General Flashcards

1
Q

How does a cyclone work?

A

A cyclone uses centrifugal force to cause impaction of large particulates on tighter turns.

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2
Q

How does an electrostatic precipitator work?

A

An electrostatic precipitator uses electrostatic attraction to cause particulates to adhere to its walls.

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3
Q

How does a venturi scrubber work?

A

A venturi scrubber uses a narrowing duct to increase pressure, condensation, and collection efficiency for the cyclone.

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3
Q

How does a settling chamber work?

A

A settling chamber uses a widening duct to decrease air velocity, causing large particulates to settle.

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4
Q

SMART

A

Objectives and evaluation should be specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound.

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5
Q

Lean Philosophy

A

Any activity or material that does not add value to the end product should be eliminated.

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6
Q

Six Sigma

A

Specific tools and techniques should be employed to reduce variation and improve the process.

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7
Q

GPS Model

A

Objectives represent our destination on the map. Evaluation represents our location on the map.

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8
Q

Case Method

A

An active form of instruction that focuses on a case and involves students learning by doing. Case studies simulate reality and require trainees to wrestle with real-world and complex problems.

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9
Q

Cascade Impactor

A

Tool designed to simultaneously collect viable mold spores at different cut points.

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10
Q

Dust Mask APF

A

10.

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11
Q

Lyme Disease

A

A tickborne disease more commonly encountered in the midwestern and northeastern U.S.

Symptoms:
Severe headaches and neck stiffness
Additional EM rashes on other areas of the body
Facial palsy
Intermittent pain in tendons, muscles, joints, and bones
Nerve pain

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12
Q

Hydrogen sulfide Exposure

A

Upper respiratory tract irritation
Dizziness
Weakness

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13
Q

Workers in what industry are exposed to Hydrogen sulfide and respirable crystalline silica?

A

Oil & gas

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14
Q

What is the relationship between production and safety?

A

Both safety and production are the results of effective management.

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15
Q

At what temperature should special provisions, such as warm air jets, radiant heaters, or contact warm plates be used to keep workers’ bare hands warm while doing fine work for >10 minutes?

A

16 C (60.8 F).

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16
Q

Which bloodborne pathogens are of primary concern?

A

Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, and HIV.

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17
Q

What is the health effect and work environment associated with Methylene chloride?

A

Liver damage - degreasing/paint stripping.

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18
Q

What are two health effects associated with Mercury exposure?

A

Renal damage (nephrotoxicity) and neurological effects.

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19
Q

Flock Worker’s Lung

A

Lung disease (Pneumonoconiosis) caused by inhalation of nylon flock.

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20
Q

What assumption is made when determining if a gaseous mixture exceeds the mixture TLV?

A

Similar effects/same target organ.

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20
Q

What principle of leadership ensures workers feel a sense of ownership for a company’s safety and health programs?

A

Employee participation.

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21
Q

What is one of the most important benefits of using stories in training?

A

They bundle information together in a way that is meaningful or memorable.

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22
Q

When is it best to train or re-train workers in the context of IH and occupational health?

A

When there is a change in role, personnel, process, or procedure.

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23
Q

What type of radiation can penetrate several material types, make other objects radioactive, and produce many of the radioactive sources used in industrial, academic, and medical applications?

A

Neutrons

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24
Q

When sampling for indoor airborne mold spore concentrations, what reference should be used for comparison?

A

Outdoor airborne mold spore concentrations.

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25
Q

How is hand-arm vibration typically measured?

A

With an accelerometer placed on the worker’s forearm.

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26
Q

What kind of gloves should be worn when working with Dimethyl mercury?

A

Silver shield

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27
Q

Which teaching tool is likely to help workers learn to problem solve, use critical thinking, make decisions in complex situations, and cope with ambiguities?

A

Detailed case studies

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28
Q

What is the traditional risk management approach for industrial hygiene?

A

Anticipation, recognition, evaluation, control, and confirmation.

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29
Q

Universal Precautions

A

Treat all bodily fluids as if they are potentially infectious with bloodborne pathogens.

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30
Q

Education and training programs are considered which type of control on the hierarchy of controls?

A

Administrative.

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31
Q

Which model do many occupational safety and health management systems use to ensure continuous system improvement?

A

Plan, Do, Check, Act.

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32
Q

Glutaraldehyde

A

Transparent, oily liquid used as a disinfectant or tanning agent that can cause eye, skin, and respiratory irritation, as well as skin and respiratory sensitization

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33
Q

What industry commonly uses Perchloroethylene?

A

Dry cleaning

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34
Q

Psittacosis

A

Bacterial infection that affects birds, can infect humans, and can cause mild illness or pneumonia.

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35
Q

Control Banding

A

Qualitative strategy for managing health hazards based on a range of exposures in the absence of OELs.

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36
Q

What is the basis for Manganese’s low TLV?

A

CNS impairment

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37
Q

What is the basis for Organophosphates such as malathion and parathion low TLV?

A

Organophosphates are cholinesterase inhibitors.

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38
Q

Tenosynovitis

A

Inflammatory thickening of the fibrous sheath containing one or more tendons, usually caused by repeated minor injury.

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39
Q

Epicondylitis

A

Swelling of the tendons that bend your wrist backward away from your palm.

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40
Q

Which biological agent tend to be the most difficult to sterilize, often requiring autoclaving as part of the process?

A

Prions.

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41
Q

A

A
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42
Q

Which standard is most appropriate for evaluating health risk exposures to formaldehyde in a personal residence?

A

EPA Indoor Air Quality Guidelines

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43
Q

Standard Deviation

A

Average distance of each sample from the mean

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44
Q

In a normal distribution, what percentage of data points are within about 1 standard deviation of the mean?

A

68.2%

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45
Q

In a normal distribution, what percentage of data points are within about 2 standard deviations of the mean?

A

95.4%

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46
Q

What three things are equal in a normal distribution?

A

Mean, median, and mode.

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47
Q

Covalent Bond

A

Bond created when electrons are shared between atoms.

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48
Q

Ionic Bond

A

Exchange of electrons so that an element has 8 electrons in its outer shell.

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49
Q

Solvent

A

Something that dissolves stuff.

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50
Q

What characteristic ensures that a molecule is water soluble?

A

Polarity

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51
Q

Gram Molecular Weight (MW)

A

The mass of one mole of molecules.

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52
Q

Mole

A

Avogadro’s number of units (6.022x10^23).

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53
Q

Molar Concentration (M)

A

Moles solute/L.

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54
Q

Molarity

A

Molar concentration.

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55
Q

Density of Water

A

1 g/mL OR 1 g/cc OR 1 g/mol.

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56
Q

Specific Gravity

A

P substance/P water.

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57
Q

Molecular Weight

A

Grams/mole.

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58
Q

[H+] =

A

10^-pH

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59
Q

Ideal Gas Law

A

PV=nRT

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60
Q

What is the ideal gas constant (R)?

A

.082

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61
Q

Higher vapor pressure is proportional to what ?

A

High evaporation rate

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62
Q

Alkanes

A

Single-bonded Carbon atoms.

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63
Q

Aromatic

A

Contains at least one benzene ring.

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64
Q

A

A
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65
Q

A

A
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66
Q

What is the name of the air sac in the lungs that are at risk from respirable particles?

A

Alveoli

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67
Q

GPS Model

A

Often used to represent objectives, evaluation, and their relationship.

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68
Q

Case Method Teaching

A

Active form of instruction that focuses on a case and involves students learning by doing.

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69
Q

Cascade Impactor

A

Designed to simultaneously collect viable mold spores at different cut points.

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70
Q

SCBA APF

A

10,000

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71
Q

What is the vector for Lyme disease?

A

Deer ticks.

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72
Q

Symptoms of Lyme Disease

A

Rashes (bulls eye pattern), facial palsy loss, arthritis, and severe headaches and neck stiffness.

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73
Q

Symptoms of H2S Exposure

A

Upper respiratory tract irritation, dizziness, and weakness.

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74
Q

In what industry is H2S commonly found?

A

Oil and gas.

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75
Q

What are 3 good work practices for reducing hand-arm vibration?

