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Sgt Test > General > Flashcards

General Flashcards

1
Q

When communicating with hearing impaired victim, witness and/or contact the officer should give ________ ___________ to providing the type of communication aid or service requested….

A

Primary Consideration

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2
Q

When does Nevada law permit a person to be placed in civil protective custody?

A

If the person is in a public place unlawfully under the influence of a controlled substance or alcohol and is unable to exercise care for his health or safety or the health or safety of other persons

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3
Q

Felony or Gross Misdemeanor arrests will be limited to what?

A

The most serious charges arising from a single set of circumstances

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4
Q

4 “A”s of MACTAC

A

Assess
Announce
Assemble
Act

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5
Q

S.A.R.A.

A

Scanning, Analysis, Response, Assessment

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6
Q

What is the cornerstone of the department’s pursuit philosophy?

A

The requirement for immediate supervisory authorization for a pursuit and ongoing supervisory control of a pursuit.

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7
Q

When may sick leave be used?

A

1- Illness or Injury
2- Public health requirements
3- Bereavement
4- Medical Emergency

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8
Q

How many hours may be used for a doctor’s appointment?

A

Max of 4 at any one appointment.

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9
Q

How many hours may be used for bereavement?

A

Max of 48 for one occurrence. (Up to 240 with permission from sherif)

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10
Q

What can bereavement be used for?

A

Immediate family, which includes spouse, parent, sibling, grandchild, grandparent, adoptive relationships, current in-laws, step relations,

And all the same for an employee’s spouse, significant other or domestic partner.

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11
Q

Significant other defined

A

Person the employee lives with who they consider a mate.

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12
Q

Who SHALL a supervisor consult with when faced with concern’s reference an employee’s use of sick leave?

A

Labor Relations

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13
Q

How many bonus time hours can an employee accumulate?

A

240

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14
Q

In preventing complaints for discrimination and harassment, supervisors SHALL?

A 
Insist
Monitor
Refrain
Counsel
Stop
Report

“I’m RC stop report”

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15
Q

Complaints of harassment can be received by any of what four (4) parties?

A

1- any supervisor
2- Director of EDS
3- Captain of IAB
4- Office of Human Resources captain or director

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16
Q

In accordance with department policy, Harassment and/or Discrimination - Prevention and Complaint process, when receiving a complaint SUPERVISORS SHALL ….

A

Act immediately
Ensure
Contact
Assist

“A.I. ECA”

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17
Q

Harassment and/or discrimination investigations should be handled within how many days of receipt of complaint?

A

45

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18
Q

In accordance with policy, when investigating a harassment and/or discrimination complaint, SUPERVISORS SHALL…

A 
Coordinate
Document
Take remedial action
Counsel
Identify

“CD TRAC 1”

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19
Q

A Prima Facie case of discrimination or harassment results from a complaint that appears ______, _______, or __________ ___ ______ ___________.

A

True
Valid
Sufficient at first impression

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20
Q

When the employer is responsible for the acts of its employees, this is known as what?

A

Respondent Superior

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21
Q

What are the 2 types of discrimination?

A

Adverse Impact

And

Disparate Treatment

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22
Q

Adverse Impact

A

Unintentional or intentional discrimination to a group

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23
Q

Disparate treatment

A

Intentional discrimination to an individual

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24
Q

Two types of sexual harassment

A

Quid Pro Quo

And

Hostile Work Environment

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25
Q

Under the law, sexual harassment is ____________ or _____________ behavior of a sexual nature which is unwelcome.

A

Deliberate

Repeated

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26
Q

The key difference between a hostile work environment and quid pro quo claim is that in a quid pro quo claim there is _____________ when an employer ______________ to or actually does alter the job conditions for employees who refuse sexual demands.

A

Liability

Threatens

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27
Q

For sexual harassment to be considered a violation of Title VII, it must be both…..

A

Sufficiently severe or pervasive

And

Create an abusive working environment

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28
Q

MACTAC

A 
Multi
Assault
Counter
Terrorism
Action
Capabilities
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29
Q

What are the five (5) MACTAC squad and team missions?

