General Flashcards
(703 cards)
1
Q
How does a cyclone work?
A
A cyclone uses centrifugal force to cause impaction of large particulates on tighter turns.
2
Q
How does an electrostatic precipitator work?
A
An electrostatic precipitator uses electrostatic attraction to cause particulates to adhere to its walls.
3
Q
How does a venturi scrubber work?
A
A venturi scrubber uses a narrowing duct to increase pressure, condensation, and collection efficiency for the cyclone.
3
Q
How does a settling chamber work?
A
A settling chamber uses a widening duct to decrease air velocity, causing large particulates to settle.
4
Q
SMART
A
Objectives and evaluation should be specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound.
5
Q
Lean Philosophy
A
Any activity or material that does not add value to the end product should be eliminated.
6
Q
Six Sigma
A
Specific tools and techniques should be employed to reduce variation and improve the process.
7
Q
GPS Model
A
Objectives represent our destination on the map. Evaluation represents our location on the map.
8
Q
Case Method
A
An active form of instruction that focuses on a case and involves students learning by doing. Case studies simulate reality and require trainees to wrestle with real-world and complex problems.
9
Q
Cascade Impactor
A
Tool designed to simultaneously collect viable mold spores at different cut points.
10
Q
Dust Mask APF
A
10.
11
Q
Lyme Disease
A
A tickborne disease more commonly encountered in the midwestern and northeastern U.S.
Symptoms:
Severe headaches and neck stiffness
Additional EM rashes on other areas of the body
Facial palsy
Intermittent pain in tendons, muscles, joints, and bones
Nerve pain
12
Q
Hydrogen sulfide Exposure
A
Upper respiratory tract irritation
Dizziness
Weakness
13
Q
Workers in what industry are exposed to Hydrogen sulfide and respirable crystalline silica?
A
Oil & gas
14
Q
What is the relationship between production and safety?
A
Both safety and production are the results of effective management.
15
Q
At what temperature should special provisions, such as warm air jets, radiant heaters, or contact warm plates be used to keep workers’ bare hands warm while doing fine work for >10 minutes?
A
16 C (60.8 F).
16
Q
Which bloodborne pathogens are of primary concern?
A
Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, and HIV.
17
Q
What is the health effect and work environment associated with Methylene chloride?
A
Liver damage - degreasing/paint stripping.
18
Q
What are two health effects associated with Mercury exposure?
A
Renal damage (nephrotoxicity) and neurological effects.
19
Q
Flock Worker’s Lung
A
Lung disease (Pneumonoconiosis) caused by inhalation of nylon flock.
20
Q
What assumption is made when determining if a gaseous mixture exceeds the mixture TLV?
A
Similar effects/same target organ.
20
Q
What principle of leadership ensures workers feel a sense of ownership for a company’s safety and health programs?
A
Employee participation.
21
Q
What is one of the most important benefits of using stories in training?
A
They bundle information together in a way that is meaningful or memorable.
22
Q
When is it best to train or re-train workers in the context of IH and occupational health?
A
When there is a change in role, personnel, process, or procedure.
23
What type of radiation can penetrate several material types, make other objects radioactive, and produce many of the radioactive sources used in industrial, academic, and medical applications?
Neutrons
24
When sampling for indoor airborne mold spore concentrations, what reference should be used for comparison?
Outdoor airborne mold spore concentrations.
25
How is hand-arm vibration typically measured?
With an accelerometer placed on the worker's forearm.
26
What kind of gloves should be worn when working with Dimethyl mercury?
Silver shield
27
Which teaching tool is likely to help workers learn to problem solve, use critical thinking, make decisions in complex situations, and cope with ambiguities?
Detailed case studies
28
What is the traditional risk management approach for industrial hygiene?
Anticipation, recognition, evaluation, control, and confirmation.
29
Universal Precautions
Treat all bodily fluids as if they are potentially infectious with bloodborne pathogens.
30
Education and training programs are considered which type of control on the hierarchy of controls?
Administrative.
31
Which model do many occupational safety and health management systems use to ensure continuous system improvement?
Plan, Do, Check, Act.
32
Glutaraldehyde
Transparent, oily liquid used as a disinfectant or tanning agent that can cause eye, skin, and respiratory irritation, as well as skin and respiratory sensitization
33
What industry commonly uses Perchloroethylene?
Dry cleaning
34
Psittacosis
Bacterial infection that affects birds, can infect humans, and can cause mild illness or pneumonia.
35
Control Banding
Qualitative strategy for managing health hazards based on a range of exposures in the absence of OELs.
36
What is the basis for Manganese's low TLV?
CNS impairment
37
What is the basis for Organophosphates such as malathion and parathion low TLV?
Organophosphates are cholinesterase inhibitors.
38
Tenosynovitis
Inflammatory thickening of the fibrous sheath containing one or more tendons, usually caused by repeated minor injury.
39
Epicondylitis
Swelling of the tendons that bend your wrist backward away from your palm.
40
Which biological agent tend to be the most difficult to sterilize, often requiring autoclaving as part of the process?
Prions.
41
A
42
Which standard is most appropriate for evaluating health risk exposures to formaldehyde in a personal residence?
EPA Indoor Air Quality Guidelines
43
Standard Deviation
Average distance of each sample from the mean
44
In a normal distribution, what percentage of data points are within about 1 standard deviation of the mean?
68.2%
45
In a normal distribution, what percentage of data points are within about 2 standard deviations of the mean?
95.4%
46
What three things are equal in a normal distribution?
Mean, median, and mode.
47
Covalent Bond
Bond created when electrons are shared between atoms.
48
Ionic Bond
Exchange of electrons so that an element has 8 electrons in its outer shell.
49
Solvent
Something that dissolves stuff.
50
What characteristic ensures that a molecule is water soluble?
Polarity
51
Gram Molecular Weight (MW)
The mass of one mole of molecules.
52
Mole
Avogadro's number of units (6.022x10^23).
53
Molar Concentration (M)
Moles solute/L.
54
Molarity
Molar concentration.
55
Density of Water
1 g/mL OR 1 g/cc OR 1 g/mol.
56
Specific Gravity
P substance/P water.
57
Molecular Weight
Grams/mole.
58
[H+] =
10^-pH
59
Ideal Gas Law
PV=nRT
60
What is the ideal gas constant (R)?
.082
61
Higher vapor pressure is proportional to what ?
High evaporation rate
62
Alkanes
Single-bonded Carbon atoms.
63
Aromatic
Contains at least one benzene ring.
64
A
65
A
66
What is the name of the air sac in the lungs that are at risk from respirable particles?
Alveoli
67
GPS Model
Often used to represent objectives, evaluation, and their relationship.
68
Case Method Teaching
Active form of instruction that focuses on a case and involves students learning by doing.
69
Cascade Impactor
Designed to simultaneously collect viable mold spores at different cut points.
70
SCBA APF
10,000
71
What is the vector for Lyme disease?
Deer ticks.
72
Symptoms of Lyme Disease
Rashes (bulls eye pattern), facial palsy loss, arthritis, and severe headaches and neck stiffness.
73
Symptoms of H2S Exposure
Upper respiratory tract irritation, dizziness, and weakness.
74
In what industry is H2S commonly found?
Oil and gas.
75
What are 3 good work practices for reducing hand-arm vibration?
To keep the body and hands warm and dry, to avoid smoking, and to use anti-vibration tools.
76
At which temperature should special provisions, such as warm air jets, radiant heaters, or contact warm plates be used to keep worker's bare hands warm while doing fine work for >10 minutes?
16 C
77
What industry is associated with metallurgical coke?
Steel manufacturing.
78
Which 3 bloodborne pathogens are of primary concern?
Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, and HIV.
