4 mins)

199
Q

Opioid with longest half life

A

Buprenorphine (4-8 hours)

200
Q

Most potent opioid

A

Ohmefentanyl

201
Q

Given for pain associated with acute myocardial infarction

A

Morphine

202
Q

Used for severe pain and for breakthrough cancer pain which may be given transdermally or via lollipop

A

Fentanyl

203
Q

Opioid used for cough suppression

A

Codeine, Dextremetorphan

204
Q

Opioid resistant to naloxone reversal and is most commonly abused drug in medical practitioners

A

Nalbuphine

205
Q

Reduces craving in alcohol dependence

A

Naltrexone

206
Q

Precipitates withdrawal syndrome in patients with opioid dependence

A

Naloxone

207
Q

Physical or physiologic dependence characterized by signs and symptoms when the drug is withdrawn or dose is lowered

A

Dependence

208
Q

Psychological dependence where there is compulsive drug-using behavior in which the person uses the drug for personal satisfaction

A

Addiction

209
Q

Somatostain analog used for variceal bleeding

A

Octreotide

210
Q

Used for genetic diseases associated with growth retardation (Turner, Noonan, Prader-Willi)

A

Somatropin

211
Q

Combined with Leuprolide to prevent tumor flare up when used for treatment of advanced prostate cancer

A

Flutamide

212
Q

Can be used for prostate cancer and will not cause tumor flare up

A

Ganirelix

213
Q

Used for labor induction and augmentation and control of postpartum hemorrhage

A

Oxytocin

214
Q

Drug used for central DI

A

Desmopressin

215
Q

Used in patient with hypothyroidism and myxedema coma

A

Levothyroxine

216
Q

DOC for pregnant patient with hyperthyroidism

A

Propylthiouracil

217
Q

Definitive treatment for hyperethyroidism

A

Radioactive iodine

218
Q

Drug used in preparation for thyroidectomy as it reduces size and vascularity of thyroid gland

A

Lugol’s solution

219
Q

Ingestion of iodine causes hypothyroidism

A

Wolf-Chaikoff effect

220
Q

Ingestion of iodine causes hyperthyroidism

A

Jod-Basedow effect

221
Q

Glucocorticoid with the highest anti inflammatory property

A

Betamethasone

222
Q

Used for chronic adrenal insufficiency, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, adrenal replacement therapy post-adrenalectomy

A

Fludrocortisone

223
Q

Abused by body builders to lower circulating levels of cortisol in the body and prevent muscle loss

A

Aminoglutethimide

224
Q

DOC for pregnant patients with Cushing’s syndrome

A

Metyrapone

225
Q

Used for hormone-responsive breast cancer (ER/PR+)

A

Tamoxifen

226
Q

Selective estrogen receptor modulator that has no effects on endometrial tissue

A

Raloxifene

227
Q

Antiandrogen used for endometriosis and fibrocystic disease

A

Danazol

228
Q

Used for medical abortion

A

Mifepristone RU-486

229
Q

Used as illegal performance enhancement drugs in athletes

A

Oxandrolone

230
Q

Used for surgical castration

A

Nilutamide

231
Q

Androgen synthesis inhibitor used for BPH, male pattern baldness and hirsutism

A

Finasteride, Dutasteride

232
Q

Rapid acting insulin

A

Lispro, aspart, glulisine

233
Q

Long acting insulin

A

Detemir, glargine

234
Q

First line drug for Type II diabetes mellitus and DOC for obese diabetics

A

Metformin

235
Q

Used for Paget’s disease of bone and as tumor marker for medullary thyroid cancer

A

Calcitonin

236
Q

Bactericidal antibiotics

A

Very Finely Proficient At Murder

Vancomycin
Fluoroquinolones
Penicillins
Aminoglycosides
Metronidazole
237
Q

Bacteriostatic antibiotics

A

ECSTaTiC about bacteriostatics

Erythromycin
Clindamycin
Sulfamethoxazole
Trimetoprim
Tetracycline
Chloramphenicol
238
Q