A

To keep the body and hands warm and dry, to avoid smoking, and to use anti-vibration tools.

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76
Q

At which temperature should special provisions, such as warm air jets, radiant heaters, or contact warm plates be used to keep worker’s bare hands warm while doing fine work for >10 minutes?

A

16 C

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77
Q

What industry is associated with metallurgical coke?

A

Steel manufacturing.

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78
Q

Which 3 bloodborne pathogens are of primary concern?

A

Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, and HIV.

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79
Q

What is the primary health effect associated with Mercury exposure?

A

Kidney damage.

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80
Q

W

A
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81
Q

Which cancer is associated with Benzene exposure?

A

Leukemia.

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82
Q

What industry is at risk of Benzene exposure?

A

Rubber manufacturing.

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83
Q

What is the primary health effect associated with Methylene chloride exposure?

A

Liver damage.

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84
Q

Which operation is at risk of Methylene chloride exposure?

A

Degreasing operation.

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85
Q

What assumption is made when determining if a gaseous mixture exceeds the mixture TLV?

A

The gases have similar toxic effects.

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86
Q

Due to their complex nature, there is no “one-size-fits-all” approach to prevention.

A

Musculoskeletal disorders (MSD’s).

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87
Q

Which type of radiation can penetrate several material types, make other objects radioactive, and produce many of the radioactive sources used in industrial, academic, and medical applications?

A

Neutrons.

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88
Q

Which chemical is used to manufacture many different types of polymers and co-polymers?

A

1,3-Butadiene

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89
Q

What are the health effects of 1,3-Butadiene exposure?

A

Eye, nose, and throat irritation, leukemia, and lymphoma.

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90
Q

What is associated with Team Leadership?

A

Inspiring people, supporting decisions, and influencing change.

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91
Q

What is associated with Participatory Leadership?

A

Involving people, getting input for decisions, implementing change.

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92
Q

What type of gloves should be worn when working with Dimethyl mercury?

A

Silver Shield.

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93
Q

Which model do many occupational safety and health management systems use to ensure continuous system improvement?

A

Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA).

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94
Q

What type of respirator is generally best for carcinogens?

A

SCBA.

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95
Q

What chemical is commonly used in the dry-cleaning industry and can cause irritation?

A

Perchloroethylene.

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96
Q

According to ACGIH, which type of clothing ensemble is associated with the largest adjustment factor?

A

Limited-use vapor-barrier coveralls.

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97
Q

Psittacosis

A

Bacterial infection that affects birds, can infect humans, and causes mild illness or pneumonia.

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98
Q

At which particle size fractions do P100 filters allow the most penetration?

A

.2 -.4 um

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99
Q

For which metal is CNS impairment a TLV basis for?

A

Manganese.

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100
Q

What international safety and health management system uses PDCA?

A

ISO

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101
Q

In how many mutually orthogonal axes should acceleration of a vibrating handle or workpiece be determined at a point close to where the vibration enters?

A

3

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102
Q

What is the TLV basis for organophosphates such as malathion and parathion?

A

They are cholinesterase inhibitors.

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103
Q

What type of media is commonly used to conduct airborne sampling for Hexavalent chromium?

A

37 mm PVC cassette with a 5 um pore size.

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104
Q

What is the goal of accuracy and precision in analytical chemistry?

A

To reduce uncertainty.

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105
Q

How many media blanks from the same sample lot does NIOSH recommend using?

A

6.

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106
Q

What is the maximum amount of field blanks that should be used on a given sampling project?

A

10.

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107
Q

Primary Standard

A

Direct measurement of volume.

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108
Q

Limit of Detection

A

Lowest concentration detected by laboratory instruments, generally 3x the “noise” level.

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109
Q

Limit of Quantification

A

Lowest concentration quantifiable in the lab, generally 10x the instrument “noise” level.

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110
Q

According to NIOSH, how many samples are required for a valid estimate of the confidence interval around the mean?

A

6.

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111
Q

According to NIOSH, how many samples are required to estimate variance?

A

11.

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112
Q

What does a Lower Confidence Limit (LCL) > 1 indicate?

A

A 95% probability that an exposure exceeds the PEL.

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113
Q

Gravimetric Analysis

A

Mass of aerosol = difference in weight.

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114
Q

What characterizes a fiber?

A

3:1 ratio.

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114
Q

What method is used to analyze asbestos samples?

A

Microscopy.

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115
Q

What analytical technique is used to separate chemical substances?

A

Gas chromatography.

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116
Q

What class of chemicals is gas chromatography generally used to analyze?

A

Hydrocarbons.

GC=HC

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117
Q

High Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC)

A

Similar to gas chromatography except the carrier medium is a liquid, not a gas.

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118
Q

For what analytes is HPLC generally used for?

A

PCB’s, herbicides, insecticides, phthalates, and isocyanates.

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119
Q

Which type of glove provides the best chemical protection for the aldehyde chemical family?

A

Butyl.

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120
Q

Miosis

A

Constriction of the pupil of the eye.

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121
Q

The human body is best at absorbing non-ionizing radiation within which range of frequencies?

A

30 MHz to 300 MHz.

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122
Q

Siderosis

A

Deposition of excess iron in body tissue. Comes from exposure to iron or rust.

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123
Q

Relative Risk

A

The ratio of disease incidence in an exposed group compared to the ratio of disease incidence in an unexposed group.

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124
Q

What model do most occupational safety management systems use to ensure continuous system improvement?

A

Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA)

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125
Q

What is the appropriate WGBT adjustment factor for an employee wearing normal work clothes?

A

0.

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126
Q

What is Phalen’s test an initial screening for?

A

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (CTS).

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127
Q

What is an accelerometer used to measure?

A

The acceleration and direction of vibration.

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128
Q

What is the reference value for sound intensity?

A

10^-12 W/m^2

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129
Q

Which type of instrument is typically used to monitor pressure drop across a filter?

A

Aneroid Anemometer.

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130
Q

Thrombosis

A

Condition in which blood clots form within the blood vessel.

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131
Q

Lateral Epicondylitis

A

Commonly known as “Tennis Elbow,” a condition where pain is felt on the outside side of the upper arm, near the elbow.

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132
Q

What is the primary target organ for aflatoxins?

A

Liver.

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133
Q

What health effect is Cadmium most associated with?

A

Renal (kidney) damage.

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134
Q

Tubular Proteinuria

A

Increased urinary excretion of serum proteins and the first sign of renal damage.

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135
Q

What is the most significant threat from Radon gas?

A

Alpha radiation.

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136
Q

Which type of cancer is associated with Radon exposure?

A

Lung cancer.

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137
Q

Observational Bias

A

When information on disease status is recorded differently between the exposed and non-exposed groups.

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138
Q

Type I Error

A

Rejection of t
he null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is true.

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139
Q

What are the 3 most important factors when determining whether a worker becomes infected after being exposed to an infectious agent?

A

Pathogenicity, infectious dose, and host susceptibility.

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140
Q

Contamination Reduction Corridor

A

The area between two access control points.

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141
Q

Asbestosis

A

Lung disease that develops due to inhalation of asbestos fibers.

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142
Q

Byssinosis

A

Lung disease caused by inhalation of cotton or jute dust.

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143
Q

Metal Fume Fever

A

Illness caused primarily by exposure to chemicals such as Zinc oxide, Aluminum oxide, or Magnesium oxide which are produced as byproducts in the fumes that result when certain metals are heated.

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144
Q

Exposure to what chemical can cause upper respiratory tract irritation, cataracts, hemolytic anemia, and is a suspected carcinogen?

A

Naphthalene.

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145
Q

Aerosol

A

Solid or liquid particles dispersed in a gaseous medium (usually air in IH).

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146
Q

Dusts, fumes, mists, smokes, and fibers are all considered what?

A

Aerosols.

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147
Q

Dusts

A

Dry particle aerosols produced by mechanical processes.

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148
Q

Fumes

A

Very fine solid aerosol particles produced from vaporized solids.

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149
Q

What compounds are fumes generally associated with?

A

Metals.

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150
Q

Mists

A

Spherical droplet aerosols produced by mechanical processes.

