General Flashcards

1
Q

Speed, Vmo

A

259 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Speed, Mmo (BLR Supps)

A

M 0.58

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Speed, Va

A

181 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Speed, Vb

A

170 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Speed, Vmca

A

92 KIAS Flaps up 250/275

87 KIAS Flaps App 250/275

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Speed, Vle (Flaps app)

A

200 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Speed, Vfe (Flaps Down)

A

157 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Speed, Vle Max Landing Gear Extension Speed

A

181 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Speed, Vlo (Retraction)

A

163 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Speed, Vx Best Angle

A

100 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Speed, Vxse, Single Engine Best Angle

A

105 KIAS HALO 250

107 KIAS HALO 275

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Speed, Vy Best Rate

A

125 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Speed, Vyse Single Engine Best Rate

A

116 KIAS for both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Speed, Vso

A

75 KIAS HALO 250

77 KIAS HALO 275

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Speed, Vs1

A

82 KIAS HALO 250

84 KIAS HALO 275

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Speed, Vs

A

92 KIAS HALO 250

94 KIAS HALO 275

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Speed, Vr Max Gross Flaps Zero

A

104 KIAS HALO 250

106 KIAS HAlO 275

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Speed, Vr Max Gross Flaps App

A

98 KIAS for both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Speed, V2 Max Gross Flaps Zero

A

113 KIAS HALO 250

116 KIAS HALO 275

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Speed, V2 Max Gross Flaps App

A

101 KIAS HALO 250

104 KIAS HALO 275

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Speed, Min Icing

A

145 KIAS HALO 250

148 KIAS HALO 275

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Speed, Vsse

A

117 knots Epic Supps
104 afm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Speed, Max for windshield heat effectiveness

A

226 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Speed, Max Glide

A

136 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Speed, Company Holding

A

160 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

SHP

A

850 shp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Torque, Max Takeoff and Cont

A

2,230 ft-lbs
To account for power settings accuracy and steady state of inadvertent torque excursions up 2,275 ft-lbs are time limited to 7 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Torque, Max Transient

A

2,750 ft-lbs for 5 sec max

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Torque, Max with Oil Pressure 60-85 PSI

A

1,100 ft-lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Torque, Max with Prop RPM 2,120

A

1,800 ft-lbs This prop rpm suggests a failure of the primary governor, overspeed governor is working

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

ITT, Max Starting

A

1,000C for 5 sec

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

ITT, Max Low Idle

A

750C Can be corrected by reducing load and/or increasing N1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

ITT, Max Takeoff

A

820C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

ITT, Max Continuous

A

820C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

ITT, Max Cruise

A

820C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

ITT, Max Cruise Climb and Rec (Normal Cruise)

A

775C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

ITT, Max Reverse

A

750C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

ITT, Max Transient

A

850C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

N1, High Idle

A

Approx 70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

N1, Takeoff and Max Cont

A

104%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

N1, Max Reverse

A

88%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

N1, Max Transient

A

104%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

N1, Min for air conditioning

A

62%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Autofeather arms at ___ N1

A

Approx 90% N1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Prop RPM, Low Idle

A

1,180 rpm
Placard in the plane: 700-1,150 rpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Prop RPM, Max

A

2,000 RPM
To account for power settings accuracy and steady state of inadvertent prop excursions up 2,040 RPM are time limited to 7 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Prop RPM, Max Reverse

A

1,900 rpm @ 88% N1 (one min max)

In reverse FTG is reset to approx 95% prop rpm before the prop reaches a negative pitch angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Prop RPM, Max Transient

A

2,200 rpm for 5 sec max

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Prop, Overspeed Governor Limit

A

2,120 rpm, fixed setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Prop, Power Turbine Governor Limit (Acts like a Fuel Topping Governor) Max Prop Speed

A

Prevents prop from exceeding 2,200 rpm by reducing fuel = reduces N1 speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Prop Governor Test Switch Resets the Overspeed Governor To:

A

1,830 to 1,910 RPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Oil Pressure, Low Idle

A

60 PSI min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Oil Pressure, Normal

A

90 to 135 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Oil Pressure, Transient

A

40 to 200 PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Oil Temp, Min on Start

A

-40C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Oil Temp, Low and High Idle

A

-40 to 110C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Oil Temp, Takeoff and Max Cont

A

0 to 110C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Oil Temp, Max Cruise

A

10 - 99C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Oil Temp, Max Reverse

A

0 - 99C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Oil Temp, Max Transient

A

0 to 110C

Values above 99C limited to 10 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Oil Temp, For fuel heater operations

A

55C min recommended

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Oil, Capacity

A

15.25 US qts

oil tank by itself 10 US qts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Oil, Normal Operating quantity

