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CIH Exam > General > Flashcards

General Flashcards

1
Q

How does a cyclone work?

A

A cyclone uses centrifugal force to cause impaction of large particulates on tighter turns.

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2
Q

How does an electrostatic precipitator work?

A

An electrostatic precipitator uses electrostatic attraction to cause particulates to adhere to its walls.

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3
Q

How does a venturi scrubber work?

A

A venturi scrubber uses a narrowing duct to increase pressure, condensation, and collection efficiency for the cyclone.

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3
Q

How does a settling chamber work?

A

A settling chamber uses a widening duct to decrease air velocity, causing large particulates to settle.

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4
Q

SMART

A

Objectives and evaluation should be specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound.

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5
Q

Lean Philosophy

A

Any activity or material that does not add value to the end product should be eliminated.

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6
Q

Six Sigma

A

Specific tools and techniques should be employed to reduce variation and improve the process.

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7
Q

GPS Model

A

Objectives represent our destination on the map. Evaluation represents our location on the map.

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8
Q

Case Method

A

An active form of instruction that focuses on a case and involves students learning by doing. Case studies simulate reality and require trainees to wrestle with real-world and complex problems.

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9
Q

Cascade Impactor

A

Tool designed to simultaneously collect viable mold spores at different cut points.

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10
Q

SCBA APF

A

10,000.

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11
Q

Dust Mask APF

A

10.

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12
Q

Lyme Disease

A

A tickborne disease more commonly encountered in the midwestern and northeastern U.S.

Symptoms:
Severe headaches and neck stiffness
Additional EM rashes on other areas of the body
Facial palsy
Intermittent pain in tendons, muscles, joints, and bones
Nerve pain

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13
Q

Hydrogen sulfide Exposure

A

Upper respiratory tract irritation
Dizziness
Weakness

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14
Q

Workers in what industry are exposed to Hydrogen sulfide and respirable crystalline silica?

A

Oil & gas

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15
Q

What is the relationship between production and safety?

A

Both safety and production are the results of effective management.

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16
Q

At what temperature should special provisions, such as warm air jets, radiant heaters, or contact warm plates be used to keep workers’ bare hands warm while doing fine work for >10 minutes?

A

16 C (60.8 F).

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17
Q

Which bloodborne pathogens are of primary concern?

A

Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, and HIV.

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18
Q

What is the health effect and work environment associated with Methylene chloride?

A

Liver damage - degreasing/paint stripping.

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19
Q

What are two health effects associated with Mercury exposure?

A

Renal damage (nephrotoxicity) and neurological effects.

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20
Q

Flock Worker’s Lung

A

Lung disease (Pneumonoconiosis) caused by inhalation of nylon flock.

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21
Q

What assumption is made when determining if a gaseous mixture exceeds the mixture TLV?

A

Similar effects/same target organ.

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21
Q

What principle of leadership ensures workers feel a sense of ownership for a company’s safety and health programs?

A

Employee participation.

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22
Q

What is one of the most important benefits of using stories in training?

A

They bundle information together in a way that is meaningful or memorable.

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23
Q

When is it best to train or re-train workers in the context of IH and occupational health?

A

When there is a change in role, personnel, process, or procedure.

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24
Q

What type of radiation can penetrate several material types, make other objects radioactive, and produce many of the radioactive sources used in industrial, academic, and medical applications?

A

Neutrons

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25
Q

When sampling for indoor airborne mold spore concentrations, what reference should be used for comparison?

A

Outdoor airborne mold spore concentrations.

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26
Q

How is hand-arm vibration typically measured?

A

With an accelerometer placed on the worker’s forearm.

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27
Q

What kind of gloves should be worn when working with Dimethyl mercury?

A

Silver shield

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28
Q

Which teaching tool is likely to help workers learn to problem solve, use critical thinking, make decisions in complex situations, and cope with ambiguities?

A

Detailed case studies

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29
Q

What is the traditional risk management approach for industrial hygiene?

A

Anticipation, recognition, evaluation, control, and confirmation.

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30
Q

Universal Precautions

A

Treat all bodily fluids as if they are potentially infectious with bloodborne pathogens.

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31
Q

Education and training programs are considered which type of control on the hierarchy of controls?

A

Administrative.

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32
Q

Which model do many occupational safety and health management systems use to ensure continuous system improvement?

A

Plan, Do, Check, Act.

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33
Q

Glutaraldehyde

A

Transparent, oily liquid used as a disinfectant or tanning agent that can cause eye, skin, and respiratory irritation, as well as skin and respiratory sensitization

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34
Q

What industry commonly uses Perchloroethylene?

A

Dry cleaning

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35
Q

Psittacosis

A

Bacterial infection that affects birds, can infect humans, and can cause mild illness or pneumonia.

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36
Q

Control Banding

A

Qualitative strategy for managing health hazards based on a range of exposures in the absence of OELs.

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37
Q

What is the basis for Manganese’s low TLV?

A

CNS impairment

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38
Q

What is the basis for Organophosphates such as malathion and parathion low TLV?

A

Organophosphates are cholinesterase inhibitors.

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39
Q

Tenosynovitis

A

Inflammatory thickening of the fibrous sheath containing one or more tendons, usually caused by repeated minor injury.

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40
Q

Epicondylitis

A

Swelling of the tendons that bend your wrist backward away from your palm.

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41
Q

Which biological agent tend to be the most difficult to sterilize, often requiring autoclaving as part of the process?

A

Prions.

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42
Q

A

A
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43
Q

Which standard is most appropriate for evaluating health risk exposures to formaldehyde in a personal residence?

A

EPA Indoor Air Quality Guidelines

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44
Q

Standard Deviation

A

Average distance of each sample from the mean

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45
Q

In a normal distribution, what percentage of data points are within about 1 standard deviation of the mean?

A

68.2%

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46
Q

In a normal distribution, what percentage of data points are within about 2 standard deviations of the mean?