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151
Q

Smokes

A

Complex mixture of solid and liquid aerosol particles, gases, and vapors resulting from incomplete combustion.

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152
Q

Fibers

A

Elongated particles with an aspect ratio greater than 3:1.

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153
Q

Polydisperse

A

Range of particle sizes.

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154
Q

Inhalable Dust Fraction Size

A

<100um

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155
Q

Thoracic Dust Fraction Size

A

<10um

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156
Q

Respirable Dust Fraction Size

A

<4um

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157
Q

What are the three typical sampling cassette sizes?

A

25 mm, 37 mm, and 47 mm.

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158
Q

In air sampling, what is concentration equal to?

A

m/V

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159
Q

What will be the result if leakage occurs from an improperly assembled air sampling cassette?

A

The results will be underestimated as some of the target constituent will be lost through the leak.

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160
Q

Mixed Cellulose Ester (MCE) cassettes are primarily used to analyze what kind of analyte?

A

Metals.

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161
Q

What will be the result if the flow rate is too high when sampling with a cyclone?

A

Very small particles will be over-represented and medium and large particles under-represented.

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162
Q
A

T

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163
Q

What is the drawback of gravimetric analysis methods?

A

They can only detect the total mass accumulated and can’t differentiate between different compounds in the air.

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164
Q

IOM Sampler

A

Particulate sampler that simulates collection of inhalable particles inhaled by mouth and nose.

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165
Q

Which particulate sampler can also be used to sample viable mold spores in the air?

A

Button sampler.

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166
Q

What kind of air sampling device would be used to collect culturable and/or viable biological samples?

A

Anderson/Cascade Impactor.

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167
Q

What does a spore trap sample collect?

A

All biological materials.

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168
Q

Terminal Setting Velocity Equation (Vts)

A

(300,000)(SG)D^2

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169
Q

What are impingers capable of sampling for?

A

Gases and vapors.

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170
Q

Absorbent

A

Something that dissolves gas in a liquid media.

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171
Q

Adsorbent

A

Something that physically adheres gases and vapors to media.

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172
Q

What sampler would be the best choice to sample for semi-volatiles?

A

Impinger.

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173
Q

What is the most common type of adsorbent?

A

Activated charcoal.

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174
Q

What kind of compounds are silica gel used to sample for?

A

Polar compounds, including alcohols, amines, and phenols.

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175
Q

A

A
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176
Q

If breakthrough occurs in a sorbent tube, how will it affect the result?

A

The concentration will be underestimated because analyte is being lost through the back of the tube.

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177
Q

What percent mass can the breakthrough section of a sorbent tube accept before invalidating the sample?

A

10% of the mass of the collection section.

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178
Q

What environmental factors can decrease adsorption efficiency in air sampling?

A

High humidity and temperature.

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179
Q

What is the sample rate determined by in passive diffusion air sampling?

A

Fick’s law.

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180
Q

When using colorimetric tubes, what is the length of color produced proportional to?

A

Concentration in the air.

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181
Q

What is a downside of using colorimetric tubes?

A

Accuracy is +/-20%

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182
Q

What information does a PID provide?

A

Qualitative information on the amount and class of chemicals present in the air.

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183
Q

What can a PID detect?

A

Volatile organic compounds (VOC’s).

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184
Q

Which PID lamp size will detect the broadest range of compounds?

A

11.7 eV

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185
Q

Which PID lamp is most commonly used?

A

10.6 eV

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186
Q

What is the difference between a PID and FID?

A

PID uses UV light to ionize compounds, and FID uses a hydrogen flame.

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187
Q

What information does an FID provide?

A

An estimate of the total concentration of organic chemicals present in air.

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188
Q

What is an example of an electrochemical cell?

A

Multi-gas meters.

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189
Q

Infrared Analyzer

A

Measures trace gases by determining the absorption of an emitted infrared light source through a certain air sample.

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190
Q

What instrument could be used to sample airborne formaldehyde concentrations in real time?

A

Infrared analyzer.

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191
Q

What is it referred to when particles (or photons) with sufficient energy to remove electrons (or ionize) molecules with which they interact?

A

Ionizing radiation.

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192
Q

What are the 3 basic types of ionizing radiation?

A

Alpha, Beta, and Gamma.

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193
Q

Which radiation particle is the largest?

A

Alpha particle.

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194
Q

Which type of ionizing radiation can be stopped by a piece of paper but is a significant internal hazard?

A

Alpha radiation.

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195
Q

A high-speed electron is also known as what kind of ionizing radiation?

A

Beta radiation.

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196
Q

What type of particle is released in the decay process when a neutron transforms into a proton?

A

Beta particle.

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197
Q

What is the QF of alpha radiation?

A

20.

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198
Q

What type of ionizing radiation will continue through any medium until it has a chance encounter with an atom?

A

Gamma radiation.

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199
Q

What type of ionizing radiation requires the densest shielding?

A

Gamma radiation.

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200
Q

Radiation Activity Equation

A

decays/time

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201
Q

Rem

A

QF x Rad

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201
Q

What is the effective half-life a combination of?

A

Radiological and biological half-lives.

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201
Q

ALARA

A

As low as reasonably achievable.

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202
Q

What are the 3 primary control methods for radiation?

A

Time, distance, and shielding.

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203
Q

What are two preferred shields for Beta radiation?

A

Glass and plastic.

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204
Q

Why is using high atomic mass shielding for Beta radiation not a good idea?

A

When Beta particles hit atoms of high atomic number, x-rays are created (Bremsstrahlung radiation).

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205
Q

What two units should we look for in radiation shielding equations?

A

HVL and TVL.

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206
Q

What is the dividing light emission time between a continuous wave laser and a pulsed laser?

A

0.25 seconds

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207
Q

Irradiance Calculation

A

E=Power/Area

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208
Q

What part of the body is most vulnerable to a laser?

A

Eyes.

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209
Q

“Penetration increases as wavelength increases” is true of what physical hazards?

A

Noise and lasers.

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210
Q

What is the safest class of laser?

A

Class 1.

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211
Q

When it comes to radiation, which two variables are inversely proportional to each other?

A

Wavelength and frequency.

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212
Q

Is heating of tissue a major concern for ionizing or non-ionizing radiation?

A

Non-ionizing radiation.

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213
Q

What does brackets around an equation denote?

A

Metric units.

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214
Q

What are the two primary types of ventilation?

A

Local exhaust and dilution.

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215
Q

What is the temperature when using STP?

A

21.2 C

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216
Q

In ventilation, area is inversely proportional to what?

A

Velocity.

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217
Q

Velocity pressure is considered to be what kind of energy?

A

Kinetic energy.

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218
Q

Static pressure is considered to be what kind of energy?

A

Potential energy.

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219
Q

What kind of pressure is always greater than or equal to 0?

A

Velocity pressure.

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220
Q

What causes air to move?

A

Change in static pressure.

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221
Q

In what manner does air move?

A

From high pressure to low.

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222
Q

At what point in a ventilation system is static pressure and total pressure the lowest?

A

Right before the fan.

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223
Q

At what point in a ventilation system is static pressure and total pressure
the highest?

A

Right after the fan.

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224
Q

What kind of pressure stays constant throughout a ventilation system?

A

Velocity pressure.

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225
Q

In a ventilation system, is TP positive or negative before the fan?

A

Negative.

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226
Q

An external hood is good for which kinds of hazards?

A

Heat and steam, etc.

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227
Q

Coefficient of Entry

A

Measure of how efficient the hood is at accelerating the air.

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228
Q

What coefficient of entry represents perfect efficiency?

A

1.

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229
Q

What coefficient of entry represents perfect inefficiency?

A

0.

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230
Q

When using a pitot tube, what does the outer tube measure?

A

Total pressure.

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231
Q

When using a pitot tube, what do the side vents measure?

A

Static pressure.

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232
Q

In a ventilation duct, where is laminar flow most likely to be found?

A

In the middle, away from the walls.

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233
Q

What is the ideal probe placement for a pitot tube?

A

7 or more duct diameters downstream from elbows, duct entries, or other obstructions, or 3 duct diameters upstream.

