General Flashcards

1
Q

How does temperature affect takeoff distance and performance?

A

The colder the air the denser . Dense air has more air molecules for the propeller to grab and thrust the aircraft forward.
Thus, lower temperatures equal greater aircraft performance. Colder temperatures mean shorter takeoff distance and shorter landing distance required.

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2
Q

How do calculate pressure altitude without using an altimeter?

A

Pressure altitude = (standard pressure- current pressure setting) x 1000 + field elevation.
Example: altimeter30.01 and field elevation 6,000 feet.

Pressure altitude = (29.92- 30.01)x 1000+ 6000’= 5910’

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3
Q

How do you calculate density altitude?

A

Density altitude= pressure altitude+ 120(actual outside air temp(celsius)- standard temp(celcius))

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4
Q

what is camber? Can it be changed?

A

The curvature of the wing

It is changed by extending or retracting flaps

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5
Q

What is chord line?

A

An imaginary straight line connecting the leading and trailing edge of an airfoil.

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6
Q

What is the angle of incidence? Can it be changed?

A

The acute angle formed between the chord line of an airfoil and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. It cannot be changed.

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7
Q

What is center of gravity?

A

The point at which the aircraft would balance if it were suspended at that point.

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8
Q

What are the effects of an aft center of gravity?

A

1.Decreased longitudinal stability
2. Faster cruise speed due to reduced drag.
3.Lower stall speed due to less wing loading.
4.Poor stall/spin recovery
5.Quick rotation on takeoff
6.possibility of flaring too much and tail striking on landing.

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9
Q

What are the effects of forward center of gravity?

A

1.Increased longitudinal(pitch) stability
2.Lower cruise speed due to increased drag.
3.Higher stall speed due to increased wing loading.
4.More back pressure required to maintain level flight.
5.Longer takeoff distance and harder to rotate on takeoff.

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10
Q

What does an increase in load factor have on stall speed?

A

An increase in load factor indicates a heavily loaded plane, resulting in a higher stall speed and making stalls possible at seemingly safe speeds.
A higher Angle of attack is required to generate the required lift. Too high of a load factor can also result in structural failure.

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11
Q

What is load factor?

A

The ratio between the lift generated by an aircraft’s wings at any given time to the total weight of the aircraft, expressed in g’s

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12
Q

What is the relationship between maneuvering speed and weight?

A

1.Maneuvering speed decreases with lighter gross aircraft weight because there is less weight to stabilize the aircraft.
2.light aircraft can get thrown around in turbulence easier.
3.For example, Va may be 100 knots when airplane is heavily loaded, but only 90 knots when the load is light.

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13
Q

What is standard empty weight?

A

Weight of airframe, engines, and operating equipment that have fixed locations and are permanently installed in the aircraft including fixed ballast, hydraulic fluid, unusable fuel and full engine oil.

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14
Q

What is basic empty weight?

A

Standard empty weight plus the weight of all optional and special equipment that have been installed.

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15
Q

What is useful load?

A

Difference between Max Gross weight and basic empty weight; weight of the pilot, copilot, passengers, baggage, usable fuel, drainable oil.

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16
Q

What is payload?

A

The load available for passengers, cargo, and baggage after weight of the pilot, crew, and fuel is deducted from the useful load

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17
Q

What is operational weight empty?

A

Basic empty weight of an aircraft plus weight of the pilot, crew and all fluids necessary for operation such as engine oil, engine coolant, water, and unusable fuel. Excludes usable fuel and payload.

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18
Q

What is usable fuel?

A

Fuel available for flight planning.

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19
Q

What is unusable fuel?

A

Fuel remaining in tanks and fuel lines after all usable fuel has been used. About 2 gallons for our plane.

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20
Q

What is max gross weight?

A

The maximum authorized weight of the aircraft and all of its equipment as specified in the type certificate data sheet(tcsd) for the aircraft

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21
Q

What is max takeoff weight?

A

The maximum weight approved for takeoff.

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22
Q

What is max ramp weight?

A

The maximum weight approved for ground maneuvering, total weight of a loaded aircraft including all fuel. It is greater than the takeoff weight due to the fuel that will be burned during taxi and run-up operations.

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23
Q

Zero fuel weight?

A

The maximum weight, exclusive of usable fuel.

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24
Q

What’s Passenger weight?

A

Weight of all passengers

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25
Q

How does weight affect flight performance?

A

A heavier gross weight results in a longer takeoff roll and shallower climb and a faster touchdown speed and longer landing roll.

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26
Q

Define thrust

A

Forward force produces by powerplan/propeller

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27
Q

Define drag

A

A rearward, retarding force caused by disruption of airflow by the wing, propeller, fuselage, other protruding objects

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28
Q

Define lift

A

The upward force that is produced by dynamic effect of the air acting on the airfoil and acts perpendicular to the flight path.

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29
Q

Define weight.

A

The combined load of the aircraft itself, the crew, the fuel and the cargo or baggage. Pulls the aircraft downward because of gravity.

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30
Q

Define Angle of Attack

A

The acute angle between the chord line of an airfoil and the direction of the relative wind

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31
Q

What is relative wind?

A

Direction of the airflow produced by an object moving thru the air. Relative wind is opposite the aircrafts flight path.

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32
Q

What is bernouli’s principle?

A

Explains how lift is created
Pressure and velocity are inversely related so airflow over the upper surface of an airfoil causes a reduction in air pressure, inducing lift

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33
Q

What is a stall?

A

A rapid or sudden loss of lift caused by the separation of airflow from the wing’s surface brought on by exceeding the critical AOA
A stall can occur at any pitch, attitude or airspeed

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34
Q

Define ground effect

A

Reduction in induced drag due to interference of the ground with airflow around the wing
Exist approximately one wingspan from the ground. Feels like an increase in lift.

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35
Q

What are the two basic types of drag?

A

Parasite drag-caused by the aircraft’s surface deflecting/ interference with the smooth airflow over the plane. Increases with speed, slows the aircraft down.
Induced drag- byproduct of lift, decreases with speed

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36
Q

What are 3 types of parasite drag?

A

1.form drag-the drag created because of the shape of a compartment or the aircraft.
2.skin friction drag-caused by air slowing down as it moves across the surface of the aircraft. Rivets, dirt, or anything that makes the surface less smooth adds to this type of drag.
3.interference drag- caused by the intersecting airstreams from different parts of the aircraft.

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37
Q

What is the airspeed at which induced and parasite drag meet?

A

Vg, glide speed, also known as the lift to drag ratio.

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38
Q

What is p-factor?

A

when the propeller’s blades experience different loads, resulting in different amounts of lift or thrust. This can happen when the aircraft is at a high angle of attack, such as during takeoff or slow flight. P-factor is why right rudder pressure is applied during takeoff

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39
Q

What is adverse yaw and how is it counteracted?

A

Adverse yaw is when the nose of the aircraft tends to turn away from intended direction of turn. The adverse yaw is a result of differential drag and slight difference in velocity of the left and the right wings.
The downward deflected aileron produces more lift and drag. This added drag causes the wing to slow down slightly, resulting in the aircraft yawing toward the wing that has experienced more lift and drag.
Application of the rudder is used to counteract adverse yaw.

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40
Q

What causes a spin, when is a spin most likely to occur?

A

A spin is an aggravated, uncoordinated stall that results in a descending autorotation
A spin is most likely to occur in base to final turn. The aircraft will spin in the direction of the most stalled” wing.

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41
Q

What is the proper spin recovery procedure?

A

P.A.R.E
P-power idle
A-ailerons neutral
R-opposite rudder, which fight more
E- Elevator forward, briskly

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42
Q

What is wake turbulence? How do you avoid it?

A

Wingtip vortices are created when an airplane generates lift. As lift is generated, air spills over the wingtips and creates rapidly rotating whirlpools of air called wingtip vortices or wake turbulence. Wingtip vortices are greatest when generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow, most commonly encountered during takeoff and landings.

To minimize the chances of flying through another aircrafts wake turbulance:

1.Avoid flying through another aircraft’s flightpath
2.When taking off behind another aircraft, rotate prior to the point at which the preceding aircraft rotated.
3.Avoid following another aircraft on similar flight path at an altitude within 1’000 feet
4.when landing behind another aircraft approach the runway above a preceding aircraft’s path and touch down after the point at which the other aircraft’s wheels contacted the runway.

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43
Q

Define the characteristics of class delta airspace

A

1.controlled airspace around smaller airports
2.typically surface to 2,500 msl
3.Dashed blue lines with one layer on vfr sectional charts
4.can revert to class echo at night if atc tower is not operable
5.solo student pilots allowed
6.mode c transponder and adsb not required
7.2way radio contact required
8.speed restrictions:200 knots inside
9.vfr basic weather mins:3sm vis, 1000 above, 500 below, 2000 horizontal

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44
Q

Define the characteristics of class echo airspace

A

1.controlled airspace not classified as a,b,c,d
2.most of airspace over the u.s. is classified echo
3.typically from 1200’ agl to class a, but can begin at surface or 700’ agl
4.may be depicted on vfr sectional chart as dashed magenta line(surface) or faded solid magenta circle(700’ agl) or blue solid faded circle(1,200’ agl)
5.vfr weather minimum requirements:
Below 10,000 msl:basic 3 sm visibility, 1000’ above, 500 below, 2000 horizontal
Above 10,000’ msl:5sm visibility, 1000’ above, 1000’ below, 1sm horizontal of clouds

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45
Q

What are the different types of class echo airspace?

A

Feetso1450
1.federal airways-airways that are the primary means for routing aircraft operating under ifr.
2.extension to surface- class echo extensions that begin at the surface up to the overlying controlled airspace
3. En-route domestic area- class echo that extends upward from a specified altitude and is used for en-route domestic airspace areas to provide controlled airspace.
4.transition area-class echo beginning at 700’ agl, shown as a thick faded magenta line on vfr sectional charts
5.surface area designated to an airport- class echo beginning at ground surface, show as a dashed magenta line on vfr sectional charts
6.offshore-controls incoming and outgoing international flights, extends 12 nm from the coast
7.14,500 class echo beginning at 14,500 msl unless otherwise depicted.

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46
Q

Define the characteristics of class g airspace.