79
What is the primary health effect associated with Mercury exposure?
Kidney damage.
80
W
81
Which cancer is associated with Benzene exposure?
Leukemia.
82
What industry is at risk of Benzene exposure?
Rubber manufacturing.
83
What is the primary health effect associated with Methylene chloride exposure?
Liver damage.
84
Which operation is at risk of Methylene chloride exposure?
Degreasing operation.
85
What assumption is made when determining if a gaseous mixture exceeds the mixture TLV?
The gases have similar toxic effects.
86
Due to their complex nature, there is no "one-size-fits-all" approach to prevention.
Musculoskeletal disorders (MSD's).
87
Which type of radiation can penetrate several material types, make other objects radioactive, and produce many of the radioactive sources used in industrial, academic, and medical applications?
Neutrons.
88
Which chemical is used to manufacture many different types of polymers and co-polymers?
1,3-Butadiene
89
What are the health effects of 1,3-Butadiene exposure?
Eye, nose, and throat irritation, leukemia, and lymphoma.
90
What is associated with Team Leadership?
Inspiring people, supporting decisions, and influencing change.
91
What is associated with Participatory Leadership?
Involving people, getting input for decisions, implementing change.
92
What type of gloves should be worn when working with Dimethyl mercury?
Silver Shield.
93
Which model do many occupational safety and health management systems use to ensure continuous system improvement?
Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA).
94
What type of respirator is generally best for carcinogens?
SCBA.
95
What chemical is commonly used in the dry-cleaning industry and can cause irritation?
Perchloroethylene.
96
According to ACGIH, which type of clothing ensemble is associated with the largest adjustment factor?
Limited-use vapor-barrier coveralls.
97
Psittacosis
Bacterial infection that affects birds, can infect humans, and causes mild illness or pneumonia.
98
At which particle size fractions do P100 filters allow the most penetration?
.2 -.4 um
99
For which metal is CNS impairment a TLV basis for?
Manganese.
100
What international safety and health management system uses PDCA?
ISO
101
In how many mutually orthogonal axes should acceleration of a vibrating handle or workpiece be determined at a point close to where the vibration enters?
3
102
What type of media is commonly used to conduct airborne sampling for Hexavalent chromium?
37 mm PVC cassette with a 5 um pore size.
103
What is the goal of accuracy and precision in analytical chemistry?
To reduce uncertainty.
104
How many media blanks from the same sample lot does NIOSH recommend using?
6.
105
What is the maximum amount of field blanks that should be used on a given sampling project?
10.
106
Primary Standard
Direct measurement of volume.
107
Limit of Detection
Lowest concentration detected by laboratory instruments, generally 3x the "noise" level.
108
Limit of Quantification
Lowest concentration quantifiable in the lab, generally 10x the instrument "noise" level.
109
According to NIOSH, how many samples are required for a valid estimate of the confidence interval around the mean?
6.
110
According to NIOSH, how many samples are required to estimate variance?
11.
111
What does a Lower Confidence Limit (LCL) > 1 indicate?
A 95% probability that an exposure exceeds the PEL.
112
Gravimetric Analysis
Mass of aerosol = difference in weight.
113
What characterizes a fiber?
3:1 ratio.
113
What method is used to analyze asbestos samples?
Microscopy.
114
What analytical technique is used to separate chemical substances?
Gas chromatography.
115
What class of chemicals is gas chromatography generally used to analyze?
Hydrocarbons.
GC=HC
116
High Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC)
Similar to gas chromatography except the carrier medium is a liquid, not a gas.
117
For what analytes is HPLC generally used for?
PCB's, herbicides, insecticides, phthalates, and isocyanates.
118
Which type of glove provides the best chemical protection for the aldehyde chemical family?
Butyl.
119
Miosis
Constriction of the pupil of the eye.
120
The human body is best at absorbing non-ionizing radiation within which range of frequencies?
30 MHz to 300 MHz.
121
Siderosis
Deposition of excess iron in body tissue. Comes from exposure to iron or rust.
122
Relative Risk
The ratio of disease incidence in an exposed group compared to the ratio of disease incidence in an unexposed group.
123
What model do most occupational safety management systems use to ensure continuous system improvement?
Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA)
124
What is the appropriate WGBT adjustment factor for an employee wearing normal work clothes?
0.
125
What is Phalen's test an initial screening for?
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (CTS).
126
What is an accelerometer used to measure?
The acceleration and direction of vibration.
127
What is the reference value for sound intensity?
10^-12 W/m^2
128
Which type of instrument is typically used to monitor pressure drop across a filter?
Aneroid Anemometer.
129
Thrombosis
Condition in which blood clots form within the blood vessel.
130
Lateral Epicondylitis
Commonly known as "Tennis Elbow," a condition where pain is felt on the outside side of the upper arm, near the elbow.
131
What is the primary target organ for aflatoxins?
Liver.
132
What health effect is Cadmium most associated with?
Renal (kidney) damage.
133
Tubular Proteinuria
Increased urinary excretion of serum proteins and the first sign of renal damage.
134
What is the most significant threat from Radon gas?
Alpha radiation.
135
Which type of cancer is associated with Radon exposure?
Lung cancer.
136
Observational Bias
When information on disease status is recorded differently between the exposed and non-exposed groups.
137
Type I Error
Rejection of t
he null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is true.
138
What are the 3 most important factors when determining whether a worker becomes infected after being exposed to an infectious agent?
Pathogenicity, infectious dose, and host susceptibility.
139
Contamination Reduction Corridor
The area between two access control points.
140
Asbestosis
Lung disease that develops due to inhalation of asbestos fibers.
141
Byssinosis
Lung disease caused by inhalation of cotton or jute dust.
142
Metal Fume Fever
Illness caused primarily by exposure to chemicals such as Zinc oxide, Aluminum oxide, or Magnesium oxide which are produced as byproducts in the fumes that result when certain metals are heated.
143
Exposure to what chemical can cause upper respiratory tract irritation, cataracts, hemolytic anemia, and is a suspected carcinogen?
Naphthalene.
144
Aerosol
Solid or liquid particles dispersed in a gaseous medium (usually air in IH).
145
Dusts, fumes, mists, smokes, and fibers are all considered what?
Aerosols.
146
Dusts
Dry particle aerosols produced by mechanical processes.
147
Fumes
Very fine solid aerosol particles produced from vaporized solids.
148
What compounds are fumes generally associated with?
Metals.
149
Mists
Spherical droplet aerosols produced by mechanical processes.
150
Smokes
Complex mixture of solid and liquid aerosol particles, gases, and vapors resulting from incomplete combustion.
151
Fibers
Elongated particles with an aspect ratio greater than 3:1.
152
Polydisperse
Range of particle sizes.
153
Inhalable Dust Fraction Size
<100um
154
Thoracic Dust Fraction Size
<10um
155
Respirable Dust Fraction Size
<4um
156
What are the three typical sampling cassette sizes?
25 mm, 37 mm, and 47 mm.
157
In air sampling, what is concentration equal to?
m/V
158
What will be the result if leakage occurs from an improperly assembled air sampling cassette?
The results will be underestimated as some of the target constituent will be lost through the leak.
159
Mixed Cellulose Ester (MCE) cassettes are primarily used to analyze what kind of analyte?
Metals.
160
What will be the result if the flow rate is too high when sampling with a cyclone?
Very small particles will be over-represented and medium and large particles under-represented.
161
T
162
What is the drawback of gravimetric analysis methods?
They can only detect the total mass accumulated and can't differentiate between different compounds in the air.
163
IOM Sampler
Particulate sampler that simulates collection of inhalable particles inhaled by mouth and nose.
164
Which particulate sampler can also be used to sample viable mold spores in the air?