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234
Q

Capture Velocity

A

The minimum hood-induced air velocity necessary to capture and convey the contaminant into the hood.

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235
Q

What is one way to increase capture efficiency?

A

Add flanges.

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236
Q

Q’

A

Q/mi

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237
Q

What does a mixing factor of 1 indicate?

A

Perfect mixing.

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238
Q

What type of fan is best for moving particles and heavy loads?

A

Radial impeller.

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239
Q

What type of fan blade is the quietest?

A

Backward curved blade.

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240
Q

What type of fan blade is used in HVAC and dilution ventilation?

A

Forward curve blade.

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241
Q

Xenobiotic

A

Foreign chemical to the body not produced by the body or expected to be there.

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242
Q

Toxicant

A

Substance that interferes with the normal functions of the body.

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243
Q

Toxin

A

Toxicant produced by living organisms.

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244
Q

LOAEL

A

Lowest observable adverse effect level.

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245
Q

What does a shallow dose response curve indicate?

A

Wide variability in animal response.

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246
Q

What is the fundamental principle of toxicology?

A

“Dose makes the poison.”

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247
Q

Sub-chronic exposures occur over what time frame?

A

2-3 days to 2-3 weeks.

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248
Q

Latency Period

A

Amount of time between first exposure and onset of disease.

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249
Q

Which chemical exposure causes the nervous system to become excited?

A

Carbon tetrachloride.

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250
Q

What is an example of an additive effect?

A

Malathion and Parathion.

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251
Q

Potentiating Effect

A

When a substance that normally has no toxic effect becomes toxic in the presence of another substance.

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252
Q

Antagonistic Effect

A

When chemicals interfere with the effects of one another.

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253
Q

What is an example of a potentiating effect?

A

Benzos and alcohol.

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254
Q

In Vitro

A

Experiment conducted in an artificial environment.

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255
Q

How are water soluble substances processed in the body?

A

They go directly from the small intestine to the liver via blood.

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256
Q

Which exposure route through which chemicals go tends to be most toxic?

A

The route that results in the greatest entry (often the lungs).

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257
Q

Teratogen

A

Substance that causes birth defects in a developing embryo or fetus.

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258
Q

What industries might Beryllium be found in?

A

Aerospace, electronics, nuclear, and metal and ceramic manufacturing.

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259
Q

Can Beryllium ever be removed from the body?

A

No.

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260
Q

Synergistic Effect

A

When the total effects of two different chemicals is greater than their individual effects.

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261
Q

What is the primary exposure route for Beryllium?

A

Inhalation.

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262
Q

Which chemical was used in old fire extinguishers and as a refrigerant and cleaning agent?

A

Carbon tetrachloride.

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263
Q

Berylliosis

A

Occupational lung disease caused by exposure to Beryllium particles.

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264
Q

What chemical has the odor of chloroform?

A

Methylene chloride.

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265
Q

What is the largest use of lead in the 21st century?

A

Lead-acid battery production.

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266
Q

Additive Effect

A

Effect of two separate chemicals acting independently.

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267
Q

Which chemical agent can cross the blood-brain barrier by posing as Calcium?

A

Lead.

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268
Q

What is an example of a synergistic effect?

A

Asbestos exposure and smoking tobacco.

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269
Q

What is an example of an antagonistic effect?

A

Ethanol and Methanol.

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270
Q

What industries may use Mercury?

A

Chemical manufacturing and electrical/electronic industries.

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271
Q

What is the primary route of exposure for Mercury?

A

Inhalation.

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272
Q

How does lead exposure affect the blood?

A

It interferes with red and white blood cell production.

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273
Q

What kind of cancer is associated with steel pickling?

A

Laryngeal cancer.

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274
Q

Pickling

A

Metal surface treatment used to remove impurities, such as stains, inorganic contaminants, and rust or scale from ferrous metals.

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275
Q

Liver damage is the chronic effect of which chemical?

A

Carbon tetrachloride.

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276
Q

What is systemic toxicity?

A

When adverse effects affect the entire system.

277
Q

What kind of rock is coal?

A

Sedimentary (soft).

278
Q

RCS, noise, diesel exhaust, and poor ergonomic conditions are typical of what industry?

279
Q

When coal mining, what are two chemicals to keep an eye on?

A

Methane and Hydrogen sulfide.

280
Q

In what kind of mine is the entire environment flammable?

A

Coal mine.

281
Q

In which industries might exposure to lead be a possibility?

A

Battery manufacturing, mining and smelting, disposal, and recycling.

282
Q

What two cancers are Nickel exposure linked to?

A

Nasal and lung cancer.

283
Q

What are the two primary target organs of Mercury in addition to the lungs?

A

CNS and kidneys.

284
Q

Minamata Disease and Pink Disease (Acrodynia) result in exposures to what metal?

285
Q

ADME

A

Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion.

286
Q

Brief and Scala Method

A

Used to reduce exposure limits according to a Reduction Factor (RF).

287
Q

When should you use the TLV mix equations?

A

When the chemicals have the same target organs.

288
Q

Vapor Hazard Ratio

A

Quantitative term that compares the concentration of solvent vapor at its source to the acceptable concentration at the breathing zone.

289
Q

What class of chemicals forms acids when bonded to Hydrogen?

290
Q

Name four halogens:

A

Fluorine, Bromine, Chlorine, and Iodine.

291
Q

Simple Asphyxiant

A

Displaces oxygen in the atmosphere.

292
Q

Chemical Asphyxiant

A

Prevents oxygen from reaching the cells.

293
Q

What are two examples of a chemical asphixiant?

A

CO, H2S, and Cyanides.

294
Q

Byssinosis is a result of exposure to what agent?

A

Cotton dust.

295
Q

In what industry is byssinosis likely to occur?

A

Agriculture.

296
Q

Bronchiolitis obliterans

A

“Popcorn Lung,” a disease caused by the inhalation of Diacetyl.

297
Q

Mesothelioma is associated with what airborne analyte?

298
Q

Hot Work may be the source of what metal fume?

A

Hexavalent chromium Cr(VI)

299
Q

In which industries might Nickel exposure be an issue?

A

Stainless steel production and electroplating and surface finishing.

300
Q

Cardiomyopathy and asthma are associated with which chemical exposure?

301
Q

Chest tightening and coughing are symptoms of what occupational illness?

A

Byssinosis.

302
Q

Sinonasal cancer and asthma are associated with which chemical exposure?

A

Hexavalent chromium.

303
Q

In what industries is Hexavalent chromium likely to be found?

A

Electroplating, welding, painting, and metal finishing.

304
Q

Aluminum dust is primarily associated with what occupational illness?

A

Pneumoconiosis.

305
Q

What is pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Progressive lung disease characterized by the thickening and scarring (fibrosis) of lung tissue.

306
Q

Pulmonary Fibrosis is a result of exposure to what kind of analyte?

A

Particulate matter.

307
Q

What industry is Diacetyl likely to be found in?

A

Food manufacturing.

308
Q

What is an urticarial reaction also known as?

309
Q

Printer’s Asthma (Pneumoconiosis) is caused by:

A

Gum of acacia.

310
Q

Pneumoconioses caused by Iron oxide is known as:

A

Siderosis.

311
Q

What are the four types of proliferative types of Pneumoconiosis?

A

Silicosis, Asbestosis, Anthracosis (Black Lung), and Shaver’s Disease (Aluminum).

312
Q

What organs comprise the CNS?

A

Brain and spinal cord.

313
Q

Nephrotoxic

A

Toxicity in the kidneys.

314
Q

Bauxite is also known as:

A

Aluminum ore.

315
Q

The kidneys are target organs of which two heavy metals?

A

Mercury and Cadmium.

316
Q

Twitching, weakness, and tremors are all symptoms of what class of chemicals?

A

Organophosphates.

317
Q

Cholinesterase inhibition is associated with what class of chemicals?

A

Organophosphates.

318
Q

DDT, Chlordane, Aldrin, and Kepone all belong to what class of chemicals?

A

Organochlorines.

319
Q

Organochlorines target which organs?

A

CNS, liver, and kidney.

320
Q

Where are organochlorines stored in the body?