A

1.Uncontrolled, low lying airspace
2.extends from surface to the base of overlying class echo
Vfr weather mins:
Above 10,000 msl: 5sm vis, 1000’ below, 1000’ above, 1 mile horizontal of clouds
Below:
Day: 1sm vis, clear of clouds
Night: basic 3sm vis, 1000’ above, 500’ below, 2000’ horizontal of clouds

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47
Q

Define controlled airspace

A

1.Airspace where air traffic control(atc) services are provided.
2.established to ensure the safe and efficient flow of air traffic. Aircraft operating within controlled airspace are subject to specific regulations and clearance requirements.
3. Within controlled airspace, pilots are required to communicate with atc, adhere to designated routes and altitudes, and obtain clearances for various activities such as takeoffs, landings and changes in direction.
4.Air traffic controllers provide separation services to ensure that aircraft maintain safe distances from each other and assist pilots in navigating through the airspace.

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48
Q

Define uncontrolled airspace

A

1.Airspace where air traffic control(atc) does not have jurisdiction and services are not provided
2.aircraft operating within uncontrolled airspace have greater freedom and responsibility for their own navigation and separation from other aircraft
3. Uncontrolled airspace is typically found in less congested or remote areas, away from major airports and airways. It may include rural or sparsely populated regions, as well as lower altitudes where air traffic is less dense.

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49
Q

What are the vfr takeoff minimums for controlled and uncontrolled fields?

A

Controlled field- 3sm ground vis
Uncontrolled field- 1sm ground vis, clear of clouds

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50
Q

What are isogonic lines?

A

Lines of equal magnetic variation, shown on vfr sectional chart

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51
Q

Define MOA?
Special use airspace.

A

Military operations area- defined vertical and lateral limits established for the purpose of separating certain military training activities from ifr traffic. Shown as magenta hash on vfr sectional charts. Check sectional chart for times of operation. Altitudes affected, and controlling agency. Vfr pilots should exercise extreme caution when flying through, permission is not required to enter.

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52
Q

Define Cfa?controlled firing area
Special use airspace

A

Controlled firing area
Areas of ongoing activities that could be hazardous to non-participating aircraft. Ex:artillery fire. Not depicted on vfr sectional charts

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53
Q

Define Prohibited area
Special use airspace

A

Areas where no civil aircraft is allowed. Shown as blue hash marks on vfr sectional charts. Check sectional for more info.

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54
Q

Define Restricted areas
Special use airspace

A

Areas of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft(ex: artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles) shown as blue hash marks on vfr sectional charts with r-xx. Need permission to enter if area is hot”

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55
Q

Define alert area
Special use airspace

A

Areas of high volume of pilot training or any unusual type of aerial activity. Pilots should be particularly alert in these areas. No permission is needed to enter. Shown as blue hash on vfr sectional chart with a-xx.

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56
Q

Define warning area
Special use airspace

A

Airspace extending 3nm outward from the us coastline that contains activity hazardous to non participating aircraft. The purpose is to warn pilots of potential danger. Shown as blue hash marks on vfr sectional chart with w-xx

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57
Q

Define other’’ airspace
Special use airspace

A

Military training route(mtr), national security area(nsa) temporary flight restriction(tfr), flight restriction zone(frz) wildlife refuge, etc.

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58
Q

What is raim?

A

Receiver autonomous integrity monitoring. It was developed to assess the integrity of the gps signal. If you get a low raim or a no raim gps is not reliable.

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59
Q

What is maneuvering speed?

A

Va The speed at which one abrupt full deflection can be performed without over stressing the aircraft or risking structural damage.115-129mph not shown on tachometer

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60
Q

What is Vr?

A

Rotation speed. 65mph

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61
Q

What is Va?

A

Maneuvering speed, max speed one abrupt maneuver with no structural damage.115-129mph

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62
Q

What’s Vg?

A

Best glide speed. 80mph

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63
Q

What’s Vfe?

A

Max flaps extended speed. 115mph
Top of white line

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64
Q

What’s Vle?

A

Max landing gear extended. Not available for my plane.

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65
Q

What’s Vlo?

A

Max speed landing gear can safely be extended or retracted.

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66
Q

What’s Vlo?

A

Max speed landing gear can safely be extended or retracted.

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67
Q

What’s Vne

A

Never exceed speed. 171 mph
Red line

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68
Q

What’s Vno?

A

Max structural cruising speed. 140mph
Top of green line

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69
Q

What’s Vs0?

A

Power off stall speed landing configuration. 55 mph
(Full flaps, bottom of white line)

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70
Q

What’s vs1?

A

Minimum controllable airspeed. 55mph

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71
Q

What’s Vs?

A

Power off stall speed clean configuration. 64 mph
Zero flaps, bottom of green line

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72
Q

What’s vx?

A

Best angle of climb,74mph. max altitude gain per horizontal distance

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73
Q

What’s vy?

A

Best rate of climb. 85mph
Max altitude gain per time.

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74
Q

Define IAS?

A

Indicated airspeed. The direct reading from the airspeed indicator

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75
Q

Define CAS?

A

Calibrated airspeed. IAS corrected for instrument, position error.

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76
Q

Define TAS

A

True airspeed. Actual speed through the air. CAS corrected for non-standard temp and pressure.

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77
Q

Define indicated altitude?

A

Altitude read directly from the altimeter when it is set to the correct, local altimeter setting

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78
Q

Define true altitude

A

Actual height above mean sea level(msl)

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79
Q

Define Absolute altitude

A

Actual height above ground level(agl)

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80
Q

Define pressure altitude

A

Altitude corrected for non-standard pressure, reading on altimeter if set to 29.92” hg standard datum.

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81
Q

Define density altitude

A

Pressure altitude corrected for non standard temp, the altitude the plane feels like it’s operating based on temperature, pressure and humidity.

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82
Q

What factors affect density altitude?

A

High to low lookout below
Temperature, humidity, pressure.
Less air density less performance.

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83
Q

What are student pilot limitations?

A

1.Cannot carry passengers
2. Cannot carry property or passengers for compensation or hire.
3.Cannot fly for compensation or hire
4. Cannot fly in furtherance of business
5. Cannot fly with a surface visibility of less than 3sm during day. 5sm night.
6. Flight must be made with visual reference to the surface.
7. Cannot fly in a manner contrary to any limitations placed on the pilot’s logbook by an authorized instructor.

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84
Q

What does category mean?

A

the broadest classification of aircraft based on their intended use and operating environment, such as plane, glider, or helicopter.

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85
Q

What does class mean?

A

A more specific division within a category based on design and performance characteristics, such as single-engine or multi-engine.

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86
Q

What does type mean?

A

Refers to a specific make and model of an airceaft, such as boeing 737 or piper cherokee

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87
Q

What are the types of medical certificates?

A

1st class- Airline transport pilots
2nd class- Commercial pilots
3rd class- Private pilots, student pilots

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88
Q

How long is a 3rd class medical valid?

A

Under 40-60 months till end of month
Over 40- 24 months till end of month

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89
Q

What documents must you carry onboard as PIC?

A

Pilots license or student pilots license
Government-issued photo ID
Valid medical certificate
Logbook with proper endorsement, if soloing as student.

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90
Q

When does ppl expire?

A

Never, as long as you remain current vfr takeoff mins. Biannual review and have a valid medical certificate. U can act as PIC

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91
Q

What airplane documents required to be onboard the aircraft?

A

Supplements21.120
Placards91.9
Airworthiness certificate 21.181
Registration 91.203
Radio license(international)
Operational limits found in poh 91.9
Weight and balance 23.1589

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92
Q

Do you need to take your logbook with you as PIC?

A

No, only when solo-ing as student pilot

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93
Q

Does an aircraft registration expire?

A

Yes every 7 years after the last day of the month which it was issued or after a change in ownership. Owner dies, sold from another country.

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94
Q

What is basic med?

A

Alternative way for pilots to fly without holding faa medical

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95
Q

What are the requirements to fly under basic med?

A
  1. Hold a valid drivers license
    2.have held a medical certificate after july 14,2006
    3.complete physical exam with a state licensed physician
  2. Complete medical education course
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96
Q

What are the operating limitations under basic med?

A

1.Cannot carry more than 6 passengers or fly an aircraft that can carry more than 7
2.cannot operate any aircraft that has a maximum certified takeoff weight of more than 12,500 lbs.
3. Must operate only under vfr or ifr, within the u.s. under 18,000 msl and cannot exceed 250 knots
4.cannot fly for compensation or hire
5. Pilots must take education course every 24 calendar months.
Medical exam must be completed by aviation medical examiner or state licensed physician every 48 calendar months.

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97
Q

Difference between proficiency and currency?

A

Proficiency- what is safe, self-determined minimums, do I feel comfortable making this flight?

Currency- what is legal, the minimum faa requirements to be able to fly, can I legally make this flight?

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98
Q

What is required to receive additional endorsements?

A

1.receive and log both ground and flight training by an authorized instructor in the same type of aircraft.
2.receive a one-time endorsement from an authorized instructor.

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99
Q

What is complex aircraft?

A

An aircraft containing retractable gear, flaps, controllable pitch propeller.

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100
Q

What is a high performance aircraft?

A

Aircraft with engine capable of producing more than 200 horsepower

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101
Q

What is an airworthiness certificate?

A

Faa inspection certificate granted to an aircraft after it has been thoroughly inspected and deemed safe for flight

A valid airworthiness certificate is required onboard for every flight visible to all passengers.

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102
Q

Does an airworthiness certificate expire??

A

No as long as inspection requirements are met and the aircraft receives the required maintenance

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103
Q

What are the required inspections for an aircraft? How often is each required?

A

A-airworthiness directives
Urgent or less urgent(within period of time
A-annual/every 12 calendar ms91.409
V-vor/every 30 days/ifronly 91.171
1-100 hour inspection/if for hire91.409b
A-altimeter and pitot static system
Every 24 calendar months91.411
T-transponder/ 24 calendar ms91.413
E- elt every/12 months, 1 hour cumulative use, or 50% of usable battery, unknown use)91.207

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104
Q

Can you fly over an annual inspection?

A

To fly over an annual inspection, you must obtain a special flight permit issued by the FAA for the purpose of flying the aircraft to a location where the annual inspection can be performed

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105
Q

Can you fly over a 100 hour inspection?

A
  1. A 100 hour inspection has a grace period of 10 hours and in those ten hours can only be flown en route to inspection.
  2. Any excess time used for this purpose must be included in computing the next 100 hours of time in service
    3.annual can substitute 100 hour inspection. However, 100 hour inspection cannot substitute an annual inspection.
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106
Q

What’s the difference between a 100-hour inspection and an annual inspection?