A

95.4%

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47
Q

What three things are equal in a normal distribution?

A

Mean, median, and mode.

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48
Q

Covalent Bond

A

Bond created when electrons are shared between atoms.

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49
Q

Ionic Bond

A

Exchange of electrons so that an element has 8 electrons in its outer shell.

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50
Q

Solvent

A

Something that dissolves stuff.

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51
Q

What characteristic ensures that a molecule is water soluble?

A

Polarity

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52
Q

Gram Molecular Weight (MW)

A

The mass of one mole of molecules.

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53
Q

Mole

A

Avogadro’s number of units (6.022x10^23).

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54
Q

Molar Concentration (M)

A

Moles solute/L.

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55
Q

Molarity

A

Molar concentration.

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56
Q

Density of Water

A

1 g/mL OR 1 g/cc OR 1 g/mol.

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57
Q

Specific Gravity

A

P substance/P water.

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58
Q

Molecular Weight

A

Grams/mole.

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59
Q

[H+] =

A

10^-pH

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60
Q

Ideal Gas Law

A

PV=nRT

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61
Q

What is the ideal gas constant (R)?

A

.082

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62
Q

Higher vapor pressure is proportional to what ?

A

High evaporation rate

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63
Q

Alkanes

A

Single-bonded Carbon atoms.

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64
Q

Aromatic

A

Contains at least one benzene ring.

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65
Q

A

A
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66
Q

A

A
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67
Q

What is the name of the air sac in the lungs that are at risk from respirable particles?

A

Alveoli

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68
Q

GPS Model

A

Often used to represent objectives, evaluation, and their relationship.

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69
Q

Case Method Teaching

A

Active form of instruction that focuses on a case and involves students learning by doing.

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70
Q

Cascade Impactor

A

Designed to simultaneously collect viable mold spores at different cut points.

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71
Q

SCBA APF

A

10,000

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72
Q

What is the vector for Lyme disease?

A

Deer ticks.

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73
Q

Symptoms of Lyme Disease

A

Rashes (bulls eye pattern), facial palsy loss, arthritis, and severe headaches and neck stiffness.

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74
Q

Symptoms of H2S Exposure

A

Upper respiratory tract irritation, dizziness, and weakness.

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75
Q

In what industry is H2S commonly found?

A

Oil and gas.

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76
Q

What are 3 good work practices for reducing hand-arm vibration?

A

To keep the body and hands warm and dry, to avoid smoking, and to use anti-vibration tools.

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77
Q

At which temperature should special provisions, such as warm air jets, radiant heaters, or contact warm plates be used to keep worker’s bare hands warm while doing fine work for >10 minutes?

A

16 C

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78
Q

What industry is associated with metallurgical coke?

A

Steel manufacturing.

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79
Q

Which 3 bloodborne pathogens are of primary concern?

A

Hepatitis B, Hepatitis C, and HIV.

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80
Q

What is the primary health effect associated with Mercury exposure?

A

Kidney damage.

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81
Q

W

A
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82
Q

Which cancer is associated with Benzene exposure?

A

Leukemia.

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83
Q

What industry is at risk of Benzene exposure?

A

Rubber manufacturing.

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84
Q

What is the primary health effect associated with Methylene chloride exposure?

A

Liver damage.

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85
Q

Which operation is at risk of Methylene chloride exposure?

A

Degreasing operation.

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86
Q

What assumption is made when determining if a gaseous mixture exceeds the mixture TLV?

A

The gases have similar toxic effects.

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87
Q

Due to their complex nature, there is no “one-size-fits-all” approach to prevention.

A

Musculoskeletal disorders (MSD’s).

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88
Q

Which type of radiation can penetrate several material types, make other objects radioactive, and produce many of the radioactive sources used in industrial, academic, and medical applications?

A

Neutrons.

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89
Q

Which chemical is used to manufacture many different types of polymers and co-polymers?

A

1,3-Butadiene

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90
Q

What are the health effects of 1,3-Butadiene exposure?

A

Eye, nose, and throat irritation, leukemia, and lymphoma.

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91
Q

What is associated with Team Leadership?

A

Inspiring people, supporting decisions, and influencing change.

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92
Q

What is associated with Participatory Leadership?

A

Involving people, getting input for decisions, implementing change.

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93
Q

What type of gloves should be worn when working with Dimethyl mercury?

A

Silver Shield.

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94
Q

Which model do many occupational safety and health management systems use to ensure continuous system improvement?

A

Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA).

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95
Q

What type of respirator is generally best for carcinogens?

A

SCBA.

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96
Q

What chemical is commonly used in the dry-cleaning industry and can cause irritation?

A

Perchloroethylene.

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97
Q

According to ACGIH, which type of clothing ensemble is associated with the largest adjustment factor?

A

Limited-use vapor-barrier coveralls.

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98
Q

Psittacosis

A

Bacterial infection that affects birds, can infect humans, and causes mild illness or pneumonia.

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99
Q

At which particle size fractions do P100 filters allow the most penetration?

A

.2 -.4 um

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100
Q

For which metal is CNS impairment a TLV basis for?

A

Manganese.

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101
Q

What international safety and health management system uses PDCA?

A

ISO

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102
Q

In how many mutually orthogonal axes should acceleration of a vibrating handle or workpiece be determined at a point close to where the vibration enters?

A

3

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103
Q

What is the TLV basis for organophosphates such as malathion and parathion?

A

They are cholinesterase inhibitors.

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104
Q

What type of media is commonly used to conduct airborne sampling for Hexavalent chromium?

A

37 mm PVC cassette with a 5 um pore size.

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105
Q

What is the goal of accuracy and precision in analytical chemistry?

A

To reduce uncertainty.

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106
Q

How many media blanks from the same sample lot does NIOSH recommend using?

A

6.

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107
Q

What is the maximum amount of field blanks that should be used on a given sampling project?

A

10.

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108
Q

Primary Standard

A

Direct measurement of volume.