321
Q

“Cyan”-ide means what?

A

Blue, as in blue in the face.

322
Q

Drilling, casing in steel pipe, fracking, extraction, and transportation/refinement describes what process?

A

Oil drilling.

323
Q

RCS is a major hazard in which oil & gas process?

324
Q

Tetraethyl lead and Arsenic may be a hazard in which oil & gas situation?

A

Working around storage tanks.

325
Q

What trio of industries are the most lethal?

A

Agriculture, forestry, and fishing.

326
Q

Hepatoxic

A

Toxicity in the liver.

327
Q

Vinyl chloride, Carbon tetrachloride, Arsenic, and Alcohols all target which organ?

327
Q

What organs do organic solvents target?

A

CNS (depression), liver, kidneys, and skin.

328
Q

What organic solvent seeks out bone marrow?

329
Q

What kind of asphyxiant are cyanides?

A

Chemical asphyxiant.

330
Q

Hydrogen sulfide is what kind of asphyxiant?

A

Chemical asphyxiant.

330
Q

Where might you be exposed to Hydrogen sulfide in the fishing industry?

A

Brine tanks.

331
Q

Widow Maker

A

Broken limb.

332
Q

Pesticides, insecticides, and cotton or other aerosols are commonly found in which industry?

A

Agriculture.

333
Q

Bauxite

A

Aluminum ore.

334
Q

Electrolytic production, grinding, hot caustic, and precipitation describe what process?

A

Aluminum manufacturing.

335
Q

What kind of electrical current is used to reduce alumina to Aluminum and Oxygen?

A

High amperage and low voltage.

336
Q

What are some of the hazards of aluminum production?

A

Bauxite dust, alkaline exposure from caustic bath, CO, CO2, and PAH’s.

337
Q

How is steel made from iron?

A

Adding alloys and reducing the Carbon content.

338
Q

Coke

A

Heated coal in a vacuum (no air).

339
Q

Extreme heat, dust, metal fumes, Carbon disulfide, CO and Benzene exposure are linked to what piece of equipment?

A

Coke oven.

340
Q

Acid mists, specifically Sulfuric acid, are associated with what metal refining process?

341
Q

What does pickling do to the metal?

A

Removes oxides.

342
Q

Hydrogen gas is released during which part of metal finishing?

A

Electrolytic cleaning.

343
Q

In electroplating, which electrode is the working piece?

344
Q

Electrolyte

A

Metal salt dissolved in water.

345
Q

Metal acid mists, cyanide salt solutions, and acid baths are hazards that are found in which industry?

A

Electroplating.

346
Q

Separating sulfur is a primary goal of this metal refining process:

A

Copper and Lead smelting.

347
Q

The pouring of molten metal into a mold of refractory sand and binder is performed where?

348
Q

Metal Fume Fever

A

Flu-like symptoms after exposure to fumes and dust.

349
Q

Brass foundries and high-temperature zinc coating processes may be sources of what occupational illness?

A

Metal fume fever.

350
Q

Miosis is a symptom of exposure to what class of chemicals?

A

Organophosphates.

351
Q

Metal fume fever is listed as the TLV basis for which 3 chemicals?

A

Zinc oxide, Magnesium oxide, and Copper.

352
Q

Shielded metal arc welding (SMA) is also known as what?

A

“Stick” or electrode welding.

353
Q

Which type of welding may exposure a worker to halogens?

A

Shielded metal arc (SMA)/Stick.

354
Q

Which method of welding produces the most metal fumes?

A

Plasma welding.

355
Q

Which method of welding produces the least amount of metal fumes?

A

Submerged Arc Welding (SAW).

356
Q

Does MIG or TIG welding produce more metal fumes?

357
Q

What is skin reddening and “Arc Eye” a result of?

A

UV-B radiation exposure.

358
Q

What kind of welding is associated with aircraft manufacturing?

A

Tungsten Inert Gas (TIG) welding.

359
Q

Why does TIG welding stand for “Tungsten Inert Gas?”

A

Argon or Helium is fed around the electrode to provide a gas shield.

360
Q

Bagassosis

A

Type of hypersensitivity pneumonitis attributed to exposure to moldy molasses or bagasse dust.

361
Q

Epicondylitis is also known as what?

A

Tennis elbow.

362
Q

Which welding method frequently uses CO2 for shielding?

A

Metal Inert Gas (MIG) welding.

363
Q

What is the difference between MIG and TIG welding?

A

MIG welding uses a consumable wire as the electrode.

364
Q

Which welding method utilizes shielding provided by covering the weld with granular, fusible, flux?

A

Submerged Arc Welding (SAW).

365
Q

Which kind of welding uses a non-consumable tungsten electrode?

A

Tungsten inert gas (TIG) welding.

366
Q

Metal casting describes the process that occurs where?

A

Foundry operations.

367
Q

What is the difference between drop hammer forging and press forging?

A

Drop hammer forging uses a vertical ram and multiple strokes, while a press forge uses a hydraulic ram in a single stroke.

368
Q

What process can produce noise up to 140 dBA?

A

Drop hammer forging.

369
Q

What percentage of forges in the U.S. are press forges?

370
Q

Mineral oil, cutting oil, and emulsified oil may be found in which industry?

A

Metal machining.

370
Q

Lubricants are a hazard for which prosess?

371
Q

Hydrogen fluoride, fluoride particles, and dust may indicate exposure to which type of welding fume?

A

Submerged Arc Welding (SAW) fume.

372
Q

Sulfur dioxide, silica dust, heat, and arsenic are exposures that may be found in which industry?

373
Q

Which welding method requires temperatures in excess of 60,000 F?

A

Plasma Arc Welding (PAW).

374
Q

What type of welding is generally used for light sheet metal?

A

Gas (oxyacetylene) welding.

375
Q

Aluminum oxide and Silicon compounds are associated with what metal finishing processes?

A

Grinding, polishing, and buffing metals.

376
Q

What happens in distillation towers?

A

Low-boiling point cuts vaporize, rising upward, while high-boiling point cuts condense into lower trays.

377
Q

Acids, caustics, cyanides, radiation, metals, and toxic gases may all be found in which industry?

A

Semiconductor manufacturing.

378
Q

“Poly” is a buzzword for what industry?

A

Plastics manufacturing.

379
Q

PVC production is associated with what health outcome?

380
Q

What is one of the primary health hazards associated with abrasive blasting?

A

Silicosis.

381
Q

Trichloroethylene and Methylene chloride are associated with what process?

A

Degreasing.

382
Q

Degreasers Flush

A

Red blotchy skin that results when alcohol increases TCE toxicity at the time of consumption.

383
Q

Exposure to what class of chemicals is associated with painting?

384
Q

“Face breaks the plane” refers to what type of hazard?

A

Confined space.

385
Q

Which type of arc welding can lead to HF exposures?

386
Q

What percentage of the atmosphere is Oxygen?

387
Q

What percentage of the atmosphere is Nitrogen?

388
Q

What are the two sources of air pollution?

A

Natural and fuel and energy production.

389
Q

What kind of permit may require constant monitoring?

A

Air permit.

390
Q

What is the rule of thumb when doing isokinetic sampling?

A

The sampler and stack velocity need to be the same.

391
Q

When sampling a stack, what will happen if the sampling speed is too slow?

A

Large particles will be overestimated and small particles underestimated.

392
Q

When sampling a stack, what will happen if the sampling speed is too fast?

A

Small particles will be overestimated, and large particles underestimated.

393
Q

BDAT

A

Best Developed Available Technology (ALARA equivalent).

394
Q

What is the issue when using Maximum Achievable Control Technology (MACT) as a standard?

395
Q

What was the earliest form of pollution control?

396
Q

Effective Stack Height

A

Actual height of stack plus additional plume rise.

397
Q

Adiabatic Lapse Rate

A

Temperature change rate in elevation with no heat exchange for dry air.

398
Q

Inversion

A

Phenomenon of temperature increasing as the altitude increases (then decreasing above the inversion).

399
Q

What method does a baghouse use to clean the air?

A

Filtration.

400
Q

What is one major disadvantage of using a baghouse?

A

Temperature restrictions.