A

1.an annual inspection is required for all aircraft every 12 calendar months
2. A 100-hour inspection is only required for aircraft for hire. A 100-hour inspection cannot take the place of an annual inspection but an annual can take the place of a 100-hour inspection
3. An aircraft maintenance technician(amp) can sign off on an 100-hour inspection but an authorized inspector(ai) must sign off on an annual inspection

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107
Q

What is an airworthiness directive?

A

1.used to notify aircraft owners of unsafe post- manufacture conditions under which the aircraft may continue to be operated
2. Essentially a recall for an aircraft part that must be fixed for the aircraft to remain airworthy.

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108
Q

What are the two types of airworthiness directives?

A

Urgent/ requires immediate compliance prior to flight
Non urgent/ requires compliance within a certain period of time

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109
Q

What is a special permit?

A

1.a special airworthiness certificate authorizing operation of an aircraft that does not currently meet applicable airworthiness requirements but safe for specific flight.
2. Used to allow the aircraft to be flown to a location where repairs, alterations or maintenance can be performed; for delivering or exporting the aircraft. Or for evacuating an aircraft from an area of impending danger

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110
Q

What is preventative maintenance?

A

Simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement of small standard parts not involving complex assembly operations. You can find a comprehensive list in FAR part 43 appendix A

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111
Q

What are some examples of preventative maintenance?

A

1.cleaning and greasing landing gear
2.replacing tires, safety belts, fuel lines, batteries, lightbulbs, etc.
3.removing, installing, and repairing landing gear tires
4.replenishing hydraulic fluid.
5.simple fabric patches.

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112
Q

What is an elt? When is an elt not required?

A

Emergency locator transmitter
1.an elt broadcast distictive signals on designated frequencies and is typically auto activated on impact
2.an elt is not required for scheduled flights by air carriers, training flights within 50 nm of the home airport, agricultural purpose aircraft, and aircraft not equipped to carry more than one passenger

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113
Q

When does an elt have to be inspected?

A

Every 12 calendar months and replaced or recharged after 1 hour cumulative use or after half of the battery life is used, also if the use is not know like if you find it turned on.

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114
Q

What is an mel?

A

Minimum equipment lists- document that allows an aircraft to operate safely with some equipment inoperable, as approved by the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA)

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115
Q

Can you fly with inoperative equipment?

A

Yes, as long as the equipment is not mandatory for flight.

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116
Q

What is the proper procedure for inoperative equipment?

A

The inoperative equipment item shall be deactivated or removed and an “inoperative” placard must be placed near the appropriate switch, control, and indicator.

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117
Q

If you discovered the landing light was inoperative prior to a flight, what would you do?

A

If the aircraft is operated for hire, the flight cannot be conducted at night. The landing light must be deactivated by pulling the breaker, and placarded as inoperative”
If the aircraft is not operated for hire, a vfr flight at night can still be conducted
A daytime flight can still be conducted.

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118
Q

If you discovered the altimeter was inoperative prior to a flight, what would you do?

A

Cancel the flight because the aircraft does not meet the minimum equipment requirement for flight

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119
Q

If you discovered the aircraft’s heat system was inoperative prior to flight, what would you do?

A

The equipment must be deactivated by pulling the breaker and placarded as “inoperative”
The flight can still be conducted

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120
Q

What is a prognostic chart?(prog chart)

A

forecast map showing the state of the atmosphere at a future time. Issued 4x per day, 12-24 hour validity, consists of pressure, fronts, precipitation, vfr, mvfr, ifr conditions, turbulence, freezing levels

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121
Q

What is a surface analysis chart?

A

1.analysis of current surface weather
2. Issued every 3 hours
3. Consists of high/low pressure areas, fronts, isobars, temperatures, dew points, wind direction and speed

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122
Q

What is weather depiction chart?

A

1.A computer generated report based on metars and other surface observations that give a broad overview of flying conditions at that time (vfr/ifr, fronts, throughs, squall lines)
2.generated by a computer every 3 hours
3. Designed to be used for flight planning by giving an overall picture of the weather

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123
Q

What is the difference between atis/asos/awos?

A

Atis- automated terminal information service. Recording of the local weather conditions and other pertinent information broadcast on local frequency in a looped format. Updated every hour by a human and given a unique identifier code.
Asos/awos- automated surface/weather observing system. Continuous broadcast of weather conditions by a computer. Reports include date, time, wind direction and speed, visibility, sky condition, temperature, dew point, altimeter setting

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124
Q

What is an airmet?(wa)

A

Airman’s meteorlogical information
1.unscheduled in flight Advisory of significant weather phenomena hazardous to light aircraft.
Ex:moderate icing, turbulence, surface winds of 30+ knots
2.valid for 6-hour period with updates as needed

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125
Q

What are the requirements to become a private pilot?

A

61.103
1.Be at least 17 years of age
2.Be able to read, write, speak, and understand english.
3.Hold a US student pilot certificate
4. Hold at least a third- class medical certificate
5. Receive and log ground and flight training and receive proper endorsements by an authorized instructor.
6.pass the required knowledge and practical test.
7.meet the applicable aeronautical experience requirements from FAR 61.109

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126
Q

How do you remain current as a private pilot?

A

Complete a biannual flight review with an authorized instructor within the preceding 24 calendar months. Can be substituted by a check ride for a rating.
Also there is day and night vfr currencys witch are 3 take offs and landings within the preceding 90 days. They must be to a complete stop at night.

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127
Q

What are the currency requirements for carrying passengers?

A
  1. Within the preceding 90 days, log 3 takeoffs and landings in the same category, class, and type of aircraft.
  2. If carrying passengers at night, takeoffs and landings must be made to a full stop and at night.
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128
Q

What is the definition for night” landings?

A

Night” is one hour after sunset to one hour before sunrise.

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129
Q

What is the definition of night” for flight time?

A

Night” is the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, as published in the air almanac, converted to local time.

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130
Q

What are the privileges of a private pilot?

A

1.can act as pic and carry passengers if passengers currency requirements are met.
2. Can fly for charitable event.
3.Can fly for search and rescue
4. Can act as an aircraft salesman with 200+ hours of pic experience
5. Can tow a glider with proper training and endorsement and over 100 hours of pic

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131
Q

What are the limitations of a private pilot?

A
  1. Cannot act as pic for compensation or hire.
    2.5 cannot carry passengers or property for compensation or hire
  2. Cannot pay less than pro-rata share of the operating expenses involving only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
  3. Can only fly in vfr weather conditions
    61.117 cannot be sic. I cannot fly a plane that requires 2 pilots
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132
Q

What are the three types of airmets?
What does each report?

A

1.sierra-ifr conditions and mountain obscuration
2.tango- moderate turbulance, strong surface winds 30+ knots, and/or low-level wind shear
3. Zulu- moderate icing and freezing levels

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133
Q

What is a sigmet?(ws)

A

Significant meteorological information
1.an unscheduled inflight advisory of non-convective weather that is potentially hazardous to all aircraft. Usually covers 3,000 square miles.
2. Usually Reports weather forecast that are not associated with thunderstorms including severe icing, extreme turbulance, dust storms, and sandstorms, volcanic ash.
3. Valid for 4 hours, unless related to a hurricane, in which case it is valid for 6 hours

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134
Q

What is a convective sigmet?(wst)

A

1.an unscheduled inflight weather advisory issued for hazardous convective weather that affects the safety of all aircraft.
2. Issued for severe thunderstorms with surface winds greater than 50 knots, hail larger than 3/4 inch in diameter. Tornadoes, and embedded thunderstorms, line of thunderstorms.
3. Issued 55 minutes past the hour and valid for 2 hours
4. Special convective sigmet’s issued as needed.

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135
Q

Which is worse airmet or sigmet?

A

A sigmet is always worse as it advises all aircraft of extreme conditions

Airmet only advises light aircraft.

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136
Q

What is a metar?

A

Meteorological aerodrome report
1. An observation of current surface weather reported in a standard international format
2. Issued hourly at 55 minutes past the hour or anytime special weather events occur(speci)
Ex: metar kggg 161753z auto 14021g26kt 3/4 sm +trsa

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137
Q

What is a taf?

A

Terminal aerodrome forecast
Issued 4x per day, valid 24 hours, Reports forecasted winds, visibility, sky conditions and weather in vicinity of airport5nm

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138
Q

What is a pirep?
What are the two types?

A

Reports of actual in flight conditions issued by pilots.
1. The two types are
1.ua- routine report
2.uua- urgent report
2. Reports include location, time, altitude, sky cover, visibility, observed weather, cloud layer, temperature, wind, possible turbulence, and potential icing.
Pireps are available from atc, fss, aviation weather.gov

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139
Q

What is the cause of all weather?

A

Uneven heating of the earths surface

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140
Q

What are the three main layers of the atmosphere?

A

Troposphere, tropopause, stratosphere

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141
Q

What is wind the result of?

A

Differences in pressure in The atmosphere.

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142
Q

What is wind shear?

A

a change in wind speed and/or direction over a short distance

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143
Q

What are the characteristics of stable air?

A

1.calm
2.stratiform clouds
3.smooth air
4. Steady or continuous precipitation
5. Poor surface visibility

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144
Q

What are the characteristics of unstable air?

A

1.cumulous clouds, or clouds with vertical development
2. Showery precipitation
3. Turbulence
4. Good surface visibility
5. Strong surface winds

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145
Q

What is an airmass?

A

a large body of air with a relatively uniform temperature and humidity that covers thousands of square miles or more. Air masses take on the characteristics of their source region, which can be polar regions, cold oceans, tropical oceans, or deserts. The longer an air mass stays over its source region, the more likely it is to adopt the properties of the surface below

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146
Q

What is a front?

A

The transition zone between two types of air masses

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147
Q

Define cold front.

A

1.Cold-blue triangles- cold mass(stable air) advances under and replaces body of warmer air(fast moving, blue triangles on weather chart)
2.Ahead of cold front, towering cumulus clouds and cumulonimbus clouds may form. Severe weather is possible and may include rapid development of heavy rain showers, lightning, hail, and/or tornadoes. Eventually, good visibility prevails once the cold air dominates the area.

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148
Q

Define warm front

A

1.Warm front-red circles-warm mass (unstable air) advances over and replaces body of colder air(slow moving, red circles on weather chart)
2. Light to moderate precipitation in the form of rain, sleet, snow, or drizzle often along with poor visibility.

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149
Q

Define stationary front.

A
  1. Stationary front-Red circles and blue triangles- when the forces of two fronts are relatively equal and the masses remain stationary(alternating red circles/blue triangles on weather chart)
  2. Mix of cold and warm front conditions
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150
Q

Define Occluded front

A

1.Purple circles and triangles- fast moving cold front catches up to a slow moving warm front(purple alternating circle/triangle on weather chart)
2. Mix of cold and warm front conditions

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151
Q

What is a trough?