A 
Assault
Rescue
Containment
Force protection
Reconnaissance

“ARC Force Pro Recon”

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30
Q

Phases of MACTAC incident

A

MACTAC incident
MACTAC activation
Control phase
Investigative phase

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31
Q

4 C’s of MACTAC

A

Contain
Control
Communicate
Coordinate

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32
Q

MACTAC Response levels

A

Notification
Alert
Activation

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33
Q

MACTAC SALUTE Report

A 
Size
Activity
Location
Uniform
Time
Equipment
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34
Q

What is the purpose of discipline?

A

To maintain order and efficiency in the organization.

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35
Q

For minor performance issues, the supervisor is required to have at least how many documented counseling sessions before moving to a statement of complaint.

A

2 (two)

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36
Q

How many hours may be held in abeyance?

A

No more than half of any suspension.

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37
Q

The Employee Mediation process (EMP) can be initiated by one of what three sources of referrals?

A

Supervisory
Citizen’s review board
IAB

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38
Q

Who does a supervisor need to communicate with to start the EMP process?

A

IAB Section Lt

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39
Q

What is the level of proof for internal investigations?

A

Clear and convincing

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40
Q

Per federal mandate, what is the level of proof for EDS investigations?

A

Preponderance of evidence

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41
Q

Possible outcomes for a MINOR allegation

A

Written
Less than 40 hours
Transfer

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42
Q

Possible outcomes for a MAJOR allegation

A

40 hours
Demotion
Termination

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43
Q

The different investigative findings by IAB.

A 
Sustained
Not sustained
Unfounded
Exonerated
Misconduct not based on complaint
Policy Failure
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44
Q

All internal investigations should be completed within how many days?

A

90

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45
Q

Who is responsible for the overall administration of the conflict resolution program?

A

IAB

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46
Q

Complaints classified as minor allegations and referred to a Bureau Commander may be handled as ???

A

Formal investigations

Or

Supervisory Intervention

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47
Q

The bureau commander will assign a supervisor to investigate the minor allegation for completion and return to IAB within how many days?

A

30

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48
Q

When may a supervisory intervention be used?

A

When the allegations are minor in nature, not a line item and would be best addressed through coaching, counseling, mentoring, mediation or EIIP.

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49
Q

Who makes the decision to apply supervisory intervention?

A

Bureau commander

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50
Q

Supervisory intervention form takes the place of what?

A

An investigative report

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51
Q

You have been assigned to investigate an SOC from IAB by your bureau commander. Within how many days must you compete your investigation and return your findings IAB?

Who can approve an extension of the investigation?

A

30 days

IAB section Lt

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52
Q

When must the adjudication of complaint process be completed?

And by who?

A

Within 21 days from date of disposition.

By bureau commander at time of incident

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53
Q

What are the two options for addressing sustained complaints?

A

Supervisory intervention

Or

Formal discipline

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54
Q

Within how many months must an employee complete their class for an abeyance option?

A

6 months

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55
Q

What are the three flag colors of EIIP?

Which one requires intervention by a supervisor?

A

Green
Yellow (one incident away)
Red (requires intervention)

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56
Q

What is the key component of EIIP?

A

Early intervention by the first line supervisor

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57
Q

EPP will provide a snapshot of an employee’s work history over how long of a time period?

A

3 years

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58
Q

Who is responsible for the call-out of IA and the criminal investigative unit when there is an allegation of criminal misconduct involving a department employee?

A

Watch commander

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59
Q

What section is notified of in-custody deaths?

A

FIT

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60
Q

Who approves exceptions for attending RBT?

A

Chain of command through Deputy Chief

And

Deputy Chief of professional standards division

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61
Q

The fourth amendment protects an expectation of privacy that must be both ____________ and ______________.

A

Reasonable

Legitimate

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62
Q

Four requirements for standing

A

Authority
Dominion
Control
Access

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63
Q

What are the reasons for conducting crime scene investigations?

A

Identify
Document
Collect evidence

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64
Q

Who will be notified when the crime involves a dignitary or politician?

A

Organized crime bureau, criminal intelligence Lt

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65
Q

Who will the area sergeant notify of all major incidents/scenes?