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109
Q

Limit of Detection

A

Lowest concentration detected by laboratory instruments, generally 3x the “noise” level.

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110
Q

Limit of Quantification

A

Lowest concentration quantifiable in the lab, generally 10x the instrument “noise” level.

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111
Q

According to NIOSH, how many samples are required for a valid estimate of the confidence interval around the mean?

A

6.

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112
Q

According to NIOSH, how many samples are required to estimate variance?

A

11.

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113
Q

What does a Lower Confidence Limit (LCL) > 1 indicate?

A

A 95% probability that an exposure exceeds the PEL.

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114
Q

Gravimetric Analysis

A

Mass of aerosol = difference in weight.

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115
Q

What characterizes a fiber?

A

3:1 ratio.

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115
Q

What method is used to analyze asbestos samples?

A

Microscopy.

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116
Q

What analytical technique is used to separate chemical substances?

A

Gas chromatography.

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117
Q

What class of chemicals is gas chromatography generally used to analyze?

A

Hydrocarbons.

GC=HC

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118
Q

High Performance Liquid Chromatography (HPLC)

A

Similar to gas chromatography except the carrier medium is a liquid, not a gas.

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119
Q

For what analytes is HPLC generally used for?

A

PCB’s, herbicides, insecticides, phthalates, and isocyanates.

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120
Q

Which type of glove provides the best chemical protection for the aldehyde chemical family?

A

Butyl.

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121
Q

Miosis

A

Constriction of the pupil of the eye.

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122
Q

The human body is best at absorbing non-ionizing radiation within which range of frequencies?

A

30 MHz to 300 MHz.

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123
Q

Siderosis

A

Deposition of excess iron in body tissue. Comes from exposure to iron or rust.

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124
Q

Relative Risk

A

The ratio of disease incidence in an exposed group compared to the ratio of disease incidence in an unexposed group.

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125
Q

What model do most occupational safety management systems use to ensure continuous system improvement?

A

Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA)

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126
Q

What is the appropriate WGBT adjustment factor for an employee wearing normal work clothes?

A

0.

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127
Q

What is Phalen’s test an initial screening for?

A

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome (CTS).

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128
Q

What is an accelerometer used to measure?

A

The acceleration and direction of vibration.

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129
Q

What is the reference value for sound intensity?

A

10^-12 W/m^2

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130
Q

Which type of instrument is typically used to monitor pressure drop across a filter?

A

Aneroid Anemometer.

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131
Q

Thrombosis

A

Condition in which blood clots form within the blood vessel.

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132
Q

Lateral Epicondylitis

A

Commonly known as “Tennis Elbow,” a condition where pain is felt on the outside side of the upper arm, near the elbow.

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133
Q

What is the primary target organ for aflatoxins?

A

Liver.

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134
Q

What health effect is Cadmium most associated with?

A

Renal (kidney) damage.

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135
Q

Tubular Proteinuria

A

Increased urinary excretion of serum proteins and the first sign of renal damage.

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136
Q

What is the most significant threat from Radon gas?

A

Alpha radiation.

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137
Q

Which type of cancer is associated with Radon exposure?

A

Lung cancer.

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138
Q

Observational Bias

A

When information on disease status is recorded differently between the exposed and non-exposed groups.

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139
Q

Type I Error

A

Rejection of t
he null hypothesis when the null hypothesis is true.

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140
Q

What are the 3 most important factors when determining whether a worker becomes infected after being exposed to an infectious agent?

A

Pathogenicity, infectious dose, and host susceptibility.

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141
Q

Contamination Reduction Corridor

A

The area between two access control points.

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142
Q

Asbestosis

A

Lung disease that develops due to inhalation of asbestos fibers.

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143
Q

Byssinosis

A

Lung disease caused by inhalation of cotton or jute dust.

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144
Q

Metal Fume Fever

A

Illness caused primarily by exposure to chemicals such as Zinc oxide, Aluminum oxide, or Magnesium oxide which are produced as byproducts in the fumes that result when certain metals are heated.

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145
Q

Exposure to what chemical can cause upper respiratory tract irritation, cataracts, hemolytic anemia, and is a suspected carcinogen?

A

Naphthalene.

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146
Q

Aerosol

A

Solid or liquid particles dispersed in a gaseous medium (usually air in IH).

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147
Q

Dusts, fumes, mists, smokes, and fibers are all considered what?

A

Aerosols.

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148
Q

Dusts

A

Dry particle aerosols produced by mechanical processes.

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149
Q

Fumes

A

Very fine solid aerosol particles produced from vaporized solids.

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150
Q

What compounds are fumes generally associated with?

A

Metals.

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151
Q

Mists

A

Spherical droplet aerosols produced by mechanical processes.

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152
Q

Smokes

A

Complex mixture of solid and liquid aerosol particles, gases, and vapors resulting from incomplete combustion.

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153
Q

Fibers

A

Elongated particles with an aspect ratio greater than 3:1.

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154
Q

Polydisperse

A

Range of particle sizes.

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155
Q

Inhalable Dust Fraction Size

A

<100um

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156
Q

Thoracic Dust Fraction Size

A

<10um

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157
Q

Respirable Dust Fraction Size

A

<4um

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158
Q

What are the three typical sampling cassette sizes?

A

25 mm, 37 mm, and 47 mm.

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159
Q

In air sampling, what is concentration equal to?

A

m/V

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160
Q

What will be the result if leakage occurs from an improperly assembled air sampling cassette?

A

The results will be underestimated as some of the target constituent will be lost through the leak.

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161
Q

Mixed Cellulose Ester (MCE) cassettes are primarily used to analyze what kind of analyte?

A

Metals.

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162
Q

What will be the result if the flow rate is too high when sampling with a cyclone?

A

Very small particles will be over-represented and medium and large particles under-represented.

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163
Q
A

T

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164
Q

What is the drawback of gravimetric analysis methods?