A

Full to 4 qts low

64
Q

Fuel, Total

A

544 US Gallons

65
Q

Fuel, Mains Quantity

A

386 US Gallons (193 each)

66
Q

Fuel, Aux Tank Quantity

A

158 US Gallons (79 each)

67
Q

Fuel, Max Imbalance

A

300 lbs HALO 250 Supps. Except single engine, then max 1,000 lbs

68
Q

Fuel, Min for Takeoff

A

265 lbs a side

69
Q

Fuel, Engine Driven Fuel Pump (High Pressure Pump)

A

Approx 800 PSI

70
Q

Fuel, Engine Driven Boost Pump (Low Pressure Pump)

A

30 PSI

71
Q

Fuel, Standby Boost Pump

A

30 PSI

72
Q

Fuel, Pressure light comes on at

A

10 PSI +/- 1 PSI

73
Q

Battery Description

A

24v, 42Ah Lead Acid

74
Q

Volts, Min Battery Start

A

23 volts

75
Q

Volts, Min for GPU Start

A

20 volts

76
Q

External Power Cart Limits

A

28.0v - 28.4v
1,000 amps momentary
300 amps continuous

77
Q

Generator Volts and Amps

A

28.25 +/- 0.25 vDC, 250 Amps

78
Q

Generator Amps

A

250 Amps

79
Q

Current Limiter Amps

A

325 Amps

80
Q

Gen Load limits, Altitude

A

Up to 31,000’ - 100%
Above 31,000’ - 88%
Ground operations - 85 %

81
Q

GCU Does These Main Things:

A

PVCROD
P- paralleling, load equalization
V- voltage regulation, maintains 28v
C- cross start protection, protects current limiter by limiting gen output
R- reverse current protection, opens line contactor if a gen voltage drops low
O- over voltage protection,
D- differential voltage protection

82
Q

Current protecting types

A

60 amp limiter (Current Limiter)
70 amp diode
50 amp circuit breaker

83
Q

Number of Electrical Buses

A

16 on diagram QRH (17 if you count furnishings bus)

Ground ops bus
Hot bat bus
Main battery bus
Isolation bus
Left generator bus
Right generator bus
SFDS bus
1-4 dual fed bus
1-3 avionics bus
1 and 2 subpanel bus
84
Q

Engine Model

A

PT6A-52

85
Q

Starter Duty Cycle Limits

A

40 sec on, 60 sec off
40 sec on, 60 sec off
40 sec on, 30 mins off

86
Q

Compressor Stages

A

3 axial-flow

1 centrifugal

87
Q

Turbine Stages

A

Compressor (gas generator) turbine: Single stage axial flow reaction turbine
Power turbine: two stage axial flow reaction turbine

88
Q

Bleed valves close approx

A

Hi: 92%
Low: 64%

89
Q

Auto ignition lights go out at

A

Approx 400 ft-lbs

90
Q

Weight, Max Takeoff

A

13,420 lbs HALO 250

14,000 lbs HALO 275

91
Q

Weight, Max Landing

A

12,500 lbs HALO 250

13,500 LBS HALO 275

92
Q

Weight, Max Ramp

A

13,510 lbs HALO 250

14,090 lbs HALO 275

93
Q

Weight, Max Zero Fuel

A

11,500 lbs HALO 250 and 275

94
Q

Weight, Max Wing Lock Max

A

300 lbs each, 20lbs/sq foot

95
Q

Weight, Max rear baggage

A

AFM
550 lbs

Med Gear 1 - 340 lbs
Med Gear 2 - 210 lbs, 80 lbs per shelve

96
Q

Weight, Max Upper medical gear rails

A

60lbs, 15 lbs pre 25 inches

97
Q

Weight, Max Arch

A

25 lbs

98
Q

Engine Anti-ice Limits

A

Can be open up to ISA +27° up to 13,650’ on ground or air. Above 13,650’ ISA + 15° max or close them. Watch oil temps closely.

99
Q

Cruise Power Company

A

Torque 2,000 ft-lbs
Prop 1,700 rpm
ITT 775C
Fuel Flow 350 PPH

100
Q

Max Operating Altitude

A

35,000’

101
Q

OAT, Max up to FL250, above FL250

A

ISA +37C, above FL250 ISA +31C

102
Q

OAT, Max above FL250

A

ISA +31C

103
Q

Flight Load Factor Limit, G force

A

HALO 250
Flaps up: -1.25 to +3.12
Flaps Down: 0.0 to +2.0

HALO 275
Flaps up: -1.24 to +3.10
Flaps Down: 0.0 to +2.0

104
Q

Crosswind, Max Demonstrated

A

25 KIAS

105
Q

Gear Cycle Limits

A

1 Cycle every 5 mins, max 6 cycles. After 6 cycles a 15 min cool down is required

106
Q

Size, Total Length

A

43’ 10”