A

Watch commander

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66
Q

When will a check ride be completed?

A

Within the first week of assignment and documented in UMLV

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67
Q

In the event of a traffic incident, who does the supervisor forward the “Supervisor’s Report of Department Vehicle Incident” form to?

A

Involved member’s Bureau Area Commander

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68
Q

What are the three possible ARB findings?

A

Excusable
Non-preventable
Preventable

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69
Q

Who is required to attend ARB for minor or moderate damage as a result of accidents or incidents?

A

Involved Member

FTO

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70
Q

Who is required to attend ARB for major damage or minor injury as a result of accidents?

A

Involved member

Immediate supervisor

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71
Q

Who is required to attend ARB for substantial bodily harm or death as a result of accidents?

A

Involved member
Immediate supervisor
Bureau commander

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72
Q

According to the President’s Task Force on 21st Century Policing, what are the 6 Pillars

A
  1. Building Trust and Legitimacy
  2. Policy and Oversight
  3. Technology and Social Media
  4. Community Policing and Crime Reduction
  5. Training and Education
  6. Officer Wellness and Safety
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73
Q

Who will be responsible for collecting and securing BWCs from all involved and witness officers from an OIS?

A

FIT

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74
Q

How long are unlabeled or uncategorized recordings from BWCs stored before they auto-delete?

A

45 days

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75
Q

How long are recordings from a homicide stored?

A

20 years

Or until defendant is discharged on a criminal case

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76
Q

How long are recordings from a felony arrest stored?

A

10 years

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77
Q

How long are recordings from a misdemeanor arrest or citation stored?

A

5 years

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78
Q

How long are recordings of a traffic citation with violation captured stored?

A

1 year

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79
Q

How long are recordings of a use of force stored?

A

90 days, unless an arrest is made. Then arrest protocol overrules.

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80
Q

How long are recordings of a pursuit stored?

A

90 days, unless an arrest is made.

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81
Q

When and with whom will supervisors review BWC recordings related to citizen complaints?

Can the citizen see the recording?

A

Supervisors will review the recording AFTER interviewing the complainant, on the scene with the officer.

The complainant will not be allowed to view the recording, but will be referred to Lvmpd.com or the LVMPD BWC dissemination manager

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82
Q

How many shifts of paid leave do employee members of the military receive per calendar year?

A

30

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83
Q

Who must approve excess of 90 calendar days of leave without pay?

A

Division head and sheriff

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84
Q

What are the maximum amount of bank time an employee may use through this career?

A

160 hours

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85
Q

How often will CIT officers be recertified?

A

Every 2 years

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86
Q

What is the object of the plan when taking an ED subject into custody?

A

De-escalate

Calm and gain control

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87
Q

Who establishes an incident command on a MACTAC incident?

A

Area Lt

Or area sergeant in his absence

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88
Q

Who will the supervisor ensure is notified and responds on hostage/ barricade/ random violent acts?

A

Watch commander

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89
Q

Who will you ensure is notified of major incidents and civil disturbances?

A

On-duty/ on-call SWAT supervisor

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90
Q

Who shall be in primary command of all police operations in a protest/ field force extrication situation?

A

Incident commander

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91
Q

What is the purpose of the dispersal order?

Who can authorize it?

A

To inform what laws they are violating and the consequences.

The incident commander authorizes

92
Q

How many times and in what time frame should the dispersal order be read?

A

3 times in 10 minute increments

93
Q

Who all completes an officer’s report upon the completion of a protest?

Where is a copy sent?

A

Primary responding unit
Patrol command post recorder
Saturation team section

Send copy to saturation team supervisor

94
Q

NIMS

A

National Incident Management System

95
Q

ICS

A

Incident Command System

96
Q

What ICS must officers complete within the first year of employment?

A

100, 200 and 700

97
Q

What ICS must sergeants complete upon promotion?

A

300

98
Q

Property and evidence are divided into what 2 types of property?

A

Secure property

And

General property

99
Q

What is secure property?

A

Firearms, drugs, money and jewelry

100
Q

Except for US currency of $_______ and under, all impounded money will immediately be deposited where?