Button sampler.
165
What kind of air sampling device would be used to collect culturable and/or viable biological samples?
Anderson/Cascade Impactor.
166
What does a spore trap sample collect?
All biological materials.
167
Terminal Setting Velocity Equation (Vts)
(300,000)(SG)D^2
168
What are impingers capable of sampling for?
Gases and vapors.
169
Absorbent
Something that dissolves gas in a liquid media.
170
Adsorbent
Something that physically adheres gases and vapors to media.
171
What sampler would be the best choice to sample for semi-volatiles?
Impinger.
172
What is the most common type of adsorbent?
Activated charcoal.
173
What kind of compounds are silica gel used to sample for?
Polar compounds, including alcohols, amines, and phenols.
174
A
175
If breakthrough occurs in a sorbent tube, how will it affect the result?
The concentration will be underestimated because analyte is being lost through the back of the tube.
176
What percent mass can the breakthrough section of a sorbent tube accept before invalidating the sample?
10% of the mass of the collection section.
177
What environmental factors can decrease adsorption efficiency in air sampling?
High humidity and temperature.
178
What is the sample rate determined by in passive diffusion air sampling?
Fick's law.
179
When using colorimetric tubes, what is the length of color produced proportional to?
Concentration in the air.
180
What is a downside of using colorimetric tubes?
Accuracy is +/-20%
181
What information does a PID provide?
Qualitative information on the amount and class of chemicals present in the air.
182
What can a PID detect?
Volatile organic compounds (VOC's).
183
Which PID lamp size will detect the broadest range of compounds?
11.7 eV
184
Which PID lamp is most commonly used?
10.6 eV
185
What is the difference between a PID and FID?
PID uses UV light to ionize compounds, and FID uses a hydrogen flame.
186
What information does an FID provide?
An estimate of the total concentration of organic chemicals present in air.
187
What is an example of an electrochemical cell?
Multi-gas meters.
188
Infrared Analyzer
Measures trace gases by determining the absorption of an emitted infrared light source through a certain air sample.
189
What instrument could be used to sample airborne formaldehyde concentrations in real time?
Infrared analyzer.
190
What is it referred to when particles (or photons) with sufficient energy to remove electrons (or ionize) molecules with which they interact?
Ionizing radiation.
191
What are the 3 basic types of ionizing radiation?
Alpha, Beta, and Gamma.
192
Which radiation particle is the largest?
Alpha particle.
193
Which type of ionizing radiation can be stopped by a piece of paper but is a significant internal hazard?
Alpha radiation.
194
A high-speed electron is also known as what kind of ionizing radiation?
Beta radiation.
195
What type of particle is released in the decay process when a neutron transforms into a proton?
Beta particle.
196
What is the QF of alpha radiation?
20.
197
What type of ionizing radiation will continue through any medium until it has a chance encounter with an atom?
Gamma radiation.
198
What type of ionizing radiation requires the densest shielding?
Gamma radiation.
199
Radiation Activity Equation
decays/time
200
Rem
QF x Rad
200
What is the effective half-life a combination of?
Radiological and biological half-lives.
200
ALARA
As low as reasonably achievable.
201
What are the 3 primary control methods for radiation?
Time, distance, and shielding.
202
What are two preferred shields for Beta radiation?
Glass and plastic.
203
Why is using high atomic mass shielding for Beta radiation not a good idea?
When Beta particles hit atoms of high atomic number, x-rays are created (Bremsstrahlung radiation).
204
What two units should we look for in radiation shielding equations?
HVL and TVL.
205
What is the dividing light emission time between a continuous wave laser and a pulsed laser?
0.25 seconds
206
Irradiance Calculation
E=Power/Area
207
What part of the body is most vulnerable to a laser?
Eyes.
208
"Penetration increases as wavelength increases" is true of what physical hazards?
Noise and lasers.
209
What is the safest class of laser?
Class 1.
210
When it comes to radiation, which two variables are inversely proportional to each other?
Wavelength and frequency.
211
Is heating of tissue a major concern for ionizing or non-ionizing radiation?
Non-ionizing radiation.
212
What does brackets around an equation denote?
Metric units.
213
What are the two primary types of ventilation?
Local exhaust and dilution.
214
What is the temperature when using STP?
21.2 C
215
In ventilation, area is inversely proportional to what?
Velocity.
216
Velocity pressure is considered to be what kind of energy?
Kinetic energy.
217
Static pressure is considered to be what kind of energy?
Potential energy.
218
What kind of pressure is always greater than or equal to 0?
Velocity pressure.
219
What causes air to move?
Change in static pressure.
220
In what manner does air move?
From high pressure to low.
221
At what point in a ventilation system is static pressure and total pressure the lowest?
Right before the fan.
222
At what point in a ventilation system is static pressure and total pressure
the highest?
Right after the fan.
223
What kind of pressure stays constant throughout a ventilation system?
Velocity pressure.
224
In a ventilation system, is TP positive or negative before the fan?
Negative.
225
An external hood is good for which kinds of hazards?
Heat and steam, etc.
226
Coefficient of Entry
Measure of how efficient the hood is at accelerating the air.
227
What coefficient of entry represents perfect efficiency?
1.
228
What coefficient of entry represents perfect inefficiency?
0.
229
When using a pitot tube, what does the outer tube measure?
Total pressure.
230
When using a pitot tube, what do the side vents measure?
Static pressure.
231
In a ventilation duct, where is laminar flow most likely to be found?
In the middle, away from the walls.
232
What is the ideal probe placement for a pitot tube?
7 or more duct diameters downstream from elbows, duct entries, or other obstructions, or 3 duct diameters upstream.
233
Capture Velocity
The minimum hood-induced air velocity necessary to capture and convey the contaminant into the hood.
234
What is one way to increase capture efficiency?
Add flanges.
235
Q'
Q/mi
236
What does a mixing factor of 1 indicate?
Perfect mixing.
237
What type of fan is best for moving particles and heavy loads?
Radial impeller.
238
What type of fan blade is the quietest?
Backward curved blade.
239
What type of fan blade is used in HVAC and dilution ventilation?
Forward curve blade.
240
Xenobiotic
Foreign chemical to the body not produced by the body or expected to be there.
241
Toxicant
Substance that interferes with the normal functions of the body.
242
Toxin
Toxicant produced by living organisms.
243
LOAEL
Lowest observable adverse effect level.
244
What does a shallow dose response curve indicate?
Wide variability in animal response.
245
What is the fundamental principle of toxicology?
"Dose makes the poison."
246
Sub-chronic exposures occur over what time frame?
2-3 days to 2-3 weeks.
247
Latency Period
Amount of time between first exposure and onset of disease.
248
Which chemical exposure causes the nervous system to become excited?
Carbon tetrachloride.
249
What is an example of an additive effect?
Malathion and Parathion.
250
Potentiating Effect
When a substance that normally has no toxic effect becomes toxic in the presence of another substance.
251
Antagonistic Effect
When chemicals interfere with the effects of one another.
252
What is an example of a potentiating effect?
Benzos and alcohol.
253
In Vitro
Experiment conducted in an artificial environment.
254
How are water soluble substances processed in the body?
They go directly from the small intestine to the liver via blood.
255
Which exposure route through which chemicals go tends to be most toxic?
The route that results in the greatest entry (often the lungs).
256
Teratogen
Substance that causes birth defects in a developing embryo or fetus.
257
What industries might Beryllium be found in?
Aerospace, electronics, nuclear, and metal and ceramic manufacturing.
258
Can Beryllium ever be removed from the body?
No.
259
Synergistic Effect
When the total effects of two different chemicals is greater than their individual effects.
260
What is the primary exposure route for Beryllium?