Initiation of drug treatment before identification of a specific pathogen

A

Empiric therapy

239
Q

Mechanism of penicillin resistance in Staph aureus

A

Ezymatic hydrolysis of beta lactam ring formation of beta lactamases

240
Q

Mechanism of penicillin resistance in MRSA and enterococci

A

Structural change in target penicillin binding proteins

241
Q

Mechanism of penicillin resistance in Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Change in the porin structure in outer cell wall impending access of penicillins to penicillin binding proteins

242
Q

Inhibits renal tubular reabsorption of penicillin

A

Probenecid

243
Q

DOC for Staphylococcal infections

A

Methicillin

244
Q

Antimicrobial coverage of extended spectrum penicillins

A

HELPS kill Enterococci

Haemophilus influenzae
Escherichia coli
Listeria monocytogenes
Proteus mirabilis
Salmonella
Enterococci
245
Q

Drugs used for Pseudomonas, Klebsiella and Enterobacter

A

Piperacillin, Ticarcillin, Carbenicillin

246
Q

Microbial coverage by first generation cephalosporins

A

Proteus mirabilis
Escherichia coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae

247
Q

First generation cephalosporins

A 
FADer help me FAZ my PHysician boards
CeFADroxil
CeFAZolim
CePHalothin
CePHapirin
CePHradine
CePHalexin
248
Q

Microbial coverage of second generation cephalosporin

A

HENPEKS

Haemophilus influenzae
Enterobacter aerogenes
Neisseria spp.
Proteus mirabilis
Escherichia coli
Klebsiella pneumoniae
Serratia marcescens
249
Q

Second generation cephalosporins

A 
In a FAMily gathering, your FOXy cousin is wearing FUR and drinking TEa.
CeFAMandole
CeFOXitin
CeFURoxime
CefoTEtan
FAC! LORA the PROfessional AZhOLE is till on the FONe
CeFAClor
LORAcarbef
CefPROzil
CefmetAZOLE
CeFONicid
250
Q

Antipseudomonal cephalosporins

A

Ceftazidime
Cefoperazone
Cefepime

251
Q

Third generation cephalosporins

A 
Cefetamet
Cefpodoxin
Cfoperazone
Cefixime
Ceftriaxone
Ceftazidime
Cefotaxime
Ceftizoxime
Ceftibuten
252
Q

Fourth generation cephalosporin

A

Cefepime

253
Q

Wide coverage against gram positive and gram negative bacteria and reserved for serious life-threatening infections

A

Carbapenems

Imipenem, Ertapenem, Meropenem

254
Q

DOC for Methillin Resistant Staph Aureus

A

Vancomycin

255
Q

Bacterial protein synthesis inhibitors

A 
buy AT 30, CELLS at 50
Aminoglycosides
Tetracyclines
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin
Lincosamides
Linezolid
Streptogramins
256
Q

Tetracycline with the broadest spectrum

A

Tigecycline

257
Q

For anaerobic infections above the diaphragm

A

Clindamycin

258
Q

For anaerobic infections below the diaphragm

A

Metronidazole

259
Q

Killing action continues even when plasma levels have declined below measurable levels seen in aminoglycosides and fluroquinolones

A

Postantibiotic effect

260
Q

Has the narrowest therapeutic index among aminoglycosides but least resistant

A

Amikacin

261
Q

Are ineffective for anaerobes as they require oxygen for uptake

A

Aminoglycosides

262
Q

Most vestibulotoxic and nephrotoxic aminoglycosides

A

Gentamicin and Tobramycin

263
Q

Aminoglycoside used for hepatic encephalopathy

A

Neomycin

264
Q

Most ototoxic aminoglycoside

A

Kanamycin

265
Q

Used for drug resistant gonorrhea and for penicillin allergic gonorrhea patients

A

Spectinomycin

266
Q

Most prone to develop resistance among antimycobacterial

A

Rifampicin

267
Q

Used for stages of TB (active, latent, prophylaxis)

A

Isoniazid

268
Q

Prophylaxis for meningococcal and staphylococcal carrier states

A

Rifampicin

269
Q

Most hepatotoxic anti TB drug and also known as sterilizing agent

A

Pyrazinamide

Hepatotoxicity:
Isoniazid < Rifampicin < Pyrazinamide

270
Q

DOC for leprosy

A

Dapsone

271
Q

Drug used for disseminated and mucocutaneous candidiasis and salvage therapy for invasive aspergillos