A

$49.99

Into the LVMPD GENERAL FUND

101
Q

What does the acronym CBRNE stand for?

A 
Chemical
Biological
Radiological
Nuclear
Explosive incidents
102
Q

FBI bomb threat card:

Mandatory evacuation distance for pipe bomb:

Preferred evacuation distance:

A

70 ft

1200 ft

103
Q

In regards to ICS, who establishes command?

A

Most qualified officer
Regardless of rank
Physically on scene

104
Q

What is a primary concept of ICS?

A

Delegation

105
Q

What are the top three priorities the incident commander will use to establish incident objectives?

A

Life safety
Incident stabilization
Property preservation

106
Q

In reference to Major Incident and All Hazard Plan policy, who will the supervisor ensure is notified?

A

Area Lieutenant

Or in his absence the

Watch commander

107
Q

What will the incident commander complete at the conclusion of an event? And within how many days?

A

ICS After Action Report

Within 10 calendar days

108
Q

What will the incident command post (ICP) consist of?

A

Patrol supervisor
Fire and medical
PIO

109
Q

FBI bomb threat card:

Mandatory evacuation distance for suicide bomber:

Preferred evacuation distance:

A

110 ft

1,700 ft

110
Q

FBI bomb threat card:

Mandatory evacuation distance for briefcase or suitcase:

Preferred evacuation distance:

A

150 ft

1,850 ft

111
Q

FBI bomb threat card:

Mandatory evacuation distance for car:

Preferred evacuation distance:

A

320 ft

1,900 ft

112
Q

FBI bomb threat card:

Mandatory evacuation distance for SUV/Van:

Preferred evacuation distance:

A

400 ft

2,400 ft

113
Q

FBI Bomb threat card:

mandatory evacuation distance for a small delivery truck:

Preferred evacuation distance:

A

640 ft

3,800 ft

114
Q

FBI bomb threat card:

Mandatory evacuation distance for a container or water truck:

Preferred evacuation distance:

A

860ft

5,100 ft

115
Q

FBI bomb threat card:

mandatory evacuation distance for a Semi-Trailer:

Preferred evacuation distance:

A

1570 ft

9,300 ft

116
Q

Bomb threat investigations should be done in a

A

Low-profile manner

117
Q

Done to protect officers from any possible devices that may be placed to injure, maim, and kill first responders upon their arrival at the scene

A

25-foot and 100-foot searches

118
Q

In a threat against a vehicle, a ________ _________ of the inside and underside of the vehicle will be conducted ________ opening doors, trunk or hood.

A

Visual inspection

Without

119
Q

How many command and control locations will be established when a device or suspected device is located?

What are they called?

A

2

Tactical Operations center

Field command post

120
Q

Who will establish a 360’ perimeter on a foot pursuit?

A

First responding officer not actively engaged

121
Q

A patrol officer responding to the location of a detonated explosive devise will establish at a minimum a _____________ perimeter from any item that they can visually identify as evidence.

A

300 ft

122
Q

Regardless of the size or type of incident, event and/or emergency, the top three priorities that the Incident Commander will use to establish incident objectives will be:

A

Life Safety
Incident stabilization
Property preservation

123
Q

Who shall be in primary command of all police operations in a barricade situation

A

The patrol supervisor in whose area the incident occurs

124
Q

When SWAT commander arrives on a hostage situation, the area patrol supervisor will assume command of what?

A

All logistical and support concerns

125
Q

Who shall assume command of all police operations at the scene of an aircraft incident in a populated or metropolitan area?

A

PD field lieutenant

126
Q

In a use of force incident the government interest must match the ____________________ and ______________ upon an individual’s constitutional rights.

A

Level of force

And

Intrusion

127
Q

If an LVMPD employee is the victim or suspect of a domestic violence, who does the sergeant notify?

A

Area lieutenant and Watch Commander

128
Q

Who can approve vehicle pursuits leaving Clark County?

A

Watch commander

Or

Area lieutenant

129
Q

Who does the on scene supervisor at an aircraft accident scene notify via communications?

A

Health detail

U.S. Department of energy (nuclear incident)

130
Q

In incidents where deadly force is used, who will complete the appropriate reports related to blue team?