401
Q

What particle size range can a baghouse handle?

A

> .25 microns.

402
Q

When using cyclones to control air pollution, what is a major disadvantage?

A

Inefficiency.

403
Q

What temperature restrictions apply when using a cyclone for pollution control?

404
Q

What particle sizes can a cyclone pollution control device handle?

A

> 10 microns.

405
Q

What kind of pollution control device is often used by power plants?

A

Electrostatic precipitator.

406
Q

What kind of pollution control device uses low, uniform flow, and is not efficient?

A

Settling chamber.

407
Q

How does an air scrubber work?

A

It adheres water to particles to increase their relative size so that the cyclone can collect more particles.

408
Q

What size particles can a venturi scrubber handle?

A

> 1 micron.

409
Q

What size particle can a settling chamber handle?

A

> 5 microns.

410
Q

How does adsorption work in pollution control?

A

Vapors and gases adsorb onto the surface of a porous medium.

411
Q

What is the disadvantage of adsorption as a pollution control method?

A

Doesn’t work at high temperature’s.

412
Q

How does an absorber pollution control device work?

A

Liquid collects gases and vapors and then the liquid is recycled.

413
Q

How does a condenser pollution control device work?

A

Cooling coils are used to condense vapor to liquid which is then run off.

414
Q

What are the two sources of water pollution?

A

Storm water runoff and point sources.

415
Q

How does a clarifier work?

A

Flocculants help settle solids (slightly basic).

416
Q

Kyoto Protocol

A

Treaty to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

417
Q

LEED

A

Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design.

418
Q

What is the hierarchy of response in a civil disturbance situation?

A

Run, hide, fight.

419
Q

What does the “Span of Control” refer to?

A

Leadership structure in an incident command system.

420
Q

What are the defining features of Level A PPE?

A

SCBA and vapor-tight suit.

421
Q

When dealing with hazardous materials, two layers of protection are used. What is the inner layer used for?

A

Chemical hazards.

422
Q

Ergonomics

A

“Fitting the job to the worker.”

423
Q

For what percentage of the population do we design a workstation?

A

90% - 5th to 95th percentile.

424
Q

What is an important quality in an Incident Commander?

A

They understand the risks of working in emergency response gear.

425
Q

What is the defining feature of Level C PPE?

A

Air-purifying respirator.

426
Q

What level of respiratory protection does Level D PPE include?

427
Q

When dealing with hazardous materials, two layers of protection are used. What is the outer layer used for?

A

Physical hazards.

428
Q

Tendon

A

Connects muscle to bone.

429
Q

Ligament

A

Connects bone to bone.

430
Q

What level of PPE would you use for an unknown contaminant?

431
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

A

Trauma disorder caused by light, repetitive motions of wrists and fingers.

432
Q

In workstation design, what should maximal forces be kept to?

A

Less than 30%.

433
Q

What standing work height is recommended for light work?

A

2 - 4” below the elbow.

434
Q

Illumination

A

Amount of light hitting a given source.

435
Q

Metabolic Heat

A

Energy generated while the body is being active.

436
Q

Hot and dry skin, confusion, loss of consciousness, and convulsions are all symptoms of what?

A

Heat stroke.

437
Q

What is the severity level of heat stroke?

A

Medical emergency.

438
Q

When do fans cease to be an effective method of preventing heat illnesses?

A

When the ambient temperature exceeds body temperature.

439
Q

Trenchfoot

A

Type of foot damage caused by prolonged (several days) exposure to cold and damp conditions.

440
Q

Frostbite

A

Freezing of body tissue.

441
Q

What is a baghouse equipped to filter?

A

Particulates and aerosols.

442
Q

What type of contaminants are removed by an absorber?

A

Gases and vapors.

443
Q

In frostbite cases, what is the damage dependent on?

A

Depth of freezing.

444
Q

In incident response, what level of training must the decontamination team hold at least?

A

The same level or one step down as the entry team.

445
Q

General lowering of core body temperature, shivering, numbness, confusion, and amnesia are all signs of what?

A

Hypothermia.

446
Q

Mild hypothermia core temperature:

A

35 C (95 F).

447
Q

Moderate hypothermia core temperature:

A

32 C (89.6 F).

448
Q

Heat Hyperpyrexia

A

Less severe form of heatstroke.

449
Q

Heat Cramps

A

Painful muscle cramps during or following work in hot conditions caused by loss of body salts through sweating.

450
Q

What is the treatment for heat fatigue?

A

Acclimitization.

451
Q

Swelling of tendons causing pinching of the median nerve describes what condition?

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome.

452
Q

Phalen’s Test is used to help diagnose which condition?

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome.

453
Q

DeQuervain’s Syndrome

A

Special case of tenosynovitis at the base of the thumb cause by gripping and hand twisting.

454
Q

What is the best reference for occupational vibration?

455
Q

“Trigger finger” is a special case of what condition?

A

Tenosynovitis.

456
Q

Raynaud’s Syndrome

A

Also known as “white finger,” Raynaud’s occurs when insufficient blood supply causes blanching and arteries are closed due to vasospasms triggered by vibration.

457
Q

What is the acceleration range for hand-arm vibration?

A

4 - 13 m/s2

458
Q

CTD

A

Cumulative trauma disorder.

459
Q

In material handling, is horizontal movement or vertical movement less stressful for the employee?

A

Horizontal.

460
Q

What are the four ergonomic TLV’s?

A

Hand activity level, lifting, hand-arm vibration, and whole-body vibration.

461
Q

In the lifting index equation, what does L equal?

A

Actual weight.

462
Q

What kind of operator are foot controls good for and what kind of operator are they not good for?

A

Good for seated employees, bad for standing employees.

463
Q

Finklestein’s Test is used to evaluate what condition?

A

DeQuervain’s Syndrome.

464
Q

What causes Epicondylitis?

A

Impacting or jerky throwing motions and repeated forceful wrist extensions.

465
Q

Tendinitis

A

Inflammation of the tendons caused by repeated tension, motion, bending, and contact with vibration.

466
Q

Severe hypothermia core temperature:

A

28 C (82.4 F).

467
Q

At what temperature does tissue freeze?

468
Q

Excessive sweating, fatigue, nausea, cold clammy skin, and headache or giddiness are signs of what condition?

A

Heat exhaustion.

469
Q

Heat Syncope

A

Non-acclimatized persons standing in the heat faint and blood flow is reduced to the brain.

470
Q

When managing cold stress, what body core temperature is it important to maintain?

471
Q

When managing cold stress, at what temperature should adequate insulation be used?

472
Q

What makes a confidence interval statistically significant?

A

It excludes 1.

473
Q

The TLV’s for cold stress are intended to prevent a worker’s core body temperature from dropping below what?

474
Q

Which frequency will typically be the first to be lost by an employee overexposed to noise?

475
Q

Which hand position puts the greatest stress on the carpal tunnel?

476
Q

What type of adsorbent is appropriate for sampling a chemical in air with humidity up to 90%?

A

Silica gel.

477
Q

What air cleaning device is used to remove coarse heavy materials from an airstream?

478
Q

Which part of the ear is damaged from chronic high noise exposure?

479
Q

What is the recommended duct velocity in an LEV system removing a vapor?

A

1,000 fpm.

480
Q

What is the TLV generally regarded as?

A

The level of exposure that most people can be exposed to throughout their working career and not suffer significant health effects.

481
Q

This compound may be used as a biocide in paint.

A

Formaldehyde.

482
Q

Medical procedure that uses a chelating agent to remove heavy metals and minerals from the body through urine

A

Chelation therapy.

483
Q

What aerodynamic diameter of particulate matter reaches the alveoli about 50% of the time?

484
Q

Which level of protection in working with a hazardous materials spill is appropriate for a substance that does not pose an inhalation hazard, but poses a mild dermal absorption risk?

485
Q

For what height range of workers is the typical workstation designed?

A

5th percentile to 95th percentile.

486
Q

Which substance is metabolized into CO?

A

Carbon tetrachloride.

487
Q

When is dilution ventilation an appropriate method to control concentrations of airborne contaminants for a new process?