A

They can only detect the total mass accumulated and can’t differentiate between different compounds in the air.

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165
Q

IOM Sampler

A

Particulate sampler that simulates collection of inhalable particles inhaled by mouth and nose.

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166
Q

Which particulate sampler can also be used to sample viable mold spores in the air?

A

Button sampler.

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167
Q

What kind of air sampling device would be used to collect culturable and/or viable biological samples?

A

Anderson/Cascade Impactor.

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168
Q

What does a spore trap sample collect?

A

All biological materials.

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169
Q

Terminal Setting Velocity Equation (Vts)

A

(300,000)(SG)D^2

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170
Q

What are impingers capable of sampling for?

A

Gases and vapors.

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171
Q

Absorbent

A

Something that dissolves gas in a liquid media.

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172
Q

Adsorbent

A

Something that physically adheres gases and vapors to media.

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173
Q

What sampler would be the best choice to sample for semi-volatiles?

A

Impinger.

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174
Q

What is the most common type of adsorbent?

A

Activated charcoal.

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175
Q

What constituents are silica gel used to sample for?

A

Polar compounds, including alcohols, amines, and phenols.

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176
Q

A

A
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177
Q

If breakthrough occurs in a sorbent tube, how will it affect the result?

A

The concentration will be underestimated because analyte is being lost through the back of the tube.

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178
Q

What percent mass can the breakthrough section of a sorbent tube accept before invalidating the sample?

A

10% of the mass of the collection section.

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179
Q

What environmental factors can decrease adsorption efficiency in air sampling?

A

High humidity and temperature.

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180
Q

What is the sample rate determined by in passive diffusion air sampling?

A

Fick’s law.

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181
Q

When using colorimetric tubes, what is the length of color produced proportional to?

A

Concentration in the air.

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182
Q

What is a downside of using colorimetric tubes?

A

Accuracy is +/-20%

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183
Q

What information does a PID provide?

A

Qualitative information on the amount and class of chemicals present in the air.

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184
Q

What can a PID detect?

A

Organics and some-non organics.

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185
Q

Which PID lamp size will detect the broadest range of compounds?

A

11.7 eV

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186
Q

Which PID lamp is most commonly used?

A

10.6 eV

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187
Q

What is the difference between a PID and FID?

A

PID uses UV light to ionize compounds, and FID uses a hydrogen flame.

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188
Q

What information does an FID provide?

A

An estimate of the total concentration of organic chemicals present in air.

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189
Q

What is an example of an electrochemical cell?

A

Multi-gas meters.

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190
Q

Infrared Analyzer

A

Measures trace gases by determining the absorption of an emitted infrared light source through a certain air sample.

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191
Q

What instrument could be used to sample airborne formaldehyde concentrations in real time?

A

Infrared analyzer.

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192
Q

What is it referred to when particles (or photons) with sufficient energy to remove electrons (or ionize) molecules with which they interact?

A

Ionizing radiation.

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193
Q

What are the 3 basic types of ionizing radiation?

A

Alpha, Beta, and Gamma.

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194
Q

Which radiation particle is the largest?

A

Alpha particle.

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195
Q

Which type of ionizing radiation can be stopped by a piece of paper but is a significant internal hazard?

A

Alpha radiation.

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196
Q

A high-speed electron is also known as what kind of ionizing radiation?

A

Beta radiation.

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197
Q

What type of particle is released in the decay process when a neutron transforms into a proton?

A

Beta particle.

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198
Q

What is the QF of alpha radiation?

A

20.

199
Q

What type of ionizing radiation will continue through any medium until it has a chance encounter with an atom?

A

Gamma radiation.

200
Q

What type of ionizing radiation requires the densest shielding?

A

Gamma radiation.

201
Q

Radiation Activity Equation

A

decays/time

202
Q

Rem

A

QF x Rad

202
Q

What is the effective half-life a combination of?

A

Radiological and biological half-lives.

202
Q

ALARA

A

As low as reasonably achievable.

203
Q

What are the 3 primary control methods for radiation?

A

Time, distance, and shielding.

204
Q

What are two preferred shields for Beta radiation?

A

Glass and plastic.

205
Q

Why is using high atomic mass shielding for Beta radiation not a good idea?

A

When Beta particles hit atoms of high atomic number, x-rays are created (Bremsstrahlung radiation).

206
Q

What two units should we look for in radiation shielding equations?

A

HVL and TVL.

207
Q

What is the dividing light emission time between a continuous wave laser and a pulsed laser?

A

0.25 seconds

208
Q

Irradiance Calculation

A

E=Power/Area

209
Q

What part of the body is most vulnerable to a laser?

A

Eyes.

210
Q

“Penetration increases as wavelength increases” is true of what physical hazards?

A

Noise and lasers.

211
Q

What is the safest class of laser?

A

Class 1.

212
Q

When it comes to radiation, which two variables are inversely proportional to each other?

A

Wavelength and frequency.

213
Q

Is heating of tissue a major concern for ionizing or non-ionizing radiation?

A

Non-ionizing radiation.

214
Q

What does brackets around an equation denote?

A

Metric units.

215
Q

What are the two primary types of ventilation?

A

Local exhaust and dilution.

216
Q

What is the temperature when using STP?

A

21.2 C

217
Q

In ventilation, area is inversely proportional to what?

A

Velocity.

218
Q

Velocity pressure is considered to be what kind of energy?

A

Kinetic energy.

219
Q

Static pressure is considered to be what kind of energy?

A

Potential energy.

220
Q

What kind of pressure is always greater than or equal to 0?

A

Velocity pressure.

221
Q

What causes air to move?

A

Change in static pressure.

222
Q

In what manner does air move?

A

From high pressure to low.

223
Q

At what point in a ventilation system is static pressure and total pressure the lowest?

A

Right before the fan.

224
Q

At what point in a ventilation system is static pressure and total pressure
the highest?

A

Right after the fan.