Inhalation.
261
Which chemical was used in old fire extinguishers and as a refrigerant and cleaning agent?
Carbon tetrachloride.
262
Berylliosis
Occupational lung disease caused by exposure to Beryllium particles.
263
What chemical has the odor of chloroform?
Methylene chloride.
264
What is the largest use of lead in the 21st century?
Lead-acid battery production.
265
Additive Effect
Effect of two separate chemicals acting independently.
266
Which chemical agent can cross the blood-brain barrier by posing as Calcium?
Lead.
267
What is an example of a synergistic effect?
Asbestos exposure and smoking tobacco.
268
What is an example of an antagonistic effect?
Ethanol and Methanol.
269
What industries may use Mercury?
Chemical manufacturing and electrical/electronic industries.
270
What is the primary route of exposure for Mercury?
Inhalation.
271
How does lead exposure affect the blood?
It interferes with red and white blood cell production.
272
What kind of cancer is associated with steel pickling?
Laryngeal cancer.
273
Pickling
Metal surface treatment used to remove impurities, such as stains, inorganic contaminants, and rust or scale from ferrous metals.
274
Liver damage is the chronic effect of which chemical?
Carbon tetrachloride.
275
What is systemic toxicity?
When adverse effects affect the entire system.
276
What kind of rock is coal?
Sedimentary (soft).
277
RCS, noise, diesel exhaust, and poor ergonomic conditions are typical of what industry?
Mining.
278
When coal mining, what are two chemicals to keep an eye on?
Methane and Hydrogen sulfide.
279
In what kind of mine is the entire environment flammable?
Coal mine.
280
In which industries might exposure to lead be a possibility?
Battery manufacturing, mining and smelting, disposal, and recycling.
281
What two cancers are Nickel exposure linked to?
Nasal and lung cancer.
282
What are the two primary target organs of Mercury in addition to the lungs?
CNS and kidneys.
283
Minamata Disease and Pink Disease (Acrodynia) result in exposures to what metal?
Mercury.
284
ADME
Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion.
285
Brief and Scala Method
Used to reduce exposure limits according to a Reduction Factor (RF).
286
When should you use the TLV mix equations?
When the chemicals have the same target organs.
287
Vapor Hazard Ratio
Quantitative term that compares the concentration of solvent vapor at its source to the acceptable concentration at the breathing zone.
288
What class of chemicals forms acids when bonded to Hydrogen?
Halogens.
289
Name four halogens:
Fluorine, Bromine, Chlorine, and Iodine.
290
Simple Asphyxiant
Displaces oxygen in the atmosphere.
291
Chemical Asphyxiant
Prevents oxygen from reaching the cells.
292
What are two examples of a chemical asphixiant?
CO, H2S, and Cyanides.
293
Byssinosis is a result of exposure to what agent?
Cotton dust.
294
In what industry is byssinosis likely to occur?
Agriculture.
295
Bronchiolitis obliterans
"Popcorn Lung," a disease caused by the inhalation of Diacetyl.
296
Mesothelioma is associated with what airborne analyte?
Asbestos.
297
Hot Work may be the source of what metal fume?
Hexavalent chromium Cr(VI)
298
In which industries might Nickel exposure be an issue?
Stainless steel production and electroplating and surface finishing.
299
Cardiomyopathy and asthma are associated with which chemical exposure?
Cobalt.
300
Chest tightening and coughing are symptoms of what occupational illness?
Byssinosis.
301
Sinonasal cancer, lung cancer, and asthma are associated with which chemical exposure?
Hexavalent chromium.
302
In what industries is Hexavalent chromium likely to be found?
Electroplating, welding, painting, and metal finishing.
303
Aluminum dust is primarily associated with what occupational illness?
Pneumoconiosis.
304
What is pulmonary fibrosis?
Progressive lung disease characterized by the thickening and scarring (fibrosis) of lung tissue.
305
Pulmonary Fibrosis is a result of exposure to what kind of analyte?
Particulate matter.
306
What industry is Diacetyl likely to be found in?
Food manufacturing.
307
What is an urticarial reaction also known as?
Hives.
308
Printer's Asthma (Pneumoconiosis) is caused by:
Gum of acacia.
309
Pneumoconioses caused by Iron oxide is known as:
Siderosis.
310
What are the four types of proliferative types of Pneumoconiosis?
Silicosis, Asbestosis, Anthracosis (Black Lung), and Shaver's Disease (Aluminum).
311
What organs comprise the CNS?
Brain and spinal cord.
312
Nephrotoxic
Toxicity in the kidneys.
313
Bauxite is also known as:
Aluminum ore.
314
The kidneys are target organs of which two heavy metals?
Mercury and Cadmium.
315
Twitching, weakness, and tremors are all symptoms of what class of chemicals?
Organophosphates.
316
Cholinesterase inhibition is associated with what class of chemicals?
Organophosphates.
317
DDT, Chlordane, Aldrin, and Kepone all belong to what class of chemicals?
Organochlorines.
318
Organochlorines target which organs?
CNS, liver, and kidney.
319
Where are organochlorines stored in the body?
Fat.
320
"Cyan"-ide means what?
Blue, as in blue in the face.
321
Drilling, casing in steel pipe, fracking, extraction, and transportation/refinement describes what process?
Oil drilling.
322
RCS is a major hazard in which oil & gas process?
Fracking.
323
Tetraethyl lead and Arsenic may be a hazard in which oil & gas situation?
Working around storage tanks.
324
What trio of industries are the most lethal?
Agriculture, forestry, and fishing.
325
Hepatoxic
Toxicity in the liver.
326
Vinyl chloride, Carbon tetrachloride, Arsenic, and Alcohols all target which organ?
Liver.
326
What organs do organic solvents target?
CNS (depression), liver, kidneys, and skin.
327
What organic solvent seeks out bone marrow?
Benzene.
328
What kind of asphyxiant are cyanides?
Chemical asphyxiant.
329
Hydrogen sulfide is what kind of asphyxiant?
Chemical asphyxiant.
329
Where might you be exposed to Hydrogen sulfide in the fishing industry?
Brine tanks.
330
Widow Maker
Broken limb.
331
Pesticides, insecticides, and cotton or other aerosols are commonly found in which industry?
Agriculture.
332
Bauxite
Aluminum ore.
333
Electrolytic production, grinding, hot caustic, and precipitation describe what process?
Aluminum manufacturing.
334
What kind of electrical current is used to reduce alumina to Aluminum and Oxygen?
High amperage and low voltage.
335
What are some of the hazards of aluminum production?
Bauxite dust, alkaline exposure from caustic bath, CO, CO2, and PAH's.
336
How is steel made from iron?
Adding alloys and reducing the Carbon content.
337
Coke
Heated coal in a vacuum (no air).
338
Extreme heat, dust, metal fumes, Carbon disulfide, CO and Benzene exposure are linked to what piece of equipment?
Coke oven.
339
Acid mists, specifically Sulfuric acid, are associated with what metal refining process?
Pickling.
340
What does pickling do to the metal?
Removes oxides.
341
Hydrogen gas is released during which part of metal finishing?
Electrolytic cleaning.
342
In electroplating, which electrode is the working piece?
Cathode.
343
Electrolyte
Metal salt dissolved in water.
344
Metal acid mists, cyanide salt solutions, and acid baths are hazards that are found in which industry?
Electroplating.
345
Separating sulfur is a primary goal of this metal refining process:
Copper and Lead smelting.
346
The pouring of molten metal into a mold of refractory sand and binder is performed where?
Foundry.
347
Metal Fume Fever
Flu-like symptoms after exposure to fumes and dust.
348
Brass foundries and high-temperature zinc coating processes may be sources of what occupational illness?