A

Elongated area of low pressure, rising air

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152
Q

What is a ridge?

A

Elongated area of high pressure, descending air

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153
Q

What is an isobar?

A

Solid lines on a weather chart depicting lines of equal pressure. Lines closer together indicate steep pressure gradient and strong winds

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154
Q

What are the general characteristics of a low pressure area?

A
  1. Counter-clockwise inward rotation with rising air
  2. Cyclonic
    3.poor visibility
  3. Rain, fog, thunderstorms, cloudiness
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155
Q

What are the general characteristics of a high pressure area?

A

1.clockwise outward rotation with descending air
2.dry
3.good weather clear skies

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156
Q

Define ceiling

A

Lowest layer of broken or overcast clouds

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157
Q

What causes turbulence?

A

atmospheric pressure, jet streams, air around mountains, cold or warm weather fronts, and thunderstorms

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158
Q

What three ingredients must be present for a thunderstorm to develop?

A

Sufficient water vapor, unstable lapse rate and lifting action

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159
Q

Define lapse rate. What is the standard lapse rate?

A
  1. Lapse rate is the change in temperature over altitude.
  2. The standard temperature lapse rate is a temperature decrease of approximately 3.5 degrees farenheit or 2 degrees celsius per 1000’ in the troposphere.
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160
Q

What are the three stages of a thunderstorm?

A

Cumulus- initial updraft of air

Mature- falling precipitation , convective activity(most turbulent stage)
Clouds cannot hold the moisture and rain begins

Dissipating- large downdrafts as the storm rains itself out

Stay 20 nm away from thunderstorms because of hail

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161
Q

What is a microburst?

A

An extreme version of wind shear, characterized by an extreme downdraft up to 6’000 feet per minute

Very dangerous to all pilots and all aircraft.

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162
Q

What is a squall line?

A

A narrow band of active thunderstorms, often forming on or ahead of a cold front.

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163
Q

What is an embedded thunderstorm?

A

A thunderstorm hidden” in the clouds

When vertical clouds can be obscured by other cloud formations and are not always visible from the ground or while in flight.

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164
Q

What is dewpoint?

A

The temperature at which air gets saturated
2. Moisture begins to condense out of the air in the form of fog, frost, clouds, rains, snow

165
Q

What is induction icing?

A

Related to carb icing, venturi forces air through smaller hole and temperature drops as it passes ice forms with favorable conditions ex:low rpms, temps of 50 degrees or more, low temperature

166
Q

Define instrument icing

A

Pitot tube gets blocked with ice, static port gets clogged rendering the instruments inaccurate

167
Q

What are the three types of structural icing?

A

Clear- smooth, hard, glossy, transparent ice forms after the impact of large drops spread and freeze sheet-like over an airfoil.
Rime- brittle, frost-like ice created by small drops that freeze rapidly before a raindrop has time to spread accross the airfoil
Mixed- a mixture of clear ice and rime ice

168
Q

How does structural icing affect performance?

A

Structural icing increases weight and drag, hence decreasing lift and thrust, reducing performance

169
Q

What are the four types of fog?

A

1.radiation fog
2.advection fog
3.upslope fog
4.steam fog

170
Q

Define radiation fog

A

Forms on clear nights with little or no wind and only over land. Heat absorbed by earth during the day is radiated into space. Ground surface cools and humidity reaches 💯 and fog forms. Always found at ground level, stationary, reduces visibility. Burns off once the sun rises and temperature increases.

171
Q

Define advection fog

A

Wind blows moist, warm air over colder land or water. The air mass is cooled from below and the temp is reduced to the dewpoint. Common in coastal areas where sea breezes can blow the air over cooler landmasses.

172
Q

Define upslope fog

A

Light wind pushes moist, stable air up a slope to level where the air becomes saturated and condensation occurs, covering a large area.

173
Q

Define upslope fog

A

Light wind pushes moist, stable air up a slope to level where the air becomes saturated and condensation occurs, covering a large area.

174
Q

Define steam fog

A

also known as evaporation fog, frost smoke, sea smoke, or Arctic sea smoke, is a type of fog that forms when cold air moves over warm water

175
Q

What are the vfr cruising altitudes?

A

Magnetic course 0-179
Odd thousand’ + 500’msl
(3500’, 5500’, 7500’)
Magnetic course 180- 359
Even thousand’ + 500’msl
(4500’, 6500’, 8500’)

176
Q

What are the minimum safe altitudes?

A

Anywhere- an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing that can be executed without endangering persons or property on the ground.
Congested areas- 1,000’ above the highest obstacle, 2,000 horizontal separation
Uncongested areas- 1,000’ above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2000’
Other than congested areas- 500’ away from any person, vessel, vehicle, structure
Wildlife refuge area- 2’000’ agl

177
Q

What’s cfit?

A

Controlled flight into terrain
Unintentional flight into the ground/mountain/ obstacle caused by inadequate situational awareness

178
Q

What is magnetic variation?

A

The difference between magnetic north and true north

Vfr sectional charts use true north, while the aircraft’s compass uses magnetic north

179
Q

What’s magnetic deviation?

A

The aircraft specific magnetic compass error due to installation and effect of the aircraft’s magnetic field on the compass

180
Q

What’s the difference between course and heading?

A

course is the intended direction of travel, while heading is the direction the aircraft is currently pointed

181
Q

What’s the difference between course and heading?

A

Course
The intended direction of travel for a aircraft over earth.The path the vessel follows is called a track.
Heading
The direction the nose of an aircraft is pointed. The heading may not be the same as the direction the craft is actually traveling

182
Q

Define TC(true course)

A

Intended path of the aircraft over the ground

183
Q

Define TH(true heading)

A

Direction in which the nose of the aircraft points during flight, true course corrected for wind

184
Q

Define MH(magnetic heading)

A

True heading corrected for variation

185
Q

Define CH(compass heading)

A

Magnetic heading corrected for deviation

186
Q

Define MC(magnetic course)

A

True course corrected for variation

187
Q

How do you convert true north to magnetic north?

A

Determine the magnetic variation using a vfr sectional chart
1.true course + magnetic variation:magnetic course

2.west is best so you add magnetic variation
3.east is least so you subtract the magnetic variation

188
Q

What is zulu time?

A

Universally coordinated time or utc
All time zones are based off this reference: the entire world on one standard time.

189
Q

What is the purpose of filing a vfr flight plan? How do you activate and close a vfr flight plan?

A

Helps rescue workers find your aircraft in an emergency

You can file a vfr flight plan by calling 1-800-wx-brief, using 1800wxbrief.com, or in the air via the radio frequency found on a vfr sectional chart.

190
Q

When is a vfr flight plan required?

A

Vfr flight plans are not required by regulation. However, it is a good operating practice since the information contained in the flight plan can be used by search and rescue in the event of and emergency.

191
Q

Define characteristics of class A airspace?

A

Controlled airspace from 18,000’ msl to flight level(fl) 600
1.not depicted on vfr sectional charts
2.ifr only
3. Standard pressure setting of 2992
3.5 clearance required to enter
4. 2-way radio,Mode-C transponder, and ADS-B Out.
5. Speed limit is mach1
6. No weather minimums

192
Q

Define characteristics of class Bravo airspace

A

1.surrounds busiest airports
2.typically surface to 10,000’ msl. Solid blue lines with two or more layers on vfr sectional charts(upside down wedding cake)
3. Must be cleared to enter the bravo
4. Two way radio communication, adsb out and mode c transponder within mode c veil.
5. Student pilots may enter with endorsement.
6. Speed restrictions: 250 knots within, 200 knot limit below or through corridor of bravo
7. Vfr weather requirements:
3sm visibility, clear of clouds

193
Q

Define characteristics of class charlie airspace

A
  1. Controlled airspace around airports not busy enough to require class b
  2. Typically surface to 4,000’ msl. Inner core is 5nm radius, outer core is 10 nm radius.usually extends from 1’200 to 4’000’
    3.solid magenta lines with two layers on vfr sectional charts
    4.must establish two way radio communication before entering , have adsb-out, mode c transponder
  3. Student pilots allowed
  4. Speed restrictions: 200 knots within 4nm radius, 250 knots everywhere else.
    Vfr weather requirements
    Basic:3sm1000above500below2000horizontal of clouds
194
Q

Define detonation and preignition. What should you do if either happens in-flight?

A

Detonation- uncontrolled spontaneous , explosive ignition of the fuel- air mixture within the cylinder’s combustion chamber. Caused by excessive temps, low-grade fuel, and high-pressure settings.
Preignition- Fuel-air mixture ignites prematurely, usually caused by a residual hot spot in the combustion chamber.
If either happens in- flight, richen mixture and pitch for higher airspeed to cool it down and land immediately.

195
Q

Describe your aircrafts landing gear

A

Fixed tri-cycle landing gear with hydraulically activated disc brakes

196
Q

Describe your aircraft’s fuel system.

A

2-25 gallon tanks
50 gallons of total fuel
48 gallons of usable fuel
2 gallons of unusable fuel

Vented, sucked in by engine driven fuel pump and one electric driven fuel pump used on takeoff and landing. Fuel tank selector must be switched every 20-30 mins and a mixture control that controls how lean or rich the fuel/air ratio is.

197
Q

What type and how much oil does your aircraft require?

A

6-8 quartz of 100w ashles oil

198
Q

What is the purpose of the fuel pump?

A

Manages the flow of fuel to the engine

199
Q

What is the purpose of oil in the engine?

A
  1. Lubricates-greases all of the engine’s moving parts
  2. Cools- Reduces friction and removes heat from cylinders
  3. Seals- creates seals between the cylinder walls and pistons
  4. Cleans- carries away contaminants inside of the engine.
200
Q

Describe the electrical system in your aircraft.

A

Includes a 14 volt, 60 amp alternator. A 12 volt battery and a voltage regulator. An over-voltage relay and a master switch relay. fuses and circuit breakers.

201
Q

What does the electrical system power

A

1.Radio/avionics/gps
2.turn coordinator
3.pitot heat
4.interior& exterior lights
5. Fuel gauges/ pressure gauges
6. Electric fuel pump
7.stall warning

202
Q

Why is the battery voltage less than or equal to the system voltage?

A

The difference in voltage keeps the battery charged. The generator/ alternator voltage output should be higher than the battery voltage.

203
Q

What does the ammeter tell us.