107
Q

Size, Total width

A

57’ 11” with winglets

108
Q

Size, Aircraft height

A

Approx 15’

14’ 10”

109
Q

Size outer turning radius

A

41’ 7”

110
Q

Cabin Pressure, Max differential

A

Max 6.6 PSI (Normal 6.5 PSI +/- 0.1)

111
Q

Duct over temp light comes on at:

A

300 F

112
Q

Pneumatics, Normal System Pressure

A

12 - 20 PSI

113
Q

Suction hi/low limits. Up to 15,000’ and 15,000 to 35,000’

A

Sea level to 15,000’ 4.3 to 5.9 Hg

15,000’ to 35,000’ 2.8 to 4.3 Hg

114
Q

Pneumatics, Max Pressure

A

20 PSI

115
Q

Temp, Lowest for de-ice boot operation

A

-40C

116
Q

PSI Delta P switch

A

60 PSI

117
Q

Bleed air waring comes on when

A

Rupture in line by temp exceeding approx 204F

118
Q

Prop de-ice time to hold manual switch

A

90 seconds, ground school
Approx 45 sec. 5 blade supps

119
Q

Prop amp meter should show a flicker to show switching sides approx _____ seconds

A

Every 90 seconds

120
Q

Prop heat using manual, DC loadmeter should show how much increase to verify function

A

Approx 0.5% increase per meter

121
Q

Prop Amp range

A

4 blade: 18-24 amps

122
Q

Wind, Max Headwind Component Limit

A

Do not extrapolate for a headwind that exceeds 30 KIAS. Assume a 30 knot headwind when correcting takeoff field length whenever there is a 30 knot or greater headwind

123
Q

Wind, Max Tailwind Component

A

Max for landing and takeoff 10 KIAS

124
Q

Wind, Max Crosswind and Tailwind for coupled approach

A

Crosswind 16 knots

Tailwind 10 knots

125
Q

Surface De-ice, hold for how long in manual

A

6 seconds

126
Q

Occupancy Max

A

11 including pilots

127
Q

Brake de-ice Limits

A

Do not operate above 15°C

128
Q

Altitudes, Auto Pilot mins

A

After takeoff 400’
Cruise 1,000’
Approach 79’

129
Q

Altitudes, Normal Operations Max

A

35,000’

130
Q

Altitudes, Yaw Damp Inop

A

17,000’

If duel strakes installed, no limit

131
Q

Altitudes, on Aviation Gas

A

Operating Altitude - 31,000’
Either Standby Fuel Pump Inop - 20,000’
No Crossfeed Capability - 20,000’

132
Q

Avionics For Takeoff?

ADS 1 and 2
AHS 1 and 2
PFD and MFD
Baro Settings

A

ADS 1 and 2 Must be operational for takeoff
AHS 1 and 2 Must be operational for takeoff
PFDs and MFD Must be operational for takeoff
Baro Settings must be in Sync for flight

133
Q

Electric Heater Must be ______ for takeoff

A

Off for at least 2 mins prior to and during engine start.

Should not be operated with pedestal floor outlet blocked or cockpit door closed

134
Q

Squawk codes

A

7600 - comm failure
7700 - in-flight emerg
7500 - hijacking (switch to 7700 for immediate assistance)

135
Q

Departure procedures meet obstacle clearance requirements and are based on the premise that on departure an aircraft will: (3)

A
  • cross at least 35 feet above the departure end of the runway;
  • climb on runway heading to 400 feet AAE before turning; and
  • maintain a climb gradient of at least 200 feet per NM throughout the climb to the minimum altitude for enroute operations.

(depart uncontrolled airports RAC 7.9)

136
Q

Distance between runway edge lighting

A

Max of 60m (200 feet)

1/2 mile is 2,600’
13 runway lights is 2,600’

1/4 mile is 1,200’
6 runway lights is 1,200’

137
Q

Obstacle Clearance Mountain Regions

A

Region 1 and 5 - 2,000’ and 5 miles
Region 2,3, and 4 - 1,500’

(RAC 8.5)

On Designated Airways and Air Routes, IFR flights may be operated at the published MEA/MOCA except that in winter when air temperatures may be much lower than those of the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA), aircraft should be operated at an altitude which is at least 1000 feet higher than the published MEA/MOCA.

CAUTION: The combination of extremely low temperatures and the effect of Mountain Waves may result in an altimeter over-reading by as much as 3000 feet. For further details, see “Pressure Altimeter”, published in the TC AIM, AIR Section.