225
Q

What kind of pressure stays constant throughout a ventilation system?

A

Velocity pressure.

226
Q

In a ventilation system, is TP positive or negative before the fan?

A

Negative.

227
Q

An external hood is good for which kinds of hazards?

A

Heat and steam, etc.

228
Q

Coefficient of Entry

A

Measure of how efficient the hood is at accelerating the air.

229
Q

What coefficient of entry represents perfect efficiency?

A

1.

230
Q

What coefficient of entry represents perfect inefficiency?

A

0.

231
Q

When using a pitot tube, what does the outer tube measure?

A

Total pressure.

232
Q

When using a pitot tube, what do the side vents measure?

A

Static pressure.

233
Q

In a ventilation duct, where is laminar flow most likely to be found?

A

In the middle, away from the walls.

234
Q

What is the ideal probe placement for a pitot tube?

A

7 or more duct diameters downstream from elbows, duct entries, or other obstructions, or 3 duct diameters upstream.

235
Q

Capture Velocity

A

The minimum hood-induced air velocity necessary to capture and convey the contaminant into the hood.

236
Q

What is one way to increase capture efficiency?

A

Add flanges.

237
Q

Q’

A

Q/mi

238
Q

What does a mixing factor of 1 indicate?

A

Perfect mixing.

239
Q

What type of fan is best for moving particles and heavy loads?

A

Radial impeller.

240
Q

What type of fan blade is the quietest?

A

Backward curved blade.

241
Q

What type of fan blade is used in HVAC and dilution ventilation?

A

Forward curve blade.

242
Q

Xenobiotic

A

Foreign chemical to the body not produced by the body or expected to be there.

243
Q

Toxicant

A

Substance that interferes with the normal functions of the body.

244
Q

Toxin

A

Toxicant produced by living organisms.

245
Q

LOAEL

A

Lowest observable adverse effect level.

246
Q

What does a shallow dose response curve indicate?

A

Wide variability in animal response.

247
Q

What is the fundamental principle of toxicology?

A

“Dose makes the poison.”

248
Q

Sub-chronic exposures occur over what time frame?

A

2-3 days to 2-3 weeks.

249
Q

Latency Period

A

Amount of time between first exposure and onset of disease.

250
Q

Which chemical exposure causes the nervous system to become excited?

A

Carbon tetrachloride.

251
Q

What is an example of an additive effect?

A

Malathion and Parathion.

252
Q

Potentiating Effect

A

When a substance that normally has no toxic effect becomes toxic in the presence of another substance.

253
Q

Antagonistic Effect

A

When chemicals interfere with the effects of one another.

254
Q

What is an example of a potentiating effect?

A

Benzos and alcohol.

255
Q

In Vitro

A

Experiment conducted in an artificial environment.

256
Q

How are water soluble substances processed in the body?

A

They go directly from the small intestine to the liver via blood.

257
Q

Which exposure route through which chemicals go tends to be most toxic?

A

The route that results in the greatest entry (often the lungs).

258
Q

Teratogen

A

Substance that causes birth defects in a developing embryo or fetus.

259
Q

What industries might Beryllium be found in?

A

Aerospace, electronics, nuclear, and metal and ceramic manufacturing.

260
Q

Can Beryllium ever be removed from the body?

A

No.

261
Q

Synergistic Effect

A

When the total effects of two different chemicals is greater than their individual effects.

262
Q

What is the primary exposure route for Beryllium?

A

Inhalation.

263
Q

Which chemical was used in old fire extinguishers and as a refrigerant and cleaning agent?

A

Carbon tetrachloride.

264
Q

Berylliosis

A

Occupational lung disease caused by exposure to Beryllium particles.

265
Q

What chemical has the odor of chloroform?

A

Methylene chloride.

266
Q

What is the largest use of lead in the 21st century?

A

Lead-acid battery production.

267
Q

Additive Effect

A

Effect of two separate chemicals acting independently.

268
Q

Which chemical agent can cross the blood-brain barrier by posing as Calcium?

A

Lead.

269
Q

What is an example of a synergistic effect?

A

Asbestos exposure and smoking tobacco.

270
Q

What is an example of an antagonistic effect?

A

Ethanol and Methanol.

271
Q

What industries may use Mercury?

A

Chemical manufacturing and electrical/electronic industries.

272
Q

What is the primary route of exposure for Mercury?

A

Inhalation.

273
Q

How does lead exposure affect the blood?

A

It interferes with red and white blood cell production.

274
Q

What kind of cancer is associated with steel pickling?

A

Laryngeal cancer.

275
Q

Pickling

A

Metal surface treatment used to remove impurities, such as stains, inorganic contaminants, and rust or scale from ferrous metals.

276
Q

Liver damage is the chronic effect of which chemical?

A

Carbon tetrachloride.

277
Q

What is systemic toxicity?

A

When adverse effects affect the entire system.

278
Q

What kind of rock is coal?

A

Sedimentary (soft).

279
Q

RCS, noise, diesel exhaust, and poor ergonomic conditions are typical of what industry?

A

Mining.

280
Q

When coal mining, what are two chemicals to keep an eye on?

A

Methane and Hydrogen sulfide.

281
Q

In what kind of mine is the entire environment flammable?

A

Coal mine.

282
Q

In which industries might exposure to lead be a possibility?

A

Battery manufacturing, mining and smelting, disposal, and recycling.

283
Q

What two cancers are Nickel exposure linked to?

A

Nasal and lung cancer.

284
Q

What are the two primary target organs of Mercury in addition to the lungs?

A

CNS and kidneys.

285
Q

Minamata Disease and Pink Disease (Acrodynia) result in exposures to what metal?

A

Mercury.

286
Q

ADME

A

Absorption, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion.

287
Q

Brief and Scala Method

A

Used to reduce exposure limits according to a Reduction Factor (RF).

288
Q

When should you use the TLV mix equations?

A

When the chemicals have the same target organs.