A

The ammeter monitors the performance of the aircrafts electrical system.

It shows if the alternator/ generator is producing an adequate supply of electrical power and indicates whether or not the battery is receiving an electrical charge.

204
Q

What is the purpose of the voltage regulator?

A

controls the rate of charge to the battery by stabilizing the generator or alternator electrical output.

205
Q

How does the pitot static system work?

A

The pitot static system measures the pressure differential between the static air pressure and the dynamic pressure due to the motion of the aircraft through the air.

206
Q

What instruments operate on the pitot static system?

A

Airspeed indicator(asi)
Vertical speed indicator(vsi)
Altimeter

207
Q

What is the purpose of the alternate static source?

A

Provides static pressure if the primary static source becomes clogged or blocked

208
Q

If an altimeter is set to 29.92”, moves to 30.22, what change would you note?

A

1.when the altimeter is setting moves from 29.92 to 30.22, the indicated altitude increases by 300 feet
2. The altimeter-indicated altitude moves in the same direction as the altimeter setting and changes 1,000 feet for every 1” or mercury

209
Q

What instruments utilize the properties of a gyroscope for their operation?

A

Turn coordinator
Heading indicator
Attitude indicator

210
Q

How does the carburetor heat system work?

A

Carburetor heat is an anti-icing system that preheats the air before it reaches the carburetor and is intended to keep the fuel air mixture above freezing to prevent the formation of carb ice.

211
Q

Why do we experience a drop in rpm when applying carb heat?

A

1.Engine rpm drops because the heated air is less dense than the outside air that had been entering the engine, thus enriching the mixture and causing a decrease in engine performance.
2. When ice is present in an engine and carb heat is being used, there is a decrease in rpm, followed by a gradual increase in rpm as the ice melts. The engine should run more smoothly after the ice has been removed.
3. If ice is not present, the rpm decreases and then remains constant.

212
Q

What are the supplemental oxygen requirements?

A

Altitudes 12,500-14,000 msl
Pilot and flight crew must be supplied oxygen after 30 minutes accumulated
Altitudes 14,000+ msl
Pilot and crew must be supplied oxygen the entire flight
Altitudes 15,000+ msl
Everyone supplied supplemental oxygen

213
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

Lack of oxygen to vital organs

214
Q

What are the symptoms of hypoxia?

A
  1. Headache
    2.lightheadedness
    3.dizziness or drowsiness
  2. Turning blue
  3. Euphoria
    6.loss of coordination
    7.decreased reaction time
    8.typically experienced between 12,000’ and 15,000’
215
Q

What is the treatment for hypoxia?

A
  1. Get to a lower altitude immediately
    2.perform emergency descent
    3.use supplemental oxygen
216
Q

What are the symptoms and treatments of hyperventilation?

A

Symptoms- lightheadedness, dizziness, visual impairment, loss of consciousness
Treatments- slow and control the breathing rate by talking out loud or singing. You can also breathe into a bag but it might be dangerous at high elevation.

217
Q

How can pilot avoid sinus block?

A

Sinus block can be avoided by not flying with an upper respiratory infection or nasal allergic condition

218
Q

What is carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

1.Carbon monoxide poisoning occurs from inhaling carbon monoxide fumes and prevents the body from using the oxygen properly
2.carbon monoxide(co) is a colorless and odorless gas produced by all internal combustion engines.
3. Co prevents hemoglobin in blood from carrying oxygen to the cells, resulting in hypemic hypoxia.

219
Q

What are the symptoms and treatments of carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

Symptoms- headache, blurred vision, dizziness, drowsiness, loss of muscular power
Treatment- take immediate corrective action including turning off the heater, opening fresh air vents and windows, and using supplemental oxygen.

220
Q

Why and how long should a pilot or passenger who intends to fly wait after scuba diving?

A

Scuba diving subjects the body to increased pressure, which allows more nitrogen to dissolve into the body’s tissues and fluids.
A pilot or passenger who intends to fly should allow the body sufficient time to rid itself of excess nitrogen absorbed during diving
1.if the dive requires a controlled ascent: wait 24 hours
2. If the dive does not require a controlled ascent:
1.wait 12 hours before going to flight altitudes up to 8,000’
2. Wait 24 hours before going ip to flight altitudes above 8,000’

221
Q

What is dcs? What are the symptoms and treatment?

A

Altitude-Induced decompression sickness
condition that occurs when gas bubbles form in the body due to exposure to low barometric pressures, known as the “bends”
Symptoms- localized deep joint pain
Treatment- use supplemental oxygen immediately, begin emergency descent, keep affected joint still, seek medical assistance.

222
Q

What is aeronautical decision making?

A

A systematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best course of action in response to a given set of circumstances.

Characterized by the use of decision making skills, situational awareness while managing available resources, exercising sound judgement, and executing timely decisions.

223
Q

What are the two defining elements of aeronautical decision making?

A

Hazard and risk

224
Q

What are the hazardous attitudes and their antidotes?

A

M- macho- i can do it- taking chances is foolish
I- impulsivity- do it quickly- not so fast. Think first
R- resignation- whats the use?- i’m not helpless. I can make a difference
I- invulnerability- it won’t happen to me- it could happen to you
A-antiauthority- don’t tell me- follow the rules, they are usually right.

225
Q

What are the ways we can mitigate risk?

A

Use the preflight checklist(imsafe, pave)

226
Q

Define the pave checklist

A

P-pilot- am I ok to fly?(imsafe)
Are my certificates, ratings current?
Am I proficient?
A-aircraft-is the aircraft airworthy?(aaviate) do I have the proper documentation?(sparrow)
Is it equipped for intended operation?day(atomatoflames)night(flaps)
Can it carry intended payload with enough fuel for trip?
V- enVironment- weather
(Nwkraft)
E- external pressures- are my employers or passengers pressuring me to fly?

227
Q

What is the purpose of flaps?

A
  1. Flaps increase lift and induced drag for any angle of attack
  2. Flaps provide a compromise between high cruising speed and low landing speed because they may be extended when needed and retracted when not.
  3. Flaps provide greater lift for takeoff and greater drag for landings
228
Q

What does normally aspirated mean?

A

An internal combustion engine in which air intake depends solely on atmospheric pressure and does not have forced induction through a turbocharger or a supercharger.

229
Q

What does the throttle control?

A

Amount of fuel the engines receives. Controls the engine’s power output.

230
Q

What type of propeller does your engine have?

A

Fixed pitch 74 inch seinsnich two blade propeller

231
Q

What does the mixture control?

A

adjust the amount of gasoline in the air-fuel mixture to ensure proper combustion. As altitude increases, the density of air entering the carb decreases, while density of fuel remains the same. This creates a progressively richer mixture. Remember: - a lean mixture favors the overheating of the engine and the appearance of detonation phenomena, - a rich mixture leads to high consumption and clogging of the engine, loss of power.

232
Q

Define imsafe

A

I-illness- am I sick?
M-medication- have I take any medication and if so have I checked with the ame?
S-stress- am I under any physical or psychological stress?
A-alcohol-have I consumed any alcohol within the previous 8 hours?if so, am I under the legal limit which is 0.04 bac
F-fatigue- have I had enough rest before this flight?
E-eating/emotional- am I hungry? Well hydrated, am I cranky?

233
Q

Define imsafe

A

I-illness- am I sick?
M-medication- have I take any medication and if so have I checked with the ame?
S-stress- am I under any physical or psychological stress?
A-alcohol-have I consumed any alcohol within the previous 8 hours?if so, am I under the legal limit which is 0.04 bac
F-fatigue- have I had enough rest before this flight?
E-eating/emotional- am I hungry? Well hydrated, am I cranky?

234
Q

What is the purpose of using a checklist?

A

Checklists provide a standardized method of verifying aircraft configuration and logical sequence for accomplishing tasks inside and outside the cockpit.

Checklists aid in memory and help ensure critical items necessary for safety of operation are not overlooked or forgotten in an emergency.

235
Q

What preflight actions are required before each flight? What must you know?

A

Nwkraft
N-notams-read the notams
W-weather-check area forecast/current
K- known atc delays
R-runway lengths
A-alternate airports in case of emergency
F- fuel- day30m extra, night 45m extra
T-takeoff/landing distances required

236
Q

What is the passenger briefing list?

A

Safety
S-no smoking, seatbelts/shoulder harness fastened for taxi/takeoff/landing
A-air vent location, passenger comfort, all environmental controls
F-fire extinguisher, location & operation
E-exit doors, location & operation
Electronic devices in airplane mode.
T-traffic, scanning, spotting, notifying pilot
Y- your ?s, no dumb ?s

237
Q

When must seatbelts and shoulder harness be worn? Who is in charge of ensuring this?

A

Everyone on board the aircraft must be fastened for taxiing, takeoff, and landing

The pic must ensure all passengers and crew are briefed on seatbelt and safety harness(if installed) requirements.

238
Q

What is a notam?

A

Notice to air missions
Time critical aeronautical information that is either temporary or not known in advance to be printed on charts or in publications

239
Q

Define the four types of notams.

A

Notam(delta)- airport and navigation facilities, runway and taxiway closures, personnel or equipment near or crossing runways, airport lighting, etc.

FDC notam-flight data center, amendments to published charts and publications, temporary flight restrictions, satellite-based systems, special notes.

International notam- distributed to one or more countries. Published in acao format.

Military notams-pertaining to the US armed forces; airports and navigation aids that are part of the national airspace system

240
Q

Define runway threshold markings

A
  1. Runway threshold marking identifies the beginning of the runway that is available for landing
  2. Runway threshold markings typically consist of eight longitudinal stripes of uniform dimension symmetrically placed about the runway centerline
241
Q

define runway threshold

A
  1. A runway threshold delineates the beginning of the runway that is available for landing
  2. A threshold bar is 10 feet wide and extends across the width of the runway
242
Q

What do you say if you unexpectedly enter ifr

A

Atc cessna 123 i am a non ifr pilot in imc conditions requesting vectors to the nearest vfr airport.

243
Q

Define a displaced runway threshold

A
  1. A threshold located at a point on the runway other than the designated beginning of the runway
  2. Displacement of a threshold reduces the length of runway available for landings
    3.the portion of runway behind a displaced threshold is available for takeoffs in either direction and landings from the opposite direction
    4.a ten foot white threshold bar is located across the width of the runway at the displaced threshold. White arrows are located along the centerline in the area between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold.
244
Q

What do 3 white arrows leading to a solid white bar on a runway indicate?

A

1.the area is available for taxiing and takeoff but may not be used for landing.
2.white arrows are located along centerline in the area between the beginning of the runway and the displaced threshold.