138
Q

Aircraft Category, Spec Vis SM

A
Aircraft Category. SPEC VIS (SM)
A - 1
B - 1.5
C - 2
D - 2
139
Q

Aircraft Category, Speeds

A
A - Up to 90 knots
B - 91 to 120 knots
C - 121 to 140 knots
D - 141 to 160 knots
E - Above 161 knots

(RAC 9.21)

140
Q

Aircraft Category, Circling Arc

A
A - 1.3
B - 1.5
C - 1.7
D - 2.3
E - 4.5

(RAC 9.23)

Approaches using expanded circling approach areas can be identified by the presence of the “C” symbol on the circling line of minima. (RAC 9.23.2)

141
Q

TC. Hold Speed Limitation Max

A

Up to 6,000’ - 200 knots
Above 6 000 ft up to and including 14 000 ft - 230 knots
Above 14 000 ft - 265 knots

142
Q

RVSM Requirements

A

a) Before entering RVSM airspace, the status of required equipment should be reviewed. The following equipment should be operating normally:
(i) two independent altitude measurement systems;
(ii) one automatic altitude control system; and (iii) one altitude alert system.

b) The pilot must notify ATC whenever the aircraft:
(i) is no longer RVSM-compliant due to equipment failure; (ii) experiences loss of redundancy of altimetry systems; or (iii) encounters turbulence or mountain wave activity that
affects the capability to maintain the cleared flight level.

(RAC 11.7.4)

143
Q

TC. Aircraft Speed Limit. Below 10,000’. Below 3,000’ AGL and 10 NM

A

According to CAR 602.32, no person shall operate an aircraft in Canada:

a) below 10 000 ft ASL at more than 250 KIAS; or
b) below 3 000 ft AGL within 10 NM of a controlled airport and at more than 200 KIAS, unless authorized to do so in an air traffic control clearance.

(RAC 2.5.2)

144
Q

Minimum Oxygen Requirements (Comm 4.11)

A

All crew members and 10 per cent of passengers and, in any case, no less than one passenger

(a) Entire period of flight exceeding 30 minutes at cabin-pressure-altitudes above 10,000 feet ASL but not exceeding 13,000 feet ASL
(b) Entire period of flight at cabin-pressure-altitudes above 13,000 feet ASL
(c) For aircraft operated in an air transport service under the conditions referred to in paragraph (a) or (b), a period of flight of not less than
(i) 30 minutes (Note 2), and
(ii) for flight crew members, two hours for aircraft the type certificate of which authorizes flight at altitudes exceeding FL 250 (Note 3)

(COMM 4.11.2)

145
Q

Acceptable Deviations, Altitude

A

Enroute: 100’ Above, 100’ Below

Mim IFR Alts: 100’ Above, 0’ Below

146
Q

Acceptable Deviations, Airspeed

A

Briefed Approach Speed: 10 KIAS Above, 5 KIAS Below

Vref @ 50 AGL: 10 KIAS Above, 0 KIAS Below

147
Q

Acceptable Deviations, Vertical Speed

A

Enroute and Terminal Area: 3,000 FPM

Once Established on a published portion of an IAP: 1,500 FPM

FAF Inbound: 1,000 FPM

Unpressurized: 1,000 FPM

148
Q

Acceptable Deviations, Glide Path

A

ILS/LPV/SCDA Approach: Half Dot Glide Slope Deflection

149
Q

Acceptable Deviations, Track

A

GPS/VOR/LOC: Half Dot CDI Deflection

NBD Approach: 5 degrees

150
Q

Acceptable Deviations, Bank Angle

A

All Phases of Flight: 30 degrees or less

151
Q

GPS scale enroute, terminal, approach

A

GPS enroute CDI FSD (Full Scale Deflection) is +/- 5 NM for a non WAAS GPS and +/- 2 NM for a WAAS GPS.

Terminal FSD is +/- 1 NM for both WAAS and non WAAS GPS.

2 NM to the FAF 0.3 NM

152
Q

Max Flight Time days/hours
Comm 4.1.17 (2) medevac

A

7 days, 60 hours flight time
30 days, 100 hours flight time (on call)
90 days, 300 hours flight time
365 days, 1,200 hours flight time

153
Q

Time free from duty (Comm 4.25.1)

A

Where the flight crew member is a flight crew member on call, one period of at least 36 consecutive hours within each 7 consecutive days or one period of at least 3 consecutive calendar days within each 17 consecutive days.

154
Q

RVSM Required AC Equipment (4)+(1)

A
  • 2 independent altitude measuring systems
  • 1 secondary surveillance radar transponder with altitude reporting system that can be connected to the altitude measurement system in use for altitude keeping
  • Altitude alerting system
  • Automatic altitude control system. Max error 80 feet/25 meters and that the system must be able to hold altitude within 200ft/60m
  • Preflight compare altimeters to know ground elevation, max error 75 feet
155
Q

Glide Ratio

A

GlideRatio ……….. 2.0 nautical miles for each 1000 feet of altitude. Decrease by 0.2 nautical miles for each 10 knots of headwind.