A

Caspofungin

272
Q

Drug used for CMV retinitis

A

Cifodovir, Foscarnet

273
Q

Used for prevention of maternal-fetal HIV transmission

A

Zidovudine

274
Q

DOC for influenza

A

Oseltamivir

275
Q

DOC for pregnant patients with malaria

A

Quinine

276
Q

DOC for prophylaxis for chloroquine-resistant areas

A

Mefloquine

277
Q

Eradicates hypnozoites in the liver preventing malarial relapse

A

Primaquine

278
Q

DOC for prophylaxis in multidrug-resistant areas

A

Doxycycline

279
Q

DOC for asymptomatic cyst carriers of E histolytica

A

Diloxanide furoate

280
Q

DOC for severe intestinal and extraintestinal amebiasis

A

Metronidazole

281
Q

DOC for cryptosporidiosis

A

Nitazoxanide

282
Q

DOC for prophylaxis and treatment of pneumocystosis

A

Co-trimoxazole

283
Q

DOC for prophylaxis and treatment of toxoplasmosis

A

Pyrimethamine-Sulfadiazine

284
Q

DOC for advanced West African sleeping sickness

A

Eflornithine

285
Q

DOC for African sleeping sickness

A

Melarsoprol

286
Q

DOC for Chagas disease

A

Nifurtimox

287
Q

DOC for Leishmaniasis

A

Sodium stibogluconate

288
Q

DOC for ascariasis, pinworm and whipworm infections

A

Mebendazole

289
Q

DOC for hytatid disease

A

Albendazole

290
Q

DOC for filariasis and eye worm disease (loa loa)

A

Diethylcarbamazine

291
Q

DOC for onchocerciasis, cutaneous larva migrans and strongyloidiasis

A

Ivermectin

292
Q

DOC for hookworm and roundworm infections

A

Pyrantel pamoate

293
Q

DOC for trichinosis

A

Thiabendazole

294
Q

DOC for trematodes and Taenia, Diphyllobothrium latum

A

Praziquantel

295
Q

Cancer drug that acts on G2 phase

A

Bleomycin

296
Q

Chemotherapeutic regimen for Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A

ABVD

Adriamycin
Bleomycin
Vincristine
Dacarbazine

297
Q

Chemotherapeutic regimen for Non Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

A

CHOP

Cyclophosphamide
Hydroxydoxorubicin
Vincristine
Prednisone

298
Q

Drugs used for pancreatic cancer

A

Gemcitabine and Erlotinib

299
Q

Used for advanced colon cancer

A

Oxaliplatin

300
Q

Used for GIST

A

Imatinib

301
Q

Used for metastatic breast cancer

A

Trastuzumab

302
Q

DOC for Peptic ulcer disease

A

Proton pump inhibitors

Omeprazole, Lansoprazole, Esomeprazole

303
Q

Treatment for carboxyhemoglobin

A

Hyperbaric oxygen

304
Q

A bipyridyl herbicide used extensively to kill weeds on farms and for highway maintenance that causes GI irritation with hematemesis and bloody stools.

A

Paraquat

305
Q

Associated with several cancers including lung cancer, mesothelioma, and cancers of the GI tract

A

Asbestos

306
Q

Treatment of arsenic poisoning

A

Dimercaprol

307
Q

Treatment of acute mercury poisoning

A

Oral succimer or IM dimercaprol

308
Q

Treatment of chronic mercury poisoning

A

Succimer or unithiol

Dimercaprol should not be used as can redistribute mercury to CNS

309
Q

Treatment for iron poisoning

A

Deferoxamine

310
Q

Treatment for Copper poisoning and Wilson’s disease

A

Penicillamine

311
Q

DOC for diabetic gastroparesis

A

Metoclopramide

312
Q

DOC for acute management of lead poisoning

A

Dimercaprol with or without EDTA

313
Q

What is the functional subunit of N/K/ATPase pump inhibited by cardiac glycosides?

A

Alpha subunit

Pharmacology (4 decks)

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