289
Q

Vapor Hazard Ratio

A

Quantitative term that compares the concentration of solvent vapor at its source to the acceptable concentration at the breathing zone.

290
Q

What class of chemicals forms acids when bonded to Hydrogen?

A

Halogens.

291
Q

Name four halogens:

A

Fluorine, Bromine, Chlorine, and Iodine.

292
Q

Simple Asphyxiant

A

Displaces oxygen in the atmosphere.

293
Q

Chemical Asphyxiant

A

Prevents oxygen from reaching the cells.

294
Q

What are two examples of a chemical asphixiant?

A

CO, H2S, and Cyanides.

295
Q

Byssinosis is a result of exposure to what agent?

A

Cotton dust.

296
Q

In what industry is byssinosis likely to occur?

A

Agriculture.

297
Q

Bronchiolitis obliterans

A

“Popcorn Lung,” a disease caused by the inhalation of Diacetyl.

298
Q

Mesothelioma is associated with what airborne analyte?

A

Asbestos.

299
Q

Hot Work may be the source of what metal fume?

A

Hexavalent chromium Cr(VI)

300
Q

In which industries might Nickel exposure be an issue?

A

Stainless steel production and electroplating and surface finishing.

301
Q

Cardiomyopathy and asthma are associated with which chemical exposure?

A

Cobalt.

302
Q

Chest tightening and coughing are symptoms of what occupational illness?

A

Byssinosis.

303
Q

Sinonasal cancer and asthma are associated with which chemical exposure?

A

Hexavalent chromium.

304
Q

In what industries is Hexavalent chromium likely to be found?

A

Electroplating, welding, painting, and metal finishing.

305
Q

Aluminum dust is primarily associated with what occupational illness?

A

Pneumoconiosis.

306
Q

What is pulmonary fibrosis?

A

Progressive lung disease characterized by the thickening and scarring (fibrosis) of lung tissue.

307
Q

Pulmonary Fibrosis is a result of exposure to what kind of analyte?

A

Particulate matter.

308
Q

What industry is Diacetyl likely to be found in?

A

Food manufacturing.

309
Q

What is an urticarial reaction also known as?

A

Hives.

310
Q

Printer’s Asthma (Pneumoconiosis) is caused by:

A

Gum of acacia.

311
Q

Pneumoconioses caused by Iron oxide is known as:

A

Siderosis.

312
Q

What are the four types of proliferative types of Pneumoconiosis?

A

Silicosis, Asbestosis, Anthracosis (Black Lung), and Shaver’s Disease (Aluminum).

313
Q

What organs comprise the CNS?

A

Brain and spinal cord.

314
Q

Nephrotoxic

A

Toxicity in the kidneys.

315
Q

Bauxite is also known as:

A

Aluminum ore.

316
Q

The kidneys are target organs of which two heavy metals?

A

Mercury and Cadmium.

317
Q

Twitching, weakness, and tremors are all symptoms of what class of chemicals?

A

Organophosphates.

318
Q

Cholinesterase inhibition is associated with what class of chemicals?

A

Organophosphates.

319
Q

DDT, Chlordane, Aldrin, and Kepone all belong to what class of chemicals?

A

Organochlorines.

320
Q

Organochlorines target which organs?

A

CNS, liver, and kidney.

321
Q

Where are organochlorines stored in the body?

A

Fat.

322
Q

“Cyan”-ide means what?

A

Blue, as in blue in the face.

323
Q

Drilling, casing in steel pipe, fracking, extraction, and transportation/refinement describes what process?

A

Oil drilling.

324
Q

RCS is a major hazard in which oil & gas process?

A

Fracking.

325
Q

Tetraethyl lead and Arsenic may be a hazard in which oil & gas situation?

A

Working around storage tanks.

326
Q

What trio of industries are the most lethal?

A

Agriculture, forestry, and fishing.

327
Q

Hepatoxic

A

Toxicity in the liver.

328
Q

Vinyl chloride, Carbon tetrachloride, Arsenic, and Alcohols all target which organ?

A

Liver.

328
Q

What organs do organic solvents target?

A

CNS (depression), liver, kidneys, and skin.

329
Q

What organic solvent seeks out bone marrow?

A

Benzene.

330
Q

What kind of asphyxiant are cyanides?

A

Chemical asphyxiant.

331
Q

Hydrogen sulfide is what kind of asphyxiant?

A

Chemical asphyxiant.

331
Q

Where might you be exposed to Hydrogen sulfide in the fishing industry?

A

Brine tanks.

332
Q

Widow Maker

A

Broken limb.

333
Q

Pesticides, insecticides, and cotton or other aerosols are commonly found in which industry?

A

Agriculture.

334
Q

Bauxite

A

Aluminum ore.

335
Q

Electrolytic production, grinding, hot caustic, and precipitation describe what process?

A

Aluminum manufacturing.

336
Q

What kind of electrical current is used to reduce alumina to Aluminum and Oxygen?

A

High amperage and low voltage.

337
Q

What are some of the hazards of aluminum production?

A

Bauxite dust, alkaline exposure from caustic bath, CO, CO2, and PAH’s.

338
Q

How is steel made from iron?

A

Adding alloys and reducing the Carbon content.

339
Q

Coke

A

Heated coal in a vacuum (no air).

340
Q

Extreme heat, dust, metal fumes, Carbon disulfide, CO and Benzene exposure are linked to what piece of equipment?

A

Coke oven.

341
Q

Acid mists, specifically Sulfuric acid, are associated with what metal refining process?

A

Pickling.

342
Q

What does pickling do to the metal?

A

Removes oxides.

343
Q

Hydrogen gas is released during which part of metal finishing?

A

Electrolytic cleaning.

344
Q

In electroplating, which electrode is the working piece?

A

Cathode.

345
Q

Electrolyte

A

Metal salt dissolved in water.

346
Q

Metal acid mists, cyanide salt solutions, and acid baths are hazards that are found in which industry?