Metal fume fever.
349
Miosis is a symptom of exposure to what class of chemicals?
Organophosphates.
350
Metal fume fever is listed as the TLV basis for which 3 chemicals?
Zinc oxide, Magnesium oxide, and Copper.
351
Shielded metal arc welding (SMA) is also known as what?
"Stick" or electrode welding.
352
Which type of welding may exposure a worker to halogens?
Shielded metal arc (SMA)/Stick.
353
Which method of welding produces the most metal fumes?
Plasma welding.
354
Which method of welding produces the least amount of metal fumes?
Submerged Arc Welding (SAW).
355
Does MIG or TIG welding produce more metal fumes?
MIG.
356
What is skin reddening and "Arc Eye" a result of?
UV-B radiation exposure.
357
What kind of welding is associated with aircraft manufacturing?
Tungsten Inert Gas (TIG) welding.
358
Why does TIG welding stand for "Tungsten Inert Gas?"
Argon or Helium is fed around the electrode to provide a gas shield.
359
Bagassosis
Type of hypersensitivity pneumonitis attributed to exposure to moldy molasses or bagasse dust.
360
Epicondylitis is also known as what?
Tennis elbow.
361
Which welding method frequently uses CO2 for shielding?
Metal Inert Gas (MIG) welding.
362
What is the difference between MIG and TIG welding?
MIG welding uses a consumable wire as the electrode.
363
Which welding method utilizes shielding provided by covering the weld with granular, fusible, flux?
Submerged Arc Welding (SAW).
364
Which kind of welding uses a non-consumable tungsten electrode?
Tungsten inert gas (TIG) welding.
365
Metal casting describes the process that occurs where?
Foundry operations.
366
What is the difference between drop hammer forging and press forging?
Drop hammer forging uses a vertical ram and multiple strokes, while a press forge uses a hydraulic ram in a single stroke.
367
What process can produce noise up to 140 dBA?
Drop hammer forging.
368
What percentage of forges in the U.S. are press forges?
1/3.
369
Mineral oil, cutting oil, and emulsified oil may be found in which industry?
Metal machining.
369
Lubricants are a hazard for which prosess?
Forging.
370
Hydrogen fluoride, fluoride particles, and dust may indicate exposure to which type of welding fume?
Submerged Arc Welding (SAW) fume.
371
Sulfur dioxide, silica dust, heat, and arsenic are exposures that may be found in which industry?
Smelting.
372
Which welding method requires temperatures in excess of 60,000 F?
Plasma Arc Welding (PAW).
373
What type of welding is generally used for light sheet metal?
Gas (oxyacetylene) welding.
374
Aluminum oxide and Silicon compounds are associated with what metal finishing processes?
Grinding, polishing, and buffing metals.
375
What happens in distillation towers?
Low-boiling point cuts vaporize, rising upward, while high-boiling point cuts condense into lower trays.
376
Acids, caustics, cyanides, radiation, metals, and toxic gases may all be found in which industry?
Semiconductor manufacturing.
377
"Poly" is a buzzword for what industry?
Plastics manufacturing.
378
PVC production is associated with what health outcome?
Cancer.
379
What is one of the primary health hazards associated with abrasive blasting?
Silicosis.
380
Trichloroethylene and Methylene chloride are associated with what process?
Degreasing.
381
Degreasers Flush
Red blotchy skin that results when alcohol increases TCE toxicity at the time of consumption.
382
Exposure to what class of chemicals is associated with painting?
Solvents.
383
"Face breaks the plane" refers to what type of hazard?
Confined space.
384
Which type of arc welding can lead to HF exposures?
SAW.
385
What percentage of the atmosphere is Oxygen?
20.9%
386
What percentage of the atmosphere is Nitrogen?
78%
387
What are the two sources of air pollution?
Natural and fuel and energy production.
388
What kind of permit may require constant monitoring?
Air permit.
389
What is the rule of thumb when doing isokinetic sampling?
The sampler and stack velocity need to be the same.
390
When sampling a stack, what will happen if the sampling speed is too slow?
Large particles will be overestimated and small particles underestimated.
391
When sampling a stack, what will happen if the sampling speed is too fast?
Small particles will be overestimated, and large particles underestimated.
392
BDAT
Best Developed Available Technology (ALARA equivalent).
393
What is the issue when using Maximum Achievable Control Technology (MACT) as a standard?
Cost.
394
What was the earliest form of pollution control?
Stack.
395
Effective Stack Height
Actual height of stack plus additional plume rise.
396
Adiabatic Lapse Rate
Temperature change rate in elevation with no heat exchange for dry air.
397
Inversion
Phenomenon of temperature increasing as the altitude increases (then decreasing above the inversion).
398
What method does a baghouse use to clean the air?
Filtration.
399
What is one major disadvantage of using a baghouse?
Temperature restrictions.
400
What particle size range can a baghouse handle?
> .25 microns.
401
When using cyclones to control air pollution, what is a major disadvantage?
Inefficiency.
402
What temperature restrictions apply when using a cyclone for pollution control?
None.
403
What particle sizes can a cyclone pollution control device handle?
> 10 microns.
404
What kind of pollution control device is often used by power plants?
Electrostatic precipitator.
405
What kind of pollution control device uses low, uniform flow, and is not efficient?
Settling chamber.
406
How does an air scrubber work?
It adheres water to particles to increase their relative size so that the cyclone can collect more particles.
407
What size particles can a venturi scrubber handle?
> 1 micron.
408
What size particle can a settling chamber handle?
> 5 microns.
409
How does adsorption work in pollution control?
Vapors and gases adsorb onto the surface of a porous medium.
410
What is the disadvantage of adsorption as a pollution control method?
Doesn't work at high temperature's.
411
How does an absorber pollution control device work?
Liquid collects gases and vapors and then the liquid is recycled.
412
How does a condenser pollution control device work?
Cooling coils are used to condense vapor to liquid which is then run off.
413
What are the two sources of water pollution?
Storm water runoff and point sources.
414
How does a clarifier work?
Flocculants help settle solids (slightly basic).
415
Kyoto Protocol
Treaty to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
416
LEED
Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design.
417
What is the hierarchy of response in a civil disturbance situation?
Run, hide, fight.
418
What does the "Span of Control" refer to?
Leadership structure in an incident command system.
419
What are the defining features of Level A PPE?
SCBA and vapor-tight suit.
420
When dealing with hazardous materials, two layers of protection are used. What is the inner layer used for?
Chemical hazards.
421
Ergonomics
"Fitting the job to the worker."
422
For what percentage of the population do we design a workstation?
90% - 5th to 95th percentile.
423
What is an important quality in an Incident Commander?
They understand the risks of working in emergency response gear.
424
What is the defining feature of Level C PPE?
Air-purifying respirator.
425
What level of respiratory protection does Level D PPE include?
None.
426
When dealing with hazardous materials, two layers of protection are used. What is the outer layer used for?
Physical hazards.
427
Tendon
Connects muscle to bone.
428
Ligament
Connects bone to bone.
429
What level of PPE would you use for an unknown contaminant?
Level A.
430
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Trauma disorder caused by light, repetitive motions of wrists and fingers.
431
In workstation design, what should maximal forces be kept to?
Less than 30%.
432
What standing work height is recommended for light work?
2 - 4" below the elbow.
433
Illumination
Amount of light hitting a given source.
434
Metabolic Heat
Energy generated while the body is being active.
435
Hot and dry skin, confusion, loss of consciousness, and convulsions are all symptoms of what?
Heat stroke.
436
What is the severity level of heat stroke?
Medical emergency.
437
When do fans cease to be an effective method of preventing heat illnesses?
When the ambient temperature exceeds body temperature.