245
Q

Define the runway aiming point marking.

A

1.A runway marking that serves as a visual aiming point for landing aircraft.
2.consists of one broad white stripe on each side of the runway centerline approximately 1,000 feet from the landing threshold.

246
Q

Define the touchdown zone markings.

A

1.identifies the touchdown zone for landing operations and is coded to provide distance information in 500 foot increments.
2.these markings consists of groups of 1,2,3 rectangular bars symmetrically arranged in pairs about the runway centerline.

247
Q

Define lahso

A

Land and hold short operations
1.land and hold short of an intersecting runway, an intersecting taxiway, or some other designated point
2. Lahso is an air traffic control procedure that requires pilot participation to balance the needs for increased airport capacity and system efficiency, consistent with safety. Pilots may accept a lahso clearance provided the pic determines that the aircraft can safely land and stop within the available landing distance.
3. Student pilot or pilots not familiar with lahso should not participate in the program. The pic has the final authority to accept or decline any lahso clearance. Pilots are expected to decline a Lahso clearance if they determine it will compromise safety

248
Q

How to obtain wind correction angle?

A

Wind angle(heading-wind direction) x wind speed/ground speed=wca
Ex:300@gs90knots
230
@20knot

230-300=70x20 =1400/90=15wind correction angle

249
Q

What is runway incursion?

A

Any occurrence in the airport, runway environment involving an aircraft, vehicle, person, or object on the ground that creates a collision hazard or results in a loss of required separation with an aircraft taking off, intending to take off, landing, intending to land.

250
Q

What are the 5ws of radio comm?

A

1.who you’re talking to
2.who you are
3.where you are
4.what you want
5.with information (atis)

251
Q

What does lineup and wait mean?

A

Taxi onto the runway and await takeoff clearance

Used by atc when a takeoff clearance cannot be issued immediately due to traffic or other reasons

252
Q

Why are atc gun signals important?

A

Used by atc to give information to aircraft that are not contactable by radio

253
Q

Define atc light gun signals and their meaning

A

Steady green
On the ground-cleared for takeoff
In the air-cleared to land
Flashing green
Ground-cleared for taxi
Air-return for landing
Steady red
Ground-stop
Air-give way to other aircraft and continue circling
Flashing red
Ground-taxi clear of active
Air-airport unsafe,do not land
Alternating green/red
Exercise extreme caution
Flashing white
Ground- return to starting point

254
Q

What should you do if you lose your transponder?

A

1.Remain outside or above controlled airspace until direction and flow of traffic can be determined.
2.if transmitter and/or receiver are inoperable, advise the tower of the aircraft type, position, altitude and intention to land thru radio comm.
3. Enter pattern, report your position as appropriate, and watch for light signals from the tower

255
Q

What should you do if you lose radio?

A

1.during daylight hours, atc transmissions may be acknowledged by rocking the wings and at night by blinking the landing light.
2.squawk 7600(lost communications) circle the field, and wait for the light gun signal.

256
Q

How does ntsb define an accident?

A

Someone is seriously injured or killed and/or the aircraft receives substantial damage between the time a person boards the aircraft and the time they disembark

257
Q

How does ntsb define incident?

A

An occurrence other than an accident, associated with the operation of an aircraft, which affects or could affect the safety of operations.

258
Q

When is immediate notification of ntsb required?830.5

A

1.1aircraft accident
1. Flight control system malfunction or failure
2. Inability of any required flight crew member to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness
3.failure of any internal turbine engine component that results in the escape of debris other than out the exhaust path
4. In flight fire
5.aircraft collision in flight.
6. Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $25,000 for repair(including materials and labor) or fair market value in the event of total loss, whichever is less

259
Q

How does ntsb define a serious injury?

A
  1. Requires hospitalization for more than 48 hours, within 7 days from the date the injury was received.
  2. Results in a fracture of any bone(except simple fractures of fingers, toes, or nose)
  3. Causes severe hemorrhages, nerve, muscle, or tendon damage
    4.involves any internal organ
  4. Involves 2nd or 3rd degree burns, or any burns affecting more than 5% of body surface
260
Q

What is vasi?

A

Visual approach slope indicator
1.consists of light units arranged in bars to indicate if a pilot is above or below or below the glide path
White over white-too high
Red over white- on glide path
Red over red- too low

261
Q

What is papi?

A

Precision approach path indicator
1.consists of light units arranged in a single bar to indicate if a pilot is above or below the glide path
All white- too high
Half white half red-on glidepath
All red-too low

262
Q

What color are taxiway color lights?

A

Omnidirectional taxiway lights are blue in color and outline the edges of the taxiway

263
Q

What color are runway edge lights?
What color are runway end lights?

A

Runway edge lights are white. Runway edge lights are used to outline the edges of the runway at night or during low visibility conditions. runway end lights are red. They mark the end of runway.

264
Q

What are reils?

A

Runway end identifier lights
1.installed to provide rapid and positive identification of the approach end of a particular runway
2. The system consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights located laterally on each side of the runway threshold.

265
Q

Describe standard traffic pattern

A

1.A rectangular pattern consisting of upwind, crosswind, downwind, base and final legs.
2.Turns are always to the left unless otherwise noted
3. Standard pattern altitude is 1000’ agl

266
Q

What is newtons 3rd law?

A

Every action has an equal and opposite reaction.

267
Q

Ntsb

A

National transportation safety board

268
Q

Unicom

A

Inquire about services
It’s how we talk to someone on the ground

269
Q

What are the in flight right of way rules?

A

General- see and avoid other aircraft
In-distress- An aircraft in distress has the right of way over all other air traffic
Converging- when aircraft of the same category are converging the aircraft to the other’s right has the right of way
1. If the aircraft are of different categories, the less maneuverable aircraft always has the right of way over any other category of aircraft
Approaching head on- each pilot of each aircraft shall alter their course to the right
Overtaking- the aircraft that is being overtaken has the right of way and the pilot performing the overtaking shall alter course to the right to pass
Landing- aircraft on final approach to land have the right of way over all other aircraft in flight or operating on the surface.

270
Q

What is the maximum crosswind component for your aircraft?

A

17knts

271
Q

Maximum takeoff and landing weight?

A

Heaviest weight it can safely take off at 2150lbs

272
Q

How does wind direction affect takeoff and landing?

A

A headwind decreases the required takeoff and landing roll distance

A tailwinds increases the required takeoff and landing roll distance

273
Q

Describe the difference between vx and vy. When would you climb at each?

A

Vx is the best angle of climb. Greatest altitude gain in the shortest horizontal distance. Used during takeoff to clear an obstacle.

Vy is the best rate of climb. Greatest altitude gain in the shortest amount of time. Used to reach cruising altitude quickly.

274
Q

What are the two most common ways to navigate vfr?

A

Pilotage - navigation by visual reference to landmarks or checkpoints
and
dead reckoning- navigation based solely by means of computations based on time, airspeed, distance, and direction.

275
Q

Describe 2 turning and acceleration compass errors

A

Nothernly turning errors-undershoot north overshoot south(unos). when starting a turn from a northernly heading, the compass indications lags behind the turn. When starting a turn from a southerly heading, the compass indication leads the turn
Acceleration errors- accelerate north decelerate south(ands)- when accelerating on an east or west heading, the error appears as a turn indication towards north. When decelerating on an east or west heading the error appears as a turn indication to the south.

276
Q

What are the six compass errors?

A

Vdmona
1.variation
2.deviation
3.magnetic dip
4.oscillation
5.northernly turn errors
6. Acceleration errors

277
Q

What is a vor?

A

Very high frequency omnidirectional range
Vor provides 360 azimuth information in the form of radials expressed in magnetic heading that can be used for navigation

278
Q

How is vor checked for accuracy?

A

VOR accuracy may be checked by means of a VOR Test Facility (VOT), ground or airborne checkpoints, or by checking dual VORs against each other. A VOT location and frequency can be found in the Airport/Facility Directory (A/FD)

Acceptable accuracy is +-4 degrees for ground checks and +-6 degrees for airborne checks

279
Q

What is a dme?

A

A dme is distance measuring equipment

A dme is a measuring device that uses ground and air components to determine the slant range of an aircraft from point, measured in nautical miles.

280
Q

What is gps?

A

Global positioning system
A satellite based radio navigation system used to establish position, three satellites are used to triangulate a position, a fourth satellite verifies position.

281
Q

What should you do If you become lost in flight?

A

5cs
Climb-better view of surroundings
Communicate- contact atc or fss
Confess-admit you are lost
Comply- do what atc tells you
Conserve- conserve fuel

282
Q

What should you do if you encounter a rough engine during flight?

A

immediately check your engine gauges, apply carburetor heat if applicable, reduce power, and assess the situation to determine the likely cause, such as fuel issues, carburetor icing, or ignition problems, then take appropriate action based on your aircraft’s specific procedures and the severity of the roughness; if the issue persists or worsens, declare an emergency and plan for a safe landing at the nearest suitable airport or open field.

283
Q

How long will the planes battery last if there is an alternator failure?

A

If the alternator fail the entire electrical load is placed on the battery
The battery will last 30-60 minutes

284
Q

If you lose battery in flight, what systems do you lose? What does your engine run on?

A

Without a battery you lose all electronics:
1.gps and radio
2. Lights(position, anti collision, landing, taxi, interior)
3.turn indicator
4.fuel gauges and electrical fuel pump, pressure gauges
5.stall warning
6.pitot heat

If battery is lost, the aircraft’s engine will run on magnetos

285
Q

What instruments do you lose if the aircraft’s vacuum system fails?

A

You lose the gyroscopic instruments:
Attitude indicator
Heading indicator

286
Q

What is the emergency landing checklist?

A

A-airspeed-pitch for best glide
B-best place to land-utilize headwind to lessen the required land roll distance
C-checklist- restart the engine and run through the appropriate emergency checklist if time allows
D-declare- squawk 7700 and announce on 121.5 frequency
E-evacuate- seatbelt on, open door prepare to evacuate

287
Q

What are the emergency squawk codes?

A

7500-hijacking
7600- lost communication
7700- emergency

288
Q

What should you do if you experience an engine fire in flight?

A
  1. Fuel shut off
    2.smoothly pitch down to extinguish fire
    3.Set mixture and throttle to idle
    4 electric fuel pump shut off
    5.Turn off master switch and cabin heat 6.close vents, no fire inside
    Emergency descent abcde checklist
289
Q

What should u do if u experience an engine fire on the ground?