A

CIRT

131
Q

Who is the designated as the lead agency for all WMD/CBRNE incidents?

A

FBI

132
Q

Who shall assume command of all police operations on the scene of a CBRNE incident?

A

Area Lieutenant / Incident Commander

133
Q

What are the levels of force?

A

Low level force
Intermediate force
Deadly force

134
Q

_______________ and _________ ____________ will dictate the force option to be employed.

A

Reasonable and sound judgement

135
Q

The department examines all uses of force from what type of standard?

A

Objective

136
Q

What are the 2 parameters of deadly force?

A

Protect himself or others

Prevent escape of fleeing felon

137
Q

What are the elements of deadly force?

A

Ability
Opportunity
Imminent jeopardy
Preclusion

138
Q

Who may authorize use of OC spray in a protest or demonstration in response to imminent threat of harm?

A

Incident commander

139
Q

What are the three levels of LVNR?

A

Minimum
Medium
Maximum

140
Q

Who can authorize the use of a low lethality shotgun in a civil unrest situation?

A

Lieutenant or above

141
Q

As a supervisor, who do you notify when non-deadly force is used?

A

Area lieutenant or watch commander

142
Q

Every member of this department has the responsibility to prevent acts of harassment and/or discrimination through the following acts:

A

Refraining….
Reporting….
Encouraging….

143
Q

Retaliation occurs when an individual has:

A
  1. Complained, assisted, or participated in matters of harassment and/or discrimination
  2. Been subjected to adverse employment actions
  3. A causal link exists between 1 and 2
144
Q

The Citizen’s Review Board has been created by law to:

A

Review internal investigations concerning complaints against commissioned police and corrections officers.

145
Q

When a department member is suspected of misconduct relating to an alcohol or drug abuse allegation _________ will be contacted immediately.

A

IAB

146
Q

First line supervisors will address red flags in the employees EIIP dashboard within

A

2 week period

147
Q

Who will act as the incident commander on deadly force scenes?

A

Supervisor first on scene until relieved by area lieutenant or watch commander

148
Q

Who investigates unintentional discharges of firearms during police operations?

Not during police operations?

A

CIRT

IAB

149
Q

When necessary, who will the field supervisor ensure is notified on CIT/ Special needs incidents?

A

Watch commander

150
Q

Who will be notified on all child related deaths?

A

Homicide Section Lieutenant

151
Q

What are the criteria for a supervisor’s response to a STAR protocol event?

A

Credible info subject is armed (not simulated)

And

Subject is threatening with the weapon

152
Q

Reasonable suspicion testing FSTs will be conducted with at least ______ witnesses.

A

2

153
Q

CLEAR

A 
Current
Limited
Express
Acknowledges
Reevaluates
154
Q

Show-Ups should be done within a relative time frame of _______ following and incident.

A

1-3 hours

155
Q

What qualifies for a Supervisor’s report of Vehicle Incident?

A

Less than $750 in damage
No injuries
No other citizen vehicle involved
Training collisions

156
Q

Show-Ups should be done within a relative time frame of _______ following and incident.

A

1-3 hours

157
Q

What qualifies for a Supervisor’s report of Vehicle Incident?

A

Less than $750 in damage
No injuries
No other citizen vehicle involved
Training collisions

158
Q

Special leave: if a pregnant employee fails to present any required monthly statement within five days of the due date, she may be placed on maternity leave _______ calendar days notice by the department

A

After 3

159
Q

Special leave: continuous leave without pay in excess of 160 work hours for medical reasons must be approved by:

Not related to medical reasons?

A

Bureau Commander

Sheriff

160
Q

Special leave/donation: the minimum donation is _____ hours. Employees must have a balance of _______ after the donation.

A

4

40

161
Q

When responding to a MACTAC incident from the rally point, the Sergeant or team leader will be in the ________ vehicle for command and control

A

Lead vehicle with a designated driver

162
Q

Supervisors do not have _________ access to an officer’s BWC video through LVMPD.evidence.com

A

Direct

163
Q

All personnel within the area command where the attack is occurring will immediately respond to _______, ________, and ________ the incident as quickly as possible.