438
Trenchfoot
Type of foot damage caused by prolonged (several days) exposure to cold and damp conditions.
439
Frostbite
Freezing of body tissue.
440
What is a baghouse equipped to filter?
Particulates and aerosols.
441
What type of contaminants are removed by an absorber?
Gases and vapors.
442
In frostbite cases, what is the damage dependent on?
Depth of freezing.
443
In incident response, what level of training must the decontamination team hold at least?
The same level or one step down as the entry team.
444
General lowering of core body temperature, shivering, numbness, confusion, and amnesia are all signs of what?
Hypothermia.
445
Mild hypothermia core temperature:
35 C (95 F).
446
Moderate hypothermia core temperature:
32 C (89.6 F).
447
Heat Hyperpyrexia
Less severe form of heatstroke.
448
Heat Cramps
Painful muscle cramps during or following work in hot conditions caused by loss of body salts through sweating.
449
What is the treatment for heat fatigue?
Acclimitization.
450
Swelling of tendons causing pinching of the median nerve describes what condition?
Carpal tunnel syndrome.
451
Phalen's Test is used to help diagnose which condition?
Carpal tunnel syndrome.
452
DeQuervain's Syndrome
Special case of tenosynovitis at the base of the thumb cause by gripping and hand twisting.
453
What is the best reference for occupational vibration?
TLV book.
454
"Trigger finger" is a special case of what condition?
Tenosynovitis.
455
Raynaud's Syndrome
Also known as "white finger," Raynaud's occurs when insufficient blood supply causes blanching and arteries are closed due to vasospasms triggered by vibration.
456
What is the acceleration range for hand-arm vibration?
4 - 13 m/s2
457
CTD
Cumulative trauma disorder.
458
In material handling, is horizontal movement or vertical movement less stressful for the employee?
Horizontal.
459
What are the four ergonomic TLV's?
Hand activity level, lifting, hand-arm vibration, and whole-body vibration.
460
In the lifting index equation, what does L equal?
Actual weight.
461
What kind of operator are foot controls good for and what kind of operator are they not good for?
Good for seated employees, bad for standing employees.
462
Finklestein's Test is used to evaluate what condition?
DeQuervain's Syndrome.
463
What causes Epicondylitis?
Impacting or jerky throwing motions and repeated forceful wrist extensions.
464
Tendinitis
Inflammation of the tendons caused by repeated tension, motion, bending, and contact with vibration.
465
Severe hypothermia core temperature:
28 C (82.4 F).
466
At what temperature does tissue freeze?
-1 C.
467
Excessive sweating, fatigue, nausea, cold clammy skin, and headache or giddiness are signs of what condition?
Heat exhaustion.
468
Heat Syncope
Non-acclimatized persons standing in the heat faint and blood flow is reduced to the brain.
469
When managing cold stress, what body core temperature is it important to maintain?
36 C.
470
When managing cold stress, at what temperature should adequate insulation be used?
< 4 C.
471
What makes a confidence interval statistically significant?
It excludes 1.
472
The TLV's for cold stress are intended to prevent a worker's core body temperature from dropping below what?
36 C.
473
Which frequency will typically be the first to be lost by an employee overexposed to noise?
4,000 Hz.
474
Which hand position puts the greatest stress on the carpal tunnel?
Flexion.
475
What type of adsorbent is appropriate for sampling a chemical in air with humidity up to 90%?
Silica gel.
476
What air cleaning device is used to remove coarse heavy materials from an airstream?
Cyclone.
477
Which part of the ear is damaged from chronic high noise exposure?
Cochlea.
478
What is the recommended duct velocity in an LEV system removing a vapor?
1,000 fpm.
479
What is the TLV generally regarded as?
The level of exposure that most people can be exposed to throughout their working career and not suffer significant health effects.
480
This compound may be used as a biocide in paint.
Formaldehyde.
481
Medical procedure that uses a chelating agent to remove heavy metals and minerals from the body through urine
Chelation therapy.
482
What aerodynamic diameter of particulate matter reaches the alveoli about 50% of the time?
4 um.
483
Which level of protection in working with a hazardous materials spill is appropriate for a substance that does not pose an inhalation hazard, but poses a mild dermal absorption risk?
Level D.
484
For what height range of workers is the typical workstation designed?
5th percentile to 95th percentile.
485
Which substance is metabolized into CO?
Carbon tetrachloride.
486
When is dilution ventilation an appropriate method to control concentrations of airborne contaminants for a new process?
When existing ventilation rates are relatively low.
487
Who is responsible to ensure a manufacturing facility has minimized occupational health risks?
Plant manager.
488
What is the first step in creating a training program?
Assess the training needs of the facility.
489
When assessing IAQ, what exposure standard is most appropriate for comparison?
EPA Indoor Air Quality Recommendations.
490
A welder in the presence of TCE and Methyl chloroform may be exposed to what gas?
Phosgene.
491
What is considered to be a con-occupational risk factor for MSD's?
Endocrinological disorders.
492
What should workstations be designed to do?
Minimize required static forces of the operator.
493
What biosafety level is appropriate for studying a virus incapable of causing disease in a healthy adult human?
BSL-1.
494
Bovine spongiform encephalopathy (Mad Cow Disease) is caused by what kind of agent?
Prion.
495
What produces mycotoxins?
Fungi.
496
Which animal is a vector for Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
Tick.
497
What is the best control device for Chlorine gas?
Adsorber.
498
Which type of control device is best at removing PM2.5?
Electrostatic precipitator.
499
What is likely to happen if the sampling velocity in a stack is higher than the actual velocity in the stack?
Small particles will be over sampled, large particles will be under-sampled.
500
What type of water pollutants are removed with a clarifier?
Solids.
501
What is the active spill location called when setting up site control for a hazardous material emergency?
Exclusion zone.
502
Which disease is an occupational hazard for meat packers working with rabbits?
Tularemia (Rabbit fever).
503
What method is commonly used to decontaminate biohazard waste?
Autoclave.
504
Which gas may be used to completely decontaminate a BSL-3?
Formaldehyde.
505
What are indoor sources of formaldehyde exposure?
Building materials and carpet.
506
What are some sources of indoor VOC exposure?
Solvents and paint.
507
Which type of respirator should be used to protect against IDLH atmospheres?
SAR.
508
What level of protection would be required when responding to a spill of contaminant that is a mild airborne inhalation irritant?
Level C.
509
What exposure can be detected by blood sample taken within minutes of the exposure?
CO.
510
Decompression sickness ("the bends") is also known as what?
Caisson disease.
511
When an inhalable and respirable PEL exists for an analyte, and the particle size is < 10 um, what sampler should be used?
IOM sampler.
512
Where is the radial tunnel on the body?
Top of the forearm.
513
Pain, tingling, and numbness on the pinky side of the hand could indicate which condition?
Guyon's Canal Syndrome.
514
What kind of gloves are best suited for acids and bases?
PVC.
515
What level of PPE protection provides a vapor-tight barrier of protection against dermal risks?
Level A.
516
When should Level B PPE be used?
When the highest level of respiratory protection is required, but a lower level of skin protection is needed.
517
Bacteria size
1 - 5 um
518
What is an organism composed of simple, naked DNA chromosome(s) without a nuclear membrane?
Bacteria.
519
Virus size
20 - 300 nm
520
How do fungi digest food?
By secreting enzymes outside the body.
521
Parasite
Organism that takes sustenance from a host.
522
Rickettsia
Parasite living within the cells of ticks and mites that is responsible for diseases such as Rocky Mountain Fever.
523
Prion
Protein without a nucleus that are infectious.
524
What are some examples of prion-created diseases?
Mad cow disease and Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease.
525
What is the TLV for biohazards?