A

Electroplating.

347
Q

Separating sulfur is a primary goal of this metal refining process:

A

Copper and Lead smelting.

348
Q

The pouring of molten metal into a mold of refractory sand and binder is performed where?

A

Foundry.

349
Q

Metal Fume Fever

A

Flu-like symptoms after exposure to fumes and dust.

350
Q

Brass foundries and high-temperature zinc coating processes may be sources of what occupational illness?

A

Metal fume fever.

351
Q

Miosis is a symptom of exposure to what class of chemicals?

A

Organophosphates.

352
Q

Metal fume fever is listed as the TLV basis for which 3 chemicals?

A

Zinc oxide, Magnesium oxide, and Copper.

353
Q

Shielded metal arc welding (SMA) is also known as what?

A

“Stick” or electrode welding.

354
Q

Which type of welding may exposure a worker to halogens?

A

Shielded metal arc (SMA)/Stick.

355
Q

Which method of welding produces the most metal fumes?

A

Plasma welding.

356
Q

Which method of welding produces the least amount of metal fumes?

A

Submerged Arc Welding (SAW).

357
Q

Does MIG or TIG welding produce more metal fumes?

A

MIG.

358
Q

What is skin reddening and “Arc Eye” a result of?

A

UV-B radiation exposure.

359
Q

What kind of welding is associated with aircraft manufacturing?

A

Tungsten Inert Gas (TIG) welding.

360
Q

Why does TIG welding stand for “Tungsten Inert Gas?”

A

Argon or Helium is fed around the electrode to provide a gas shield.

361
Q

Bagassosis

A

Type of hypersensitivity pneumonitis attributed to exposure to moldy molasses or bagasse dust.

362
Q

Epicondylitis is also known as what?

A

Tennis elbow.

363
Q

Which welding method frequently uses CO2 for shielding?

A

Metal Inert Gas (MIG) welding.

364
Q

What is the difference between MIG and TIG welding?

A

MIG welding uses a consumable wire as the electrode.

365
Q

Which welding method utilizes shielding provided by covering the weld with granular, fusible, flux?

A

Submerged Arc Welding (SAW).

366
Q

Which kind of welding uses a non-consumable tungsten electrode?

A

Tungsten inert gas (TIG) welding.

367
Q

Metal casting describes the process that occurs where?

A

Foundry operations.

368
Q

What is the difference between drop hammer forging and press forging?

A

Drop hammer forging uses a vertical ram and multiple strokes, while a press forge uses a hydraulic ram in a single stroke.

369
Q

What process can produce noise up to 140 dBA?

A

Drop hammer forging.

370
Q

What percentage of forges in the U.S. are press forges?

A

1/3.

371
Q

Mineral oil, cutting oil, and emulsified oil may be found in which industry?

A

Metal machining.

371
Q

Lubricants are a hazard for which prosess?

A

Forging.

372
Q

Hydrogen fluoride, fluoride particles, and dust may indicate exposure to which type of welding fume?

A

Submerged Arc Welding (SAW) fume.

373
Q

Sulfur dioxide, silica dust, heat, and arsenic are exposures that may be found in which industry?

A

Smelting.

374
Q

Which welding method requires temperatures in excess of 60,000 F?

A

Plasma Arc Welding (PAW).

375
Q

What type of welding is generally used for light sheet metal?

A

Gas (oxyacetylene) welding.

376
Q

Aluminum oxide and Silicon compounds are associated with what metal finishing processes?

A

Grinding, polishing, and buffing metals.

377
Q

What happens in distillation towers?

A

Low-boiling point cuts vaporize, rising upward, while high-boiling point cuts condense into lower trays.

378
Q

Acids, caustics, cyanides, radiation, metals, and toxic gases may all be found in which industry?

A

Semiconductor manufacturing.

379
Q

“Poly” is a buzzword for what industry?

A

Plastics manufacturing.

380
Q

PVC production is associated with what health outcome?

A

Cancer.

381
Q

What is one of the primary health hazards associated with abrasive blasting?

A

Silicosis.

382
Q

Trichloroethylene and Methylene chloride are associated with what process?

A

Degreasing.

383
Q

Degreasers Flush

A

Red blotchy skin that results when alcohol increases TCE toxicity at the time of consumption.

384
Q

Exposure to what class of chemicals is associated with painting?

A

Solvents.

385
Q

“Face breaks the plane” refers to what type of hazard?

A

Confined space.

386
Q

Which type of arc welding can lead to HF exposures?

A

SAW.

387
Q

What percentage of the atmosphere is Oxygen?

A

20.9%

388
Q

What percentage of the atmosphere is Nitrogen?

A

78%

389
Q

What are the two sources of air pollution?

A

Natural and fuel and energy production.

390
Q

What kind of permit may require constant monitoring?

A

Air permit.

391
Q

What is the rule of thumb when doing isokinetic sampling?

A

The sampler and stack velocity need to be the same.

392
Q

When sampling a stack, what will happen if the sampling speed is too slow?

A

Large particles will be overestimated and small particles underestimated.

393
Q

When sampling a stack, what will happen if the sampling speed is too fast?

A

Small particles will be overestimated, and large particles underestimated.

394
Q

BDAT

A

Best Developed Available Technology (ALARA equivalent).

395
Q

What is the issue when using Maximum Achievable Control Technology (MACT) as a standard?

A

Cost.

396
Q

What was the earliest form of pollution control?

A

Stack.

397
Q

Effective Stack Height

A

Actual height of stack plus additional plume rise.

398
Q

Adiabatic Lapse Rate

A

Temperature change rate in elevation with no heat exchange for dry air.

399
Q

Inversion

A

Phenomenon of temperature increasing as the altitude increases (then decreasing above the inversion).

400
Q

What method does a baghouse use to clean the air?

A

Filtration.

401
Q

What is one major disadvantage of using a baghouse?

A

Temperature restrictions.