A

1.keep cranking the engine to get a start which will suck the fire back into the engine
2. If the engine starts, run the engine for a few minutes to suck the flames down, shut down and inspect.
3. If the engine fails to start, close both fuel valves, turn off master switch, evacuate and inspect.

290
Q

How can you protect your eyesight at night?
What is the proper way to scan the sky at night?

A

1.Avoid bright lights, use red aviation lights rather than white light, dim all gps screens and cockpit lighting
2.scan the sky left to right in 30 degree sections for 2-3 seconds
3. Look at objects 5-10 degrees off of center to avoid the center blind spot

291
Q

How do you activate airport lights at night?

A

Towered- ask atc to change intensity
Non towered- select unicom radio or designated frequency and rapidly click the radio mic
Low-3clicks
Medium- 5clicks
High-7 clicks

292
Q

What are the procedures for engine failure at night?

A

1.establish glide speed
2. Determine cause of engine malfunction, if possible restart the engine.
3.emergency descent close to well lit area.

293
Q

Explain airport beacon colors

A

White and green- civilian land airport
White and yellow- civilian seaport
Green, white and yellow- heliport
White, green and amber- hospital
White, white and green- military airport

294
Q

What is used to cool the engine?

A

Air is used to cool the engine by outside air flowing into the engine compartment through openings in front of the engine cowling. Fins on the filter allow a greater surface area to be exposed

295
Q

Describe your aircraft’s engine

A

O-320 lycoming producing 140 hp
Horizontally apposed pistons
Air cooled
Normally aspirated(no forced induction)
Direct drive propeller mounted right onto the engine.

296
Q

Define the leans(in flight illusion)

A

Spatial disorientation during flight, caused by a sudden return to level flight following a gradual and prolonged turn that went unnoticed by the pilot. The correction causes the illusion that the aircraft is banking in the opposite direction.

297
Q

Define Coriolis illusion(in flight illusion)

A
  • the illusion of turning or accelerating on a different axis caused by rapid head movement during a constant rate turn
298
Q

Graveyard spin(in flight illusion)

A

Spatial disorientation that happens In a spin, the illusion of nonmotion is created if the spin is continued long enough; when the pilot corrects the spin, he has the feeling of spinning in the opposite direction, and his natural reaction is to counter his corrective measures and go back into the original spinning pattern.

299
Q

Graveyard spiral(in flight illusion)

A

The pilot does not feel the sensation of turning, creating an illusion of being in straight and level flight. Noticing a lack of altitude, the pilot pulls back on the controls in an attempt to climb which tightens the spiral and increases loss of altitude.

300
Q

Somotographic illusion(in flight illusion)

A

Rapid acceleration causes the illusion of the plane being in a nose up atttitude. The pilot pushes the nose down putting the plane in a dive attitude in attempt to correct.

301
Q

Somotographic illusion(in flight illusion)

A

Rapid acceleration causes the illusion of the plane being in a nose up atttitude. The pilot pushes the nose down in a dive attitude in attempt to correct.

302
Q

Inversion illusion(in flight illusion)

A

The quick change from a climb to level flight creates the illusion of tumbling backwards.

303
Q

Elevator(in flight illusion)

A

An updraft causes the pilot to think the aircraft is in a climb. Pilot reacts by forcing the nose down inducing a dive

304
Q

False horizon(in flight illusion)

A

Sloping cloud formations or obscured horizons confuse the pilot into misaligning with the horizon

305
Q

Autokinesis(in flight illusion)

A

At night, stationary lights may appear to be in motion. Pilot may lose control of aircraft trying to align it with “moving” light

306
Q

What is hyperventilation?

A

An abnormal loss of carbon dioxide from the blood as a result of excessive rate and depth of respiration

Generally caused by panic

307
Q

What are the four types of hypoxia?

A

1.Hypoxic hypoxia-lack of oxygen to lungs- altitude
2. Hypemic hypoxia- lack of oxygen in blood-anemia or co poisoning
3.stagnant- blood is not flowing, or circulation is cut off- circulation
4.histotoxic-cells cannot effectively use oxygen- drug

308
Q

What are the four types of hypoxia?

A

1.Hypoxic hypoxia-lack of oxygen to lungs- altitude
2. Hypemic hypoxia- lack of oxygen in blood-anemia or co poisoning
3.stagnant- blood is not flowing, or circulation is cut off- circulation
4.histotoxic-cells cannot effectively use oxygen- drug, smoking

309
Q

Why does carburetor ice form? What is the first indication of carb ice? How is it prevented?

A

1.carburetor ice occurs due to the effect of fuel vaporization and the decrease in air pressure in the venturi, which causes a sharp temperature drop in the carburetor
2. If water vapor in the air condenses when the carburetor temperature is at or below freezing, ice can form on internal surfaces of the carburetor, including the throttle valve. The ice restricts the flow of the fuel- air mixture and reduces power. If enough ice builds up, the engine may cease to operate.
3. The first indication of carb ice is a decrease in engine rpm. Carburetor heat is used to melt and prevent the formation of carb ice.

310
Q

Morale boost

A

You’re well studied to pass this exam

311
Q

Good job john

A

Keep up the good work handsome:)

312
Q

Good job john

A

Keep up the good work handsome:)

313
Q

Electrical failure?

A

Electrical failure
Shut off any non-essential electrical equipment to reduce electrical load. Try to toggle the switches to get power back. If nothing happens I would land as soon as practical.30 minute window

314
Q

What is a taa airplane

A

Technically advanced airplane
Airplane with a glass cockpit

315
Q

Whats the difference between standard airworthiness certificate and special airworthiness certificates?

A

Standard airworthiness certificates are for manufactured planes. Cessna, piper, cirrus. Experimental Special airworthiness is for kit planes. Special airworthiness is for light sport aircraft.

316
Q

What are placards

A

Airplane specific information for you.
Ex compass deviation card, co monoxide sensor.

317
Q

What are placards

A

Airplane specific information for pilot.
Ex compass deviation card, co monoxide sensor.

318
Q

Type rating?

A

For planes over 12,500 max gross takeoff weight.

319
Q

Why do planes have Type rating?

A

For planes over 12,500 mgtow

320
Q

What are the types of metars

A

Regular-computer generated, weather observation that comes out every hour
Speci- weather report that is issued as required when certain meteorological conditions change significantly

321
Q

What is winds aloft chart?(fb)

A

Forecast of Winds and temp at a specific altitude.
Issued 4xday, valid for 6,12 or 24 hours

322
Q

What is LIFR

A

Low instrument flight rules(ifr): ceiling less than 500 feet and/or visibility less than 1 mile.

323
Q

What is LIFR

A

Low instrument flight rules(ifr): ceiling less than 500 feet and/or visibility less than 1 mile.

324
Q

What is IFR?

A

Ceiling 500 to less than 1000 feet and/or visibility 1-less than 3 miles

325
Q

Whats mvfr?

A

Marginal visual flight rules(vfr) ceiling 1’000 to 3000 agl feet and or visibility 3-5 miles inclusive

326
Q

What’s vfr?

A

Ceiling greater than 3000 feet and visibility greater than 5 miles, includes sky clear.

327
Q

What’s vfr?

A

Ceiling greater than 3000 feet and visibility greater than 5 miles, includes sky clear.

328
Q

What is the difference between gps and gps waas?

A

Gps- general broad location
Waas- more pin point

329
Q

Ways to renew license without flight review

A

Pilot proficiency check
Passing checkride for another license
Faa approved simulator

330
Q

Record keeping

A

61.51 will show you how to log flights and grounds inside your logbook
-if government official request documents you must show pilot certificate, medical, logbook

331
Q

Record keeping
61.51

A

61.51 will show you how to log flights and grounds inside your logbook
-if government official request documents you must show pilot certificate, medical, logbook

332
Q

How soon must you notify faa if you change address?

A

61.60-30 days

333
Q

61.59

A

Do not falsify your logbook

334
Q

Basic med side note

A

Pilot under basic med must carry logbook w/ certified medical exam checklist and certified course completion

335
Q

Transition to unfamiliar aircraft
Areas of familiarization

A

1.Systems
2.characteristics
3.limitations
4.performance
5.procedures

336
Q

Transition to unfamiliar aircraft
Areas of familiarization

A

1.Systems
2.characteristics
3.limitations
4.performance
5.procedures

337
Q

Transition to unfamiliar aircraft
Systems

A

1.fuel
2.electrical
3.hydraulic
4. Flight control
5.landing gear
6.ventilation/heating/pressurization
7.avionics
8.powerplant
9.autoflight system
10.flight instruments
11.warning systems
12.oxygen systems
13.emergency equipment

338
Q

Transition to unfamiliar aircraft
Normal procedures

A

1.Preflight inspection
2.start
3.taxi
4.pre takeoff
5.takeoff
6.climb
7.cruise
8.descent
9.approach and landing
10.after landing
11.shutdown

339
Q

Transition to unfamiliar aircraft
Abnormal procedures

A

address malfunctions or abnormalities that are not immediately threatening to flight safety

340
Q

Transition to unfamiliar aircraft
Abnormal procedures

A

These address malfunctions or abnormalities that are not immediately threatening to flight safety

341
Q

Transition to unfamiliar aircraft
Emergency procedures

A

1.engine failure
2.fires
3.loss of pressurization at altitude
4.loss of control system
5.Loss of flight instruments, avionics, or navigation systems determined by the pilot to be critical to flight

342
Q

Transition to unfamiliar aircraft
Performance

A

1.take off and landing
2.climb
3.cruise
4.descent
5.glide

343
Q

Transition to unfamiliar aircraft
Limitations

A

1.weight limits
2.forw and aft cg limits
3.v speeds
4.kinds of operation
5. Crosswind limitations
6.landing surface limitations

344
Q

91.203a 1& b

A

Airworthiness certificate has to be visible in the plane, passengers should be able to see the certificate easily. Certificate cannot be stuffed in the baggage compartment or out of sight.

345
Q

23.2100w&b

A

Everything inside plane has to be included in weight and balance(w&b associated with poh) more than 1 pound of weight change will constitute for new w&b

346
Q

Purpose of Special airworthiness information bulletin

A

Its not quite and a.d and not regulatory. It’s meant to Alert and educate on different makes and models of planes

347
Q

Purpose of Special airworthiness information bulletin

A

Its not quite and a.d and not regulatory meant to Alert and educate on different makes and models of planes

348
Q

Purpose for obtaining special flight permit

A

1.Repairs
2.deliver/export
3.testing new aircraft
4.evacuation
5.demo
6.excess weight

349
Q

Procedure for obtaining special flight permit

A

21.199we can obtain special flight permit 3ways
1st dars (when member of faa meets you in person with the plane)designated airworthiness representative
2nd awc tool(faa preferred method)
3rd paper form(old school)

350
Q

When applying for flight permit what do you have to state?