There is no TLV established for biohazards.
526
RETER
Reservoir
Escape from reservoir
Transmission
Entry into new host
Reinfection
527
What is the philosophy for dealing with biohazards?
Break the chain of infection (RETER).
528
What BSL is utilized for defined, well-characterized organisms with no known or potential hazards?
BSL 1.
529
At what BSL level is open bench work allowed and no special competence required?
BSL 1.
530
What kind of agents are classified as BSL 2?
Indigenous agents of moderate risk.
531
Which BSL level requires that the supervisor be a competent scientist, technician be trained at a college level, and access be limited while work is in progress?
BSL 2.
532
Dangerous, exotic agents that have a high risk of life-threatening disease and require workers to use full-body, air supplied, positive pressure suits are classified at what BSL?
BSL 4.
533
Indigenous or exotic agents that have a definite risk of infection where the disease may be very serious or fatal would be classified as what BSL?
BSL 3.
534
What are the characteristics of a BSC 1?
Minimum flow rate of 75 fpm and exhausts through HEPA filter to the outside.
534
What is the difference between a BSC Type A and Type B?
BSC Type A has a common plenum and requires 75 fpm while Type B requires 100 fpm.
535
What are the characteristics of a BSC 3?
No minimum intake, glove ports, autoclave, and HEPA supply and exhaust.
536
What is the source of fungal diseases such as Histoplasmosis and Blastomycosis?
Mycotoxins.
537
Q Fever, Anthrax, and Tularemia are associated with what work processes?
Handling animal hair or rough leather.
537
Ornithosis and Psittacosis are associated with what work processes?
Working with birds.
538
What bacterial disease is transmitted through infectious droplet nuclei in the air from coughing, sneezing, etc.
Tuberculosis.
539
What disease is associated with devices that produce waterborne aerosols (mists)?
Legionnaires disease.
540
What is the latency period for Legionnaire's Disease?
2 to 10 days.
541
EPA action level for Radon:
4 pCi/L.
542
Construction materials, furnishings, wood in mobile homes, etc. are potentially IAQ sources of what chemical exposure?
Formaldehyde.
543
Formaldehyde is known for what chronic effects?
Nasopharyngeal cancer and it is a known carcinogen.
544
What chemical is the product of incomplete combustion of hydrocarbons?
CO.
545
Colorless gas (oxidizer) with pungent, characteristic odor that is produced by electrical arcs and chemical reactions and is also found naturally is known as what?
Ozone.
546
Hazards of Ozone?
Respiratory and psychological effects at higher concentrations.
547
Half-face APR
10.
548
Full-face APR APF
50.
549
PAPR (loose-fitting) APR
25.
550
PAPR (tight-fitting) APR
1,000.
551
Airline APF
1,000.
552
What is the range of human hearing?
20 Hz - 20,000 Hz.
552
What is the equation for calculating the frequency of a fan?
f=(N)(RPM)/60
552
Loudness of sound is known as what?
Amplitude.
553
Octave band
Range of frequencies where upper frequency is twice the lower frequency.
554
What frequency in sound is lost first by humans?
High frequencies.
555
Standard Threshold Shift
10 dB+ drop in the 2,000, 3,000, or 4,000 Hz range in either ear.
555
Who establishes the occupational exposure limits for biological agents?
No one, there are no established OEL's for biological agents.
555
Which form of ionizing radiation produces the greatest amount of damage in the body?
Alpha radiation.
556
Monitoring, analysis, and evaluation falls under which step of PDCA?
Check.
557
What analyte reduces to pure form through electrolytic reduction and exposes workers to polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, fluorides, and CO?
Aluminum.
558
Which 3 constituents need to be monitored before entering a confined space?
Oxygen, CO, and LEL.
559
What is the effect on captured particle size when the flow rate is higher than it is supposed to be?
Small particles will be over-sampled, large particles will be under-sampled.
560
Healthy Worker Effect
Workers are generally healthier than the general population because they must meet certain health standards to be employed, which can skew the results of various studies.
561
What is the first step in developing a training program?
Needs assessment.
562
What is an example of a measurable training goal?
Participants will be able to identify 5 hazards on an SDS.
563
SMART
Specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time bound.
564
What was H.W. Heinrich's contribution to the safety field?
Unsafe acts cause 88% of accidents, with the remainder caused by unsafe conditions or acts of God.
565
Who developed Theory X and Theory Y?
Douglas McGregor.
566
Theory X
Employees do not like work, prefer to be led, and avoid responsibility.
567
Theory Y
Employees want to do a good job and are self-actualized.
568
Frederick Herzberg's Hygiene theory talks about what?
Building satisfaction and motivation into a job.
569
Chris Argyris's Incongruency theory talks about what?
Incongruency happens when an individual's self-image doesn't align with external expectations, and the solution is to promote autonomy and self-leadership.
570
What ISO standard contains quality management system requirements?
ISO 9000.
571
Which ISO standard contains environmental management requirements?
ISO 14000.
572
Which ISO standard contains the requirements for occupational health and safety?
ISO 45001.
573
What quality management model is used for EHS?
PDCA.
574
Risk
Measure of the probability and severity of a negative event.
575
What is the safe level for ionizing radiation?
There is none.
575
What is the concept of "acceptable risk?"
People are more willing to accept higher risk levels when it is their choice.
576
Which BSL containment level is appropriate for work involving moderate-risk indigenous agents associated with human disease?
BSL-2.
577
While performing an IH assessment, a CIH needed some information on the chemical he was sampling for. What is the best source for this?
NIOSH Pocket guide.
578
Sociacusis
Hearing loss caused by social or environmental factors.
579
Nosoacusis
Hearing loss caused by disease.
580
Primary pollutant
Pollutant emitted directly from a source into the atmosphere.
581
Secondary pollutant
Pollutant that forms in the atmosphere through chemical reactions of primary pollutants.
582
When using a Class II BSC, how much air is exhausted outside through the HEPA filter?
100%
583
What is the best option for shielding neutron radiation?
Water to slow down the neutrons and boron to absorb them.
584
Which sterilization method is likely to be used when decontaminating a BSL 3 laboratory?
Formaldehyde fumigation.
585
What method of decontamination is used in the biosafety field for general applications?
Vaporized Hydrogen peroxide.
586
According to ACGIH, what is the highest core body temperature defined as hypothermia?
35 C.
587
What is the best method to measure worker's exposure to respirable particulate matter over an 8-hour shift?
MCE cassette with a cyclone and personal sampling pump.
588
What is the established standard of quality for safety glasses?
ANSI Z87.1.
589
When using too high a flow rate in air sampling, what is the effect on particle size cutpoint?
The particle size cut point will decrease.
590
Which type of welding is most likely to produce high exposures to ozone?
Plasma arc welding.
591
What is the minimum recommended frequency of pauses in physical activity allowing a worker to stretch?
At least once per hour.
592
Miosis
Pupil contraction.
593
Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
Type of analysis used to rapidly detect and identify biological hazards.
594
What type of airborne filtration is typically required for work environments, such as firefighting or military, in which there are or could be various unknown airborne hazards?
CBRN canisters.
595
CBRN
Chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear.
596
Where should the computer monitor be placed at an office workstation?
At eye level and at right angles to nearby windows.
597
Which tropospheric air contaminant is produced through the reaction of oxides of Nitrogen, organic vapors, and Oxygen within the ambient atmosphere, when exposed to sunlight?
Ozone.
598
Which type of glove provides the best chemical protection for the aldehyde chemical family?
Butyl.
599
Which biosafety level for a bioresearch lab requires complete separation of the lab from other occupies spaces?
BSL 4.
600
What is the reference value for sound pressure level (Po)?