A

Access, contain, end

164
Q

As a general rule, an employee who takes ______ or more sick leave days per year is considered excessive.

A

8

165
Q

COP officers and crime prevention specialists are assigned to area commands to formulate strategies and promote the use of ________ and _________ resources in problem solving efforts.

A

Traditional and non-traditional

166
Q

When will a CIT after action report be completed?

A 
Threats to others/police
Homeland security concerns
Violence involved 
Weapons involved
Officer safety
167
Q

8 factors from Graham v. Connor

A
  1. Severity of the crime
  2. Whether the suspect poses an immediate threat to officers or others
  3. Whether the suspect is actively resisting arrest or attempting to evade arrest by flight
  4. The influence of drugs or alcohol or the mental capacity of the subject
  5. The time available to an officer to make a decision
  6. The availability of officers/resources to de-escalate the situation
  7. By he proximity or access of weapons to the subject
  8. The environmental factors and/or exigency circumstances
168
Q

How many days does an employee have after an incident of harassment or discrimination occurs to file a complaint?

A

300

169
Q

Statement of Complaint (SOC) will document:

A

Nature of compliant
Person making complaint
Witnesses

170
Q

CIT 1

A

Previous L2K

171
Q

CIT 2

A

Previous violence towards officers or others

172
Q

CIT 3

A

Weapon taken from subject

173
Q

CIT 4

A

Self or doctor diagnosed mental disorder

“P.B.S.P.D”

174
Q

On what firearm are lasers permitted?

A

Handgun

175
Q

What are the exceptions to a search warrant?

A 
Search incident to arrest
Inventory
Consent
Plain view 
Exigency circumstances to include hot pursuit
Vehicle search warrant exceptions
176
Q

When an officer on your squad injured himself, you:

A

Provide the officer with a medical evaluation packet

Ensure the officer completes a occupational illness/injury report

177
Q

Regardless of the size or type of incident, event and/or emergency, the top 3 priorities will be:

A

Life safety
Incident stabilization
Property preservation.

178
Q

Who is the principle advisor to the department on unusual occurrences

A

Emergency management

179
Q

Supervisors responsibilities on foot pursuits

A

Promptly respond to termination point
Direct post pursuit activities
Conduct after action reviews with officers

180
Q

Pinching requirement

A

The officer has a reasonable belief the subject has committed a crime and has been attempting to evade, or has the potential to harm themselves or others

181
Q

According to 21st century task force on policing, a sentinel event is:

A

Anything that stakeholders agree can cause widespread or viral attention or known as a “near miss”

182
Q

A minor suspension ranges from

A

8 - 32 hours

183
Q

During a hostage incident what should the patrol officer take steps to do when arrived

A

Stop the momentum
Slow the action
Save human life

184
Q

Levels of force

A

Low level
Intermediate
Deadly force

185
Q

Levels of resistance

A 
Compliant
Passive
Active
Aggressive 
Aggravated aggressive
186
Q

How many days does a supervisor have to enter a Use of Force Report into IA Pro?

A

30

187
Q

What unit investigates any unintentional discharge of a firearm that occurs during a police operation?

A

CIRT

188
Q

What unit investigates any accidental discharge of a firearm that occurs not as a result of a police operation? (While inspecting a shotgun)

A

IA

189
Q

Which unit investigates an unintentional discharge toward a human being?

A

FIT

190
Q

When dealing with “ED” subjects, what is the object of the plan?

A

De-escalate the situation, calm the individual and gain control of the person.

191
Q

How long do you have to complete an NCF? (No Charges Filed)

A

48 hours

192
Q

When releasing property to a third party when must a supervisor be requested?

A

Cash being released valued over $100

And

Non-cash property being released valued over $250

193
Q

Which DV related crimes do not go to patrol investigations?