A

When existing ventilation rates are relatively low.

488
Q

Who is responsible to ensure a manufacturing facility has minimized occupational health risks?

A

Plant manager.

489
Q

What is the first step in creating a training program?

A

Assess the training needs of the facility.

490
Q

When assessing IAQ, what exposure standard is most appropriate for comparison?

A

EPA Indoor Air Quality Recommendations.

491
Q

A welder in the presence of TCE and Methyl chloroform may be exposed to what gas?

492
Q

What is considered to be a con-occupational risk factor for MSD’s?

A

Endocrinological disorders.

493
Q

What should workstations be designed to do?

A

Minimize required static forces of the operator.

494
Q

What biosafety level is appropriate for studying a virus incapable of causing disease in a healthy adult human?

495
Q

Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (Mad Cow Disease) is caused by what kind of agent?

496
Q

What produces mycotoxins?

497
Q

Which animal is a vector for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

498
Q

What is the best control device for Chlorine gas?

499
Q

Which type of control device is best at removing PM2.5?

A

Electrostatic precipitator.

500
Q

What is likely to happen if the sampling velocity in a stack is higher than the actual velocity in the stack?

A

Small particles will be over sampled, large particles will be under-sampled.

501
Q

What type of water pollutants are removed with a clarifier?

502
Q

What is the active spill location called when setting up site control for a hazardous material emergency?

A

Exclusion zone.

503
Q

Which disease is an occupational hazard for meat packers working with rabbits?

A

Tularemia (Rabbit fever).

504
Q

What method is commonly used to decontaminate biohazard waste?

A

Autoclave.

505
Q

Which gas may be used to completely decontaminate a BSL-3?

A

Formaldehyde.

506
Q

What are indoor sources of formaldehyde exposure?

A

Building materials and carpet.

507
Q

What are some sources of indoor VOC exposure?

A

Solvents and paint.

508
Q

Which type of respirator should be used to protect against IDLH atmospheres?

509
Q

What level of protection would be required when responding to a spill of contaminant that is a mild airborne inhalation irritant?

510
Q

What exposure can be detected by blood sample taken within minutes of the exposure?

511
Q

Decompression sickness (“the bends”) is also known as what?

A

Caisson disease.

512
Q

When an inhalable and respirable PEL exists for an analyte, and the particle size is < 10 um, what sampler should be used?

A

IOM sampler.

513
Q

Where is the radial tunnel on the body?

A

Top of the forearm.

514
Q

Pain, tingling, and numbness on the pinky side of the hand could indicate which condition?

A

Guyon’s Canal Syndrome.

515
Q

What kind of gloves are best suited for acids and bases?

516
Q

What level of PPE protection provides a vapor-tight barrier of protection against dermal risks?

517
Q

When should Level B PPE be used?

A

When the highest level of respiratory protection is required, but a lower level of skin protection is needed.

518
Q

Bacteria size

519
Q

What is an organism composed of simple, naked DNA chromosome(s) without a nuclear membrane?

520
Q

Virus size

A

20 - 300 nm

521
Q

How do fungi digest food?

A

By secreting enzymes outside the body.

522
Q

Parasite

A

Organism that takes sustenance from a host.

523
Q

Rickettsia

A

Parasite living within the cells of ticks and mites that is responsible for diseases such as Rocky Mountain Fever.

524
Q

Prion

A

Protein without a nucleus that are infectious.

525
Q

What are some examples of prion-created diseases?

A

Mad cow disease and Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease.

526
Q

What is the TLV for biohazards?

A

There is no TLV established for biohazards.

527
Q

RETER

A

Reservoir
Escape from reservoir
Transmission
Entry into new host
Reinfection

528
Q

What is the philosophy for dealing with biohazards?

A

Break the chain of infection (RETER).

529
Q

What BSL is utilized for defined, well-characterized organisms with no known or potential hazards?

530
Q

At what BSL level is open bench work allowed and no special competence required?

531
Q

What kind of agents are classified as BSL 2?

A

Indigenous agents of moderate risk.

532
Q

Which BSL level requires that the supervisor be a competent scientist, technician be trained at a college level, and access be limited while work is in progress?

533
Q

Dangerous, exotic agents that have a high risk of life-threatening disease and require workers to use full-body, air supplied, positive pressure suits are classified at what BSL?

534
Q

Indigenous or exotic agents that have a definite risk of infection where the disease may be very serious or fatal would be classified as what BSL?

535
Q

What are the characteristics of a BSC 1?

A

Minimum flow rate of 75 fpm and exhausts through HEPA filter to the outside.

535
Q

What is the difference between a BSC Type A and Type B?

A

BSC Type A has a common plenum and requires 75 fpm while Type B requires 100 fpm.

536
Q

What are the characteristics of a BSC 3?

A

No minimum intake, glove ports, autoclave, and HEPA supply and exhaust.

537
Q

What is the source of fungal diseases such as Histoplasmosis and Blastomycosis?

A

Mycotoxins.

538
Q

Q Fever, Anthrax, and Tularemia are associated with what work processes?

A

Handling animal hair or rough leather.

538
Q

Ornithosis and Psittacosis are associated with what work processes?

A

Working with birds.

539
Q

What bacterial disease is transmitted through infectious droplet nuclei in the air from coughing, sneezing, etc.

A

Tuberculosis.

540
Q

What disease is associated with devices that produce waterborne aerosols (mists)?

A

Legionnaires disease.

541
Q

What is the latency period for Legionnaire’s Disease?

A

2 to 10 days.

542
Q

EPA action level for Radon:

543
Q

Construction materials, furnishings, wood in mobile homes, etc. are potentially IAQ sources of what chemical exposure?

A

Formaldehyde.

544
Q

Formaldehyde is known for what chronic effects?

A

Nasopharyngeal cancer and it is a known carcinogen.

545
Q

What chemical is the product of incomplete combustion of hydrocarbons?

546
Q

Colorless gas (oxidizer) with pungent, characteristic odor that is produced by electrical arcs and chemical reactions and is also found naturally is known as what?

547
Q

Hazards of Ozone?

A

Respiratory and psychological effects at higher concentrations.

548
Q

Half-face APR

549
Q

Full-face APR

550
Q

PAPR (loose-fitting) APR

551
Q

PAPR (tight-fitting) APR

552
Q

Airline APF

553
Q

What is the range of human hearing?

A

20 Hz - 20,000 Hz.

553
Q

What is the equation for calculating the frequency of a fan?

A

f=(N)(RPM)/60

553
Q

Loudness of sound is known as what?

A

Amplitude.

554
Q

Octave band

A

Range of frequencies where upper frequency is twice the lower frequency.

555
Q

What frequency in sound is lost first by humans?

A

High frequencies.

556
Q

Standard Threshold Shift

A

10 dB+ drop in the 2,000, 3,000, or 4,000 Hz range in either ear.

556
Q

Who establishes the occupational exposure limits for biological agents?

A

No one, there are no established OEL’s for biological agents.

556
Q

Which form of ionizing radiation produces the greatest amount of damage in the body?

A

Alpha radiation.

557
Q

Monitoring, analysis, and evaluation falls under which step of PDCA?

558
Q

What analyte reduces to pure form through electrolytic reduction and exposes workers to polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, fluorides, and CO?

559
Q

Which 3 constituents need to be monitored before entering a confined space?

A

Oxygen, CO, and LEL.

560
Q

What is the effect on captured particle size when the flow rate is higher than it is supposed to be?

A

Small particles will be over-sampled, large particles will be under-sampled.

561
Q

Healthy Worker Effect

A

Workers are generally healthier than the general population because they must meet certain health standards to be employed, which can skew the results of various studies.

562
Q

What is the first step in developing a training program?

A

Needs assessment.

563
Q

What is an example of a measurable training goal?

A

Participants will be able to identify 5 hazards on an SDS.

564
Q

SMART

A

Specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time bound.

565
Q

What was H.W. Heinrich’s contribution to the safety field?

A

Unsafe acts cause 88% of accidents, with the remainder caused by unsafe conditions or acts of God.

566
Q

Who developed Theory X and Theory Y?

A

Douglas McGregor.

