General Flashcards

0
Q

What does ICO stand for?

A

Idle Cut Off

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1
Q

Define: WARNING

A

Operating procedures, techniques, etc, which may result in PERSONAL INJURY OR LOSS OF LIFE if not carefully followed.

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2
Q

How many park brake valves are there in the CT4B?

A

2

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3
Q

How many brake cylinders are there in the CT4B?

A

4 Master cylinders

2 Slave cylinders

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4
Q

What is the strut pressure of the nosewheel oleo strut?

A

65-70 psi

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5
Q

What is the rudders range of motion?

A

30 degrees left and right

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6
Q

What is the fuel capacity in the first CT4B configuration?

A

207L (328lbs)

189L (300lbs) useable

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7
Q

What type of trim does the CT4B use?

A

Spring Bias System

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9
Q

What are the flaps range of motion?

A

Down to 30 degrees

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10
Q

What type of fuel tank does the CT4B have and where is it located?

A

Integral fuel tank

Located from the number 2 rib to the 7th rib, forward of the main spar and up to the leading edge.

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11
Q

Define: CAUTION

A

Operating procedures, techniques, etc, which may result in DAMAGE TO EQUIPMENT if not carefully followed.

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12
Q

Define: NOTE

A

AN operating procedure, technique, etc, which is CONSIDERED ESSENTIAL TO EMPHASISE.

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13
Q

What is the nosewheel steering limit?

A

15 degrees left and right.

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14
Q

What type of prop does the CT4B have?

A

2 blade Hartzell constant speed prop.

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15
Q

What is the Vne and Vno in the CT4B?

A
Vne = 207 KIAS
Vno = 147 KIAS
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16
Q

What is the minimum recommended IAS for canopy jettison?

What is the WARNING associated with the jettison procedure?

A

80 KIAS

WARNING: The canopy-locking handle must be grasped with an underhand grip. If an overhand grip is used, there is a strong possibility of receiving injuries to the shoulder.

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17
Q

What does the line on the trim indicators represent?

A

When the elevator/rudder is at 0 degrees (plus or minus 2 degrees). I.e. The spring bias unit is under zero load.

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18
Q

What is the max RPM and taxiing groundspeed (or wind speed) while the canopy is latched?

A

1800 RPM

30 Knots

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19
Q

Spiral dives in excess of what airspeed are prohibited?

A

110 KIAS

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20
Q

What is the MTOW of the CT4B?

A

2600 lbs (1180 kgs)

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21
Q

How long does the aircraft have to be in straight & level flight before accurate fuel readings can be taken?

A

At least 16 seconds

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22
Q

What are the ailerons range of motion?

A
  1. 5 degrees down

16. 5 degrees up

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23
Q

What is the max permissible ‘G’?

A

+6G to -3G (up to 146 kts reducing linearly to -1G at Vne)

Caveat: Balanced flight and in smooth air only.

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24
Q

How many cargo bags can be fitted in the CT4B and what is their max load each?

A

2 Bags @ 25 kgs each

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26
Q

What is the max power setting for any manoeuvre involving negative G?

A

26” MAP and 2600 RPM

27
Q

What is the work cycle during cruise?

A

Attitude - Lookout - Attitude - Performance

ALAP

28
Q

What is the elevators range of motion?

A

15 degrees down

25 degrees up

29
Q

What tyres are fitted to the main gear and what is their correct inflation?

A

6” x 6” tubeless (Dunlop)

35 psi

30
Q

When may you fly below 500ft above obstacles or water?

General ADF

A

a) When specifically briefed
b) When authorised and flown in accordance with SI’s and then only in designated low flying areas, over open ocean, or along an approved route.

31
Q

How do you operate the brakes on the CT4B?

A

By pressing down on the ‘TOE BRAKES’

32
Q

What are the three detents on the flap selector?

A

UP (0 degrees)
HALF (15 degrees)
DOWN/FULL (30 degrees)

33
Q

What is the approx BASIC weight?

A

1750 lbs

34
Q

Can you / should you reset the alternator isolation circuit breaker if it is tripped?

A

NO

35
Q

Why must balanced flight be maintained above 170 KIAS?

A

Due to the possibility of the canopy frame lifting (up to 7mm) because of aerodynamic loads.