A 
Homicide
Fraud
Forgery
Sexual Assault
Child/Elder abuse
194
Q

Offensive verbal or physical conduct that is directed at an individual because of their protected class which is continuous, frequent, repetitive and part of an overall pattern

A

Harassment

195
Q

MACTAC: Activation Phase

Also known as operational phase

A 
4 A's
4  C's
Deployment
Planning
Intelligence
196
Q

MACTAC: Control Phase

A 
ICS Formation
Medical Triage
Neutralize Devices
Rescue
Security
197
Q

MACTAC: Investigation Phase

A 
Investigation
Evidence Gathering
Debriefing
Grief Counseling
Litigation
198
Q

MACTAC Objectives:

A

Immediately switch from community policing/patrolling to a rapid response in minutes

Provide seamless coordination between all responding agencies

Effectively deal with simultaneous incidents

To save lives

199
Q

Upon notification of a domestic violence incident involving a department employee which is still in progress or has just occurred, who do you notify?

A

Watch Commander

200
Q

Pursuits will be discontinued when leaving Clark County unless the decision to continue is approved by:

A

Watch Commander or Field Lieutenant

201
Q

Officers are prohibited from entering into pursuits initiated by other jurisdictions unless:

A

Assigned to the pursuit by a supervisor. A supervisor shall not assign unless the initiating agency requests assistance and provides info showing compliance with pursuit policy.

202
Q

Hostile, intimidating, or offensive verbal or physical conduct that is based on race, color, religion, national origin, gender, age or sexual orientation that is sufficiently severe or pervasive to alter the conditions of an individual’s employment or creates an abuse working environment.

A

Hostile Work Environment

203
Q

Personal appearance, side burns:

A

Will not extend past the middle of the ear and not be wider than one inch.
Will not be conspicuous in manner and styling.

204
Q

Vehicle search warrant exception, PC contraband is in the vehicle, can you search locked containers?

A

Yes

205
Q

What criteria is required for a Vice callout on a “trick roll”?

A

Loss is 50k or more
A toxic material is suspected
Suspect is in custody and the classification of the theft is a felony.

206
Q

If personal property belonging to a homeless individual is disposed of for health and safety reasons (i.e. Damp or soiled with urine or fecal matter), how will this be documented?

A

Officer’s or Arrest Report as appropriate

206
Q

Department material that needs to be translated from English into Spanish (including recorded interviews) will be sent where?

A

Hispanic Interpreter Program

206
Q

TLO

A

Commissioned and non-commissioned LVMPD employees

206
Q

FLO

A

Anyone in the state working closely with public safety or homeland security.

206
Q

28 CFR Part 23 states the collection and maintaining of criminal intelligence information on an individual shall only exist when ____________ ______________ or _____________ ____________ has been established.

A

Reasonable suspicion

Criminal Predicate

206
Q

Minimum info to be included on a SAR (SNCTC notification) from a TLO

A

Event number
Location
Description
Information

“E L D I”

206
Q

On what firearm are magnifiers permitted?

A

Rifles

206
Q

Per Chief Concerns, minorities ________ is a key factor for police to study for possible causes for higher levels of force against minorities.

A

Perception of the police

206
Q

According to the President’s Task Force on 21st Century Policing, what is essential in a democracy?

A

Trust between law enforcement agencies and the people they protect

206
Q

According to the President’s Task Force on 21st Century Policing, procedurally just behavior is based on what 4 central principals?

A
  1. Treating people with dignity and respect
  2. Giving individuals “voice” during encounters
  3. Being neutral and transparent in decision making
  4. Conveying trustworthy motives
206
Q

How many reforms has the LVMPD completed?

A

72

90% of reforms

209
Q

Length of handgun barrel

A

3.5 - 6 in

210
Q

Length of shotgun barrel

A

14-20 in

211
Q

How long are domestic violence arrest BWCs stored?

A

7 years

212
Q

How long are DUI arrest BWCs stored?

A

7 years

213
Q

How long are IAB related BWCs stored?

A

5 years

214
Q

How long are misdemeanor arrest/citations BWCs stored?

A

5 years

215
Q

Who is responsible for uploading BWCs from OIS’s to Evidence.com?

A

FIT

216
Q

On a barricade the first arriving officer will take steps to:

A

Stop the momentum, slow the action, and save human life.

217
Q

When a commissioned member of any law enforcement agency is involved as a suspect or victim of domestic violence who does the sergeant notify?

A

Area Lieutenant

Sgt Test (2 decks)

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