20 x 10^-6
601
Miosis is associated with what organ in the body?
Eyes.
602
Ototoxic
Something that damages the inner ear.
603
What substance are considered to have ototoxic properties by ACGIH?
CO and Styrene.
604
What is the purpose of a Gantt chart?
It organizes project schedules.
605
What is the correct level of protection for responding to an emergency release of a material posing a potentially lethal health hazard by inhalation, but poses no dermal risk?
Level B.
606
Which type of welding creates the most noise?
Plasma.
607
Tubular proteinuria is associated with exposure to what heavy metal?
Cadmium.
607
What is the major advantage of collecting viable biological samples?
The majority of the spores can determine the species level.
608
What is the purpose of a training program needs assessment?
To determine if training is the solution to the problem.
609
What is the primary purpose of a biosafety program?
Implement controls to break the chain of infection.
610
According to the ACGIH TLV, what is the preferred measure of heat strain?
Core body temperature.
611
Which metal may cause Parkinson's Disease type symptoms from exposure?
Manganese.
612
The textile industry is associated with what occupational illness?
Flock worker's lung.
613
What is contact photosensitization a result of?
The combined effect of chemical exposure and UV light.
614
Which centrifugal fan type is susceptible to material buildup?
Backward curved blades.
615
What is the minimum required number of training hours for hazardous material specialists?
24.
616
Which BSL is appropriate for studying pathogens that pose no health effect for humans and are not transmitted via aerosols?
Open bench.
617
What is the directivity index of a weather alert siren place don a utility pole on the playground of a neighborhood elementary school?
0.
618
Static pressure drop is higher under what conditions?
Higher velocity and smaller duct diameter.
619
What is the random movement of particles in a fluid known as?
Brownian motion.
620
Is heat exhaustion less or more severe than heatstroke?
Less severe.
621
What class of hazards are electrostatic precipitators used to control?
Particulates.
622
When choosing a respirator for changing out an electrostatic precipitator filters, what kind of cartridge would be appropriate for the task?
Particulate matter protection.
623
In what situations would Chlorine dioxide be used as a disinfectant?
In BSL-3 and BSL-4 laboratories where complete decontamination is crucial.
624
What is an example of a radioactive gas?
Radon.
625
Peripheral neuropathy is a primary effect associated with what metal?
Mercury.
625
What chemical exposure is typically associated with alopecia?
Thallium.
626
Which media is useful to assess mold exposures from an air sample?
Spore trap.
627
Is there a personal sampling method for cotton dust?
No.
628
Which kind of welding creates the most noise?
Plasma.
629
The plague and TB are examples of what kind of pathogen?
Bacteria.
630
When initial screening criteria are exceeded, ACGIH recommends performing a detailed analysis of heat stress. Which specific tool is recommended for this analysis?
Predicted Heat Strain Index described in ISO 7933.
631
What are the 3 tiny bones in the ear that transmit mechanical vibrations from the air into fluid?
Maleus, incus, and stapes.
632
Which type of ionizing radiation does not have mass?
Gamma.
633
In the duct velocity equation, what is "df" equal to under STP?
1.
634
What is the density factor equation ventilation equation?
df=(530 R/T)(P/14.7)
635
What stays constant in a ventilation system if there are no intakes or exhaust?
Air flow (CFM).
636
As a general rule of thumb, for every 10 C increase in skin surface temperature, what happens to the rate of percutaneous absorption?
It doubles.
637
What is the minimum relative moisture content necessary to promote the growth of stachybotrys chartarum in typical wallboard material?
0.9.
638
Radiation fil badge dosimeters can be used to detect exposure to what types of radiation?
Gamma, Beta, and X-Ray.
639
Which exposure is likely to result from chrome plating exposures?
Hexavalent chromium.
640
What health effect is strongly associated with prolonged exposure to whole body vibration?
Lower back pain.
641
What would be a good choice for laboratory analysis of PCB's?
HPLC/UV.
642
Which parameter effects geometrical resonance in a worker exposed to radio frequencies?
Height of worker.
643
What health effect is primarily associated with exposure to coal tar pitch?
Cancer.
644
What best describes the decibel unit for sound pressure?
Logged ratio of actual sound pressure to a reference sound pressure.
645
What equation tells you what level of respiratory protection is required?
Required Protection Factor (RPF).
646
What type of GC detector uses a UV lamp to ionize compounds such as organics and aromatics?
PID.
647
What is the change in the atomic mass of an atom when it undergoes an alpha decay?
Decrease by 4.
648
A Venturi scrubber takes advantage of which unique property to enhance particle capture?
Narrowing duct that increases pressure, condensation, and collection efficiency.
649
Which gas must be present in normal quantities for confined space meters to operate?
Oxygen.
650
What is Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease caused by?
Prions.
651
What is the typical aversion response time to visible beam lasers?
0.25 seconds.
652
Which use of colorimetric detector tubes is most reliable?
Determination of the likely presence of a class of chemicals.
653
What type of epidemiological study results in an odds-ratio calculation?
Case-control study.
654
What is the Borg scale?
A method of rating physical exertion levels based on perceptions.
655
Which substance is often a source of occupational exposure for an individual gold miner?
Mercury.
656
What is a potential health effect from high exposure to high intensity microwave radiation?
Cataracts.
657
What is the highest CO2 concentration that is generally considered appropriate for an office building?
1,000 ppm.
658
Combustible gas sensors commonly utilize which technology?
Wheatstone bridge.
659
What is a disadvantage of using flexible sampling bags for whole air sample collection?
Samples must be analyzed within 24-48 hours.
660
Mono-Lifting Task
Lifting task in which the loads are similar and the starting and end points repeat.
661
Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons (PAH's) are the by-product of which process?
Coke production in steel manufacturing.
662
What level of hazardous material PPE uses an air-purifying respirator?
Level C.
663
Photokeratitis and erythema may be the result of what occupational exposure?
UV radiation.
664
Conjunctivitis is also known as what?
Pink eye.
665
What chemical exposure smells like almonds?
Cyanide.
666
What is the double hearing protection rule of thumb?
Add 5 dB to the highest NRR.
667
Which parameter is generally not considered when creating a mathematical model of chemical exposures in the workplace?
Air density.
668
What is the best statistical test for analyzing 4 variables?
Chi-square test.
669
When talking about organochlorines and organophosphates, which class breaks down quickly, and which one remains in the environment?
Organophosphates break down quickly, organochlorines remain in the environment.
670
What kind of respiratory protection is appropriate for a BSL-4 research facility?
Supplied air respirator.
671
What happens in a Type I error?
You think there's a hazard, but there isn't.
672
What happens in a Type II error?
You think everything is fine, but a hazard exists.
673
Unit used to analyze the biological effects of ionizing radiaiton?
Rem.
674
Multiplier used to account for the biological effectiveness of different types of ionizing radiation?
Quality factor (QF).
675
By how much does tenth value layer shielding block from moving forward?
90%.
676
What is the reference value for sound pressure?
20 x 10^-6.
677
Is lead or plastic better for shielding beta radiation?
Plastic.
678
Degenerative disease that occurs when excess iron builds up in body tissue, often affecting the brain and spinal cord.
Siderosis (Welders disease).
679
What is the reference value for sound intensity?
10^-12.
680
Exposure to which class of pesticides may cause tremors/convulsions?
Organochlorines.
681
Lw stands for what?
Sound power level.
682
What is the approximate visible light spectrum?
400 nm to 770 nm.
683
, what is the metric equivalent of in wc?
Pascals.
684
What is the least efficient hood design?
Plain duct end.
685
What is the most efficient hood design?
Bell-mouth.
686
What is the dilution ventilation mixing factor for a perfect room?
1.