567
Q

Theory X

A

Employees do not like work, prefer to be led, and avoid responsibility.

568
Q

Theory Y

A

Employees want to do a good job and are self-actualized.

569
Q

Frederick Herzberg’s Hygiene theory talks about what?

A

Building satisfaction and motivation into a job.

570
Q

Chris Argyris’s Incongruency theory talks about what?

A

Incongruency happens when an individual’s self-image doesn’t align with external expectations, and the solution is to promote autonomy and self-leadership.

571
Q

What ISO standard contains quality management system requirements?

572
Q

Which ISO standard contains environmental management requirements?

A

ISO 14000.

573
Q

Which ISO standard contains the requirements for occupational health and safety?

A

ISO 45001.

574
Q

What quality management model is used for EHS?

575
Q

Risk

A

Measure of the probability and severity of a negative event.

576
Q

What is the safe level for ionizing radiation?

A

There is none.

576
Q

What is the concept of “acceptable risk?”

A

People are more willing to accept higher risk levels when it is their choice.

577
Q

Which BSL containment level is appropriate for work involving moderate-risk indigenous agents associated with human disease?

578
Q

While performing an IH assessment, a CIH needed some information on the chemical he was sampling for. What is the best source for this?

A

NIOSH Pocket guide.

579
Q

Sociacusis

A

Hearing loss caused by social or environmental factors.

580
Q

Nosoacusis

A

Hearing loss caused by disease.

581
Q

Primary pollutant

A

Pollutant emitted directly from a source into the atmosphere.

582
Q

Secondary pollutant

A

Pollutant that forms in the atmosphere through chemical reactions of primary pollutants.

583
Q

When using a Class II BSC, how much air is exhausted outside through the HEPA filter?

584
Q

What is the best option for shielding neutron radiation?

A

Water to slow down the neutrons and boron to absorb them.

585
Q

Which sterilization method is likely to be used when decontaminating a BSL 3 laboratory?

A

Formaldehyde fumigation.

586
Q

What method of decontamination is used in the biosafety field for general applications?

A

Vaporized Hydrogen peroxide.

587
Q

According to ACGIH, what is the highest core body temperature defined as hypothermia?

588
Q

What is the best method to measure worker’s exposure to respirable particulate matter over an 8-hour shift?

A

MCE cassette with a cyclone and personal sampling pump.

589
Q

What is the established standard of quality for safety glasses?

A

ANSI Z87.1.

590
Q

When using too high a flow rate in air sampling, what is the effect on particle size cutpoint?

A

The particle size cut point will decrease.

591
Q

Which type of welding is most likely to produce high exposures to ozone?

A

Plasma arc welding.

592
Q

What is the minimum recommended frequency of pauses in physical activity allowing a worker to stretch?

A

At least once per hour.

593
Q

Miosis

A

Pupil contraction.

594
Q

Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)

A

Type of analysis used to rapidly detect and identify biological hazards.

595
Q

What type of airborne filtration is typically required for work environments, such as firefighting or military, in which there are or could be various unknown airborne hazards?

A

CBRN canisters.

596
Q

CBRN

A

Chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear.

597
Q

Where should the computer monitor be placed at an office workstation?

A

At eye level and at right angles to nearby windows.

598
Q

Which tropospheric air contaminant is produced through the reaction of oxides of Nitrogen, organic vapors, and Oxygen within the ambient atmosphere, when exposed to sunlight?

599
Q

Which type of glove provides the best chemical protection for the aldehyde chemical family?

600
Q

Which biosafety level for a bioresearch lab requires complete separation of the lab from other occupies spaces?

601
Q

What is the reference value for sound pressure level (Po)?

A

20 uPa or .0002 microbars.

602
Q

Miosis is associated with what organ in the body?

603
Q

Ototoxic

A

Something that damages the inner ear.

604
Q

What substance is considered to have ototoxic properties by ACGIH?

605
Q

What is the purpose of a Gantt chart?

A

It organizes project schedules.

606
Q

What is the correct level of protection for responding to an emergency release of a material posing a potentially lethal health hazard by inhalation, but poses no dermal risk?

607
Q

Which type of welding creates the most noise?

608
Q

Tubular proteinuria is associated with exposure to what heavy metal?

608
Q

What is the major advantage of collecting viable biological samples?

A

The majority of the spores can determine the species level.

609
Q

What is the purpose of a training program needs assessment?

A

To determine if training is the solution to the problem.

610
Q

What is the primary purpose of a biosafety program?

A

Implement controls to break the chain of infection.

611
Q

According to the ACGIH TLV, what is the preferred measure of heat strain?

A

Core body temperature.

612
Q

Which metal may cause Parkinson’s Disease type symptoms from exposure?

A

Manganese.

613
Q

The textile industry is associated with what occupational illness?

A

Flock worker’s lung.

614
Q

What is contact photosensitization a result of?

A

The combined effect of chemical exposure and UV light.

615
Q

Which centrifugal fan type is susceptible to material buildup?

A

Backward curved blades.

616
Q

What is the minimum required number of training hours for hazardous material specialists?

617
Q

Which BSL is appropriate for studying pathogens that pose no health effect for humans and are not transmitted via aerosols?

A

Open bench.

618
Q

What is the directivity index of a weather alert siren place don a utility pole on the playground of a neighborhood elementary school?

619
Q

Static pressure drop is higher under what conditions?

A

Higher velocity and smaller duct diameter.

620
Q

What is the random movement of particles in a fluid known as?

A

Brownian motion.

621
Q

Is heat exhaustion less or more severe than heatstroke?

A

Less severe.

622
Q

What class of hazards are electrostatic precipitators used to control?

A

Particulates.

623
Q

When choosing a respirator for changing out an electrostatic precipitator filters, what kind of cartridge would be appropriate for the task?

A

Particulate matter protection.

624
Q

In what situations would Chlorine dioxide be used as a disinfectant?

A

In BSL-3 and BSL-4 laboratories where complete decontamination is crucial.

625
Q

What is an example of a radioactive gas?

626
Q

Peripheral neuropathy is a primary effect associated with what metal?

626
Q

What chemical exposure is typically associated with alopecia?

627
Q

Which media is useful to assess mold exposures from an air sample?

A

Spore trap.

628
Q

Is there a personal sampling method for cotton dust?

629
Q

Which kind of welding creates the most noise?

630
Q

The plague and TB are examples of what kind of pathogen?

631
Q

When initial screening criteria are exceeded, ACGIH recommends performing a detailed analysis of heat stress. Which specific tool is recommended for this analysis?

A

Predicted Heat Strain Index described in ISO 7933.

632
Q

What are the 3 tiny bones in the ear that transmit mechanical vibrations from the air into fluid?

A

Maleus, incus, and stapes.

633
Q

Which type of ionizing radiation does not have mass?

634
Q

In the duct velocity equation, what is “df” equal to under STP?

635
Q

What is the density factor equation ventilation problems?

A

df=(530 R/T)(P/14.7)

636
Q

What stays constant in a ventilation system if there are no intakes or exhaust?

A

Air flow (CFM).

637
Q

As a general rule of thumb, for every 10 C increase in skin surface temperature, what happens to the rate of percutaneous absorption?

A

It doubles.

638
Q

What is the minimum relative moisture content necessary to promote the growth of stachybotrys chartarum in typical wallboard material?

639
Q

Radiation fil badge dosimeters can be used to detect exposure to what types of radiation?

A

Gamma, Beta, and X-Ray.

640
Q

Which exposure is likely to result from chrome plating exposures?

A

Hexavalent chromium.

641
Q

What health effect is strongly associated with prolonged exposure to whole body vibration?

A

Lower back pain.

642
Q

What would be a good choice for laboratory analysis of PCB’s?

643
Q

Which parameter effects geometrical resonance in a worker exposed to radio frequencies?

A

Height of worker.

644
Q

What health effect is primarily associated with exposure to coal tar pitch?

645
Q

What best describes the decibel unit for sound pressure?

A

Logged ratio of actual sound pressure to a reference sound pressure.

646
Q

What equation tells you what level of respiratory protection is required?

A

Required Protection Factor (RPF).