A

1.purpose
2.proposed itinerary
3.crew required
4.conditions
5.restrictions

351
Q

Pilot in command 91.3

A

1.pilot in command of aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to the operation of that aircraft.
2. In an in flight emergency requiring immediate action, the pilot in command may deviate from any rule in this part to the extent required to meet that emergency.
3. Each pilot in command who deviates from a rule under paragraph b of this section shall, upon request of the administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the administrator

352
Q

Koel/cel(kinds of equipment list/ comprehensive equipment list)

A

Koel- list equipment needed for flight
Cel-lists all equipment and gives you required equipment

353
Q

Using approved mel(minimum equipment list) 91.213

A

91.213b mel cannot include tcds/ stc/ ads/ anything from part 91
Mel+loa(letter of authorization)= supplemental type certificate(used to authorize modifications to a plane)

354
Q

Using approved mel(minimum equipment list) 91.213

A

91.213b mel cannot include tcds/ stc/ ads/ anything from part 91
Mel+loa(letter of authorization)= supplemental type certificate(used to authorize modifications to a plane)

355
Q

Sources of weather data for flight planning purposes

A

1.Aviation digital data service(adds)
2.automated surface observing system(asos)
3.automated terminal information service(atis)
4.automated weather observing system(awos)
5.center weather advisory(cwa)
6.flight service station(fss)
7.hazardous in flight weather advisory(hiwas)
8.low level wind shear alert system(llwas)
9.national oceanic and atmospheric association(noaa)
10.national weather service(nws)
11.telephone information broadcast(tibs)
12.transcribed weather broadcast(tweb)

356
Q

What is cwa?center weather advisory?

A

Current and forecast supplemental weather, valid for 2 hours. Issued as required.

357
Q

What is cwa?center weather advisory?

A

Current and forecast supplemental weather Issued as required, valid 2 hrs

358
Q

What’s Radar summary?

A

A graphic of observed radar weather reports, showing current precipitation such as type, intensity, coverage, direction of movement etc issued 15 minutes past each hour

359
Q

Constant pressure analysis?

A

contemporary observation of , temperature, temperature dew point spread, winds, pressure information. Issued twice daily, valid 12 hours

360
Q

Composite moisture stability(cmsc)

A

Twice daily, valid 12 hours, current, precipitation and water, freezing levels, humidity

361
Q

Low level significant weather prognostic

A

4x daily, 12or24 hours validity, forecast, pressure, fronts, precipitation, vfr, mvfr, ifr, conditions, turbulence, freezing levels

362
Q

Convective outlook

A

National forecast of thunderstorms Day1:5times,day2:2times,day3:1time, validity varies

363
Q

Atmospheric composition

A

21%oxygen
78%nitrogen
1%other

364
Q

Atmospheric stability

A

Stable-resist any upward or downward displacement
Non stable atmosphere- allow upward and downward disturbances to develop into a vertical or convective current

365
Q

Changes in temperature=

A

Changes in pressure

366
Q

Changes in pressure=

A

Wind

367
Q

Warmer air is

A

Lighter(less dense) expands and rises

368
Q

Colder air=

A

Denser and is pulled down

369
Q

Horizontal convection=

A

Wind

370
Q

3 forces affect wind heading and speed

A

Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force, friction

371
Q

3 forces affect wind heading and speed

A

Pressure gradient force, Coriolis force, friction

372
Q

Pressure travels from

A

High to low pressure carrying winds

373
Q

Whats is the decide acronym

A

D- decision maker- Detect that action is necessary
E- decision maker- Estimate the significance of the action
C- decision maker- Choose a desirable outcome
I- decision maker- Identify actions needed in order to achieve the chosen option
D- decision maker- Do the necessary action to achieve change
E- decision maker- Evaluate the effects of the action

374
Q

Whats is the decide acronym

A

D- decision maker- Detect that the action necessary
E- decision maker- Estimate the significance of the action
C- decision maker- Choose a desirable outcome
I- decision maker- Identify actions needed in order to achieve the chosen option
D- decision maker- Do the necessary action to achieve change
E- decision maker- Evaluate the effects of the action

375
Q

What is vfr minimum above 1,200 agl in class golf

A

Day=1sm vis 1,000 above 500 below 2,000 horizontal
Night basic vfr mins3152

376
Q

What is vfr minimum above 1,200 agl in class golf

A

Day=1sm vis 1,000 above 500 below 2,000 horizontal
Night basic vfr mins3152

377
Q

What are the four stages of a spin?

A

Entry, incipient(1 1/2 to 3 turn to incipient), fully developed, recovery

378
Q

What are the four stages of a spin?

A

Entry, incipient(1 1/2 to 3 turn to incipient), fully developed, recovery where you employ pare

379
Q

If your destination has no terminal forecast(taf) which primary source of information should be referenced for forecasted weather at the same time of arrival?

A

Area forecast(fa), regardless of source used it’s recommended to contact fss for most accurate up to date weather info. Also check pireps.

380
Q

What contributes to spatial disorientation?

A

Situational awareness, vestibular system(biological gyroscopic), somatosensory(nervous system), visual system

381
Q

What contributes to spatial disorientation?

A

Situational awareness, vestibular system(biological gyroscopic), somatosensory, visual

382
Q

Ailerons control=

A

Roll, longitudinal movement, lateral stability

383
Q

Elevator controls=

A

Pitch, lateral movement, longitudinal stability

384
Q

Elevator controls=

A

Pitch, lateral movement, longitudinal stability

385
Q

Rudder controls=

A

Yaw, vertical movement, directional stability

386
Q

Rudder controls=

A

Yaw, vertical movement, directional stability

387
Q

What are the spatial awareness illusions

A

Iceflags
Inversion
Coriolis
Elevator
False horizon
Leans
Autokenesis
Graveyard spiral
Graveyard spin
Somatographic

388
Q

Why is clear ice more dangerous?

A

Hard to detect, heaviest

389
Q

Special use airspaces?

A

Mcprawnt
Moa-military operations
Cfa-controlled firing
Prohibited
Restricted
Alert
Warning
Nsa- national security
Tfrs

390
Q

What are the hazards of a thunderstorm?

A

Turbulence, wind shear, lightning, heavy precipitation, hail, icing. These conditions can be devastating for aircraft, with the potential to cause structural damage or loss of control. Avoid flying within 20 miles of a storm. No matter what the size they can grow rapidly and hail(only takes 5 seconds to cause some serious damage to the nose or fuselage)

391
Q

Pre landing checklist?

A

Lcgumps
Lights(including ctaf activated runway lights for night flight)
Carb heat
Gas
Undercarriage
Mixture fully rich
Propeller and fuel pump
Switches, seatbelts and secure

392
Q

Pre landing checklist?

A

Lcgumps
Lights(including ctaf activated runway lights for night flight)
Carb heat
Gas
Undercarriage
Mixture fully rich
Propeller and fuel pump
Switches, seatbelts and secure

393
Q

What do airmets(wa)warn pilots about?

A

Moderate turbulence,
Reduced visibility,
Moderate icing,
Winds of 30+ knots
Valid for 6 hours

394
Q

What do sigmets(wa)warn pilots about?

A

Severe icing, dust storms, sand storms, severe turbulence, volcanic ash
Valid 4 hours
6 for hurricanes

395
Q

What do convective sigmets(wst)warn pilots about?

A

Thunderstorm related hazards, Surface winds of 50+ knots, bigger than 3/4 of an inch hail, line of thunderstorms, embedded thunderstorms
Due to rapid development they are valid for 2 hours

396
Q

What are the five ps?
Single pilot resource management

A

Plan- nwkraft
plane-airworthy? documentation?
pilot- i’m safe? Current? Proficient?passenger-fit to fly? Are they comfortable? Anxious? Entoxicated?
programming-proficiency in avionics. Gps updated?

397
Q

Fdc notam?

A

Issued for airspace, procedures and regulations
Changes to air traffic service routes
Changes to instrument flight procedures
Airspace changes
Temporary flight restrictions
Disaster or hazard areas
Aerial demonstrations
Hijacking
Flight restrictions near the President

398
Q

What is a vortac?

A

Very high frequency omnidirectional range/tactical air navigation

399
Q

What are all the types of altitudes?

A

Indicated altitude- reading off altimeter
Pressure altitude-above standard datum
Density altitude- nonstndrd temp/pr
True altitude- above mean sea level
Absolute altitude -above ground level
Transition altitude-amsl where switch to standard and use flight levels
Transition level- reverse ta

400
Q

What are all the types of airspeed?

A

Indicated airspeed-static+dynamic pressure, Un corrected
Calibrated airspeed- ias corrected for installation and position errors.
True airspeed- cas corrected for pressure and non standard temperature
Ground speed- actual speed of aircraft over ground. tas +wind

401
Q

Craaced
Pre maneuvers

A

Clearing turns
Reference point/hdg
Altitude
Airspeed
Communicate( let traffic freq know what your doing)
Explain it(maneuver setup and standards)
Do it

402
Q

How do magnetos work?

A

Basically electrical generator that takes kinetic energy produced from rotation of crankshaft and transforms it into electrical energy thru magnets and coils for use by spark plugs

403
Q

Why do class echo cloud clearances and visibility requirements change at 10,000 feet?

A

To give vfr pilots more time to see and avoid faster moving aircraft that are popping in and out of the clouds like banshee.

404
Q

Why do class echo cloud clearances and visibility requirements change at 10,000 feet?

A

To give vfr pilots more time to see and avoid faster moving aircraft that are popping in and out of the clouds like banshee.

405
Q

Are you required tohave an atc clearance when operating within the lateral boundaries of a trsa?

A

If you ask for and receive radar services from tracon you must comply with heading and altitude assigned or cancel however vfr participation is optional.

406
Q

What factors affect the performance of an aircraft during takeoffs and landings?

A

1.air density(density altitude)
2.surface winds
3.runway surface
4. Upslope or downslope of runway
5. Weight

407
Q

How do you calculate ground speed?

A

Time six minutes as it is .10 of an hour then add a zero(multiply by 10) to the total nautical miles traveled in 6 mins.

408
Q

How do you calculate ground speed?

A

Time distance (nm) traveled over 6 minutes and add a zero as it is .10 of an hour.