36
Q

What are the Minimum Safe Heights for:

  1. Over congested areas
  2. Elsewhere
A
  1. 1000ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600m of the aircraft.
  2. 500ft above obstacles or water.
37
Q

What is the max duration of any one application of Negative G?

A

25 Seconds

38
Q

Can the rudder trim be operated on the ground?

A

Yes, only for the AFTER START checks.

39
Q

What is the CT4B’s fuel capacity in the second configuration?

A

199L (315lbs)

181L (287lbs) Useable

40
Q

Are flights into known or predicted icing conditions allowed?

A

NO

41
Q

The airspeed must not exceed ___ KIAS during a spiral dive and recovery should be initiated before ___ KIAS.

A

110 KIAS, 100 KIAS

42
Q

What motion can be induced by what control surface in the following:

  1. Longitudinal axis
  2. Lateral axis
  3. Normal axis
A
  1. Roll, Ailerons
  2. Pitch, Elevator
  3. Yaw, Rudder
43
Q

What is the max KIAS for:

  1. Take off flap (half)?
  2. Full flap?
A
  1. 100 KIAS

2. 91 KIAS

43
Q

What OAT at ground level would warrant consideration into not operating the aircraft?

A

38 Degrees Celsius

43
Q

What tyres are fitted to the nose gear and what is their correct inflation?

A

5” x 5” Tubeless (Dunlop)

30 psi

44
Q

What grip must be used when grasping the canopy locking handle?

A

Underhand grip

45
Q

How many volts is the electrical power system (battery)?

A

24 Volts DC

46
Q

What is the maximum crosswind wind component for Takeoff or Landing?

A

20 kts

47
Q

What type of flaps are fitted to the CT4B?

A

Vortex generating fowler flaps

48
Q

What is the critical spin direction?

A

The direction of the spin that is more resistant to spin recovery.
When dual it is to the left.
When solo it is opposite to the station occupied by the pilot (therefore right for BFTS students)

49
Q

How many Amps is the alternator rated to?

A

60 Amps

50
Q

Can the MASTER be switched off with the alternator still on?

A

No. A voltage transient will be produced which may damage the aircrafts avionics and the alternator itself.

51
Q

What can simultaneous operation of the toe brakes do (both instructor and student applying brakes)?

A

May cause fluid to vent from brake master cylinders.
Brakes may bind
Brakes may not work at all if pressure applied from the student and instructor side is equal.

52
Q

State the no pull or push areas on the CT4B?

Hint: There are 7.

A
  1. Outboard ends of propeller
  2. Control surfaces
  3. Dorsal fin
  4. Tail cone
  5. Wing tips
  6. Spinner
  7. Adjacent to landing light and lift detector
53
Q

What is the primary effect, secondary effect, and further effect of:

  1. Elevator
  2. Aileron
  3. Rudder
A
  1. Pitch, Nil, NIl
  2. Roll, Adverse Yaw, Spiral dive
  3. Yaw, Roll, Spiral dive
54
Q

What airspeed is recommended for penetrating areas of severe turbulence?

A

120 KIAS

55
Q

What is the limiting airspeed for max control deflection (Va) for:

  1. Normal flight (MTOW 2600lbs)
  2. Aerobatic flight (MTOW 2400lbs)
A
  1. 121 KIAS

2. 146 KIAS

56
Q

What is the maximum RPM at which the canopy may be open on the ground?

A

1200 RPM

58
Q

What fuel on downwind constitutes a:

  1. Pan-Pan?
  2. Mayday?
A
  1. 40lbs

2. 30lbs

59
Q

Define:

  1. Land as soon as practicable

2. Land as soon as possible

A
  1. Abort the mission, divert if necessary, and land. Landing may be at the planned destination,
    after considering factors such as: criticality of the emergency, enroute weather and terrain,
    radio and navigation requirements, rescue and fire fighting services, and captain’s
    experience.
  2. Abort the mission and land at the nearest airfield or landing area suitable for the safe
    operation of the aircraft
60
Q

What is the Max G range with flaps FULL/DOWN?

A

+2.0 G to 0.0 G

61
Q

According to the BAE OPS manual, how long must you be alcohol free before flying?

A

12 hours minimum