402
Q

What particle size range can a baghouse handle?

A

> .25 microns.

403
Q

When using cyclones to control air pollution, what is a major disadvantage?

A

Inefficiency.

404
Q

What temperature restrictions apply when using a cyclone for pollution control?

A

None.

405
Q

What particle sizes can a cyclone pollution control device handle?

A

> 10 microns.

406
Q

What kind of pollution control device is often used by power plants?

A

Electrostatic precipitator.

407
Q

What kind of pollution control device uses low, uniform flow, and is not efficient?

A

Settling chamber.

408
Q

How does an air scrubber work?

A

It adheres water to particles to increase their relative size so that the cyclone can collect more particles.

409
Q

What size particles can a venturi scrubber handle?

A

> 1 micron.

410
Q

What size particle can a settling chamber handle?

A

> 5 microns.

411
Q

How does adsorption work in pollution control?

A

Vapors and gases adsorb onto the surface of a porous medium.

412
Q

What is the disadvantage of adsorption as a pollution control method?

A

Doesn’t work at high temperature’s.

413
Q

How does an absorber pollution control device work?

A

Liquid collects gases and vapors and then the liquid is recycled.

414
Q

How does a condenser pollution control device work?

A

Cooling coils are used to condense vapor to liquid which is then run off.

415
Q

What are the two sources of water pollution?

A

Storm water runoff and point sources.

416
Q

How does a clarifier work?

A

Flocculants help settle solids (slightly basic).

417
Q

Kyoto Protocol

A

Treaty to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

418
Q

LEED

A

Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design.

419
Q

What is the hierarchy of response in a civil disturbance situation?

A

Run, hide, fight.

420
Q

What does the “Span of Control” refer to?

A

Leadership structure in an incident command system.

421
Q

What are the defining features of Level A PPE?

A

SCBA and vapor-tight suit.

422
Q

When dealing with hazardous materials, two layers of protection are used. What is the inner layer used for?

A

Chemical hazards.

423
Q

Ergonomics

A

“Fitting the job to the worker.”

424
Q

For what percentage of the population do we design a workstation?

A

90% - 5th to 95th percentile.

425
Q

What is an important quality in an Incident Commander?

A

They understand the risks of working in emergency response gear.

426
Q

What is the defining feature of Level C PPE?

A

Air-purifying respirator.

427
Q

What level of respiratory protection does Level D PPE include?

A

None.

428
Q

When dealing with hazardous materials, two layers of protection are used. What is the outer layer used for?

A

Physical hazards.

429
Q

Tendon

A

Connects muscle to bone.

430
Q

Ligament

A

Connects bone to bone.

431
Q

What level of PPE would you use for an unknown contaminant?

A

Level A.

432
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

A

Trauma disorder caused by light, repetitive motions of wrists and fingers.

433
Q

In workstation design, what should maximal forces be kept to?

A

Less than 30%.

434
Q

What standing work height is recommended for light work?

A

2 - 4” below the elbow.

435
Q

Illumination

A

Amount of light hitting a given source.

436
Q

Metabolic Heat

A

Energy generated while the body is being active.

437
Q

Hot and dry skin, confusion, loss of consciousness, and convulsions are all symptoms of what?

A

Heat stroke.

438
Q

What is the severity level of heat stroke?

A

Medical emergency.

439
Q

When do fans cease to be an effective method of preventing heat illnesses?

A

When the ambient temperature exceeds body temperature.

440
Q

Trenchfoot

A

Type of foot damage caused by prolonged (several days) exposure to cold and damp conditions.

441
Q

Frostbite

A

Freezing of body tissue.

442
Q

What is a baghouse equipped to filter?

A

Particulates and aerosols.

443
Q

What type of contaminants are removed by an absorber?

A

Gases and vapors.

444
Q

In frostbite cases, what is the damage dependent on?

A

Depth of freezing.

445
Q

In incident response, what level of training must the decontamination team hold at least?

A

The same level or one step down as the entry team.

446
Q

General lowering of core body temperature, shivering, numbness, confusion, and amnesia are all signs of what?

A

Hypothermia.

447
Q

Mild hypothermia core temperature:

A

35 C (95 F).

448
Q

Moderate hypothermia core temperature:

A

32 C (89.6 F).

449
Q

Heat Hyperpyrexia

A

Less severe form of heatstroke.

450
Q

Heat Cramps

A

Painful muscle cramps during or following work in hot conditions caused by loss of body salts through sweating.

451
Q

What is the treatment for heat fatigue?

A

Acclimitization.

452
Q

Swelling of tendons causing pinching of the median nerve describes what condition?

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome.

453
Q

Phalen’s Test is used to help diagnose which condition?

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome.

454
Q

DeQuervain’s Syndrome

A

Special case of tenosynovitis at the base of the thumb cause by gripping and hand twisting.

455
Q

What is the best reference for occupational vibration?

A

TLV book.

456
Q

“Trigger finger” is a special case of what condition?

A

Tenosynovitis.

457
Q

Raynaud’s Syndrome

A

Also known as “white finger,” Raynaud’s occurs when insufficient blood supply causes blanching and arteries are closed due to vasospasms triggered by vibration.

458
Q

What is the acceleration range for hand-arm vibration?

A

4 - 13 m/s2

459
Q

CTD

A

Cumulative trauma disorder.

460
Q

In material handling, is horizontal movement or vertical movement less stressful for the employee?

A

Horizontal.

461
Q

What are the four ergonomic TLV’s?

A

Hand activity level, lifting, hand-arm vibration, and whole-body vibration.

462
Q

In the lifting index equation, what does L equal?

A

Actual weight.

463
Q

What kind of operator are foot controls good for and what kind of operator are they not good for?

A

Good for seated employees, bad for standing employees.

464
Q

Finklestein’s Test is used to evaluate what condition?

A

DeQuervain’s Syndrome.

465
Q

What causes Epicondylitis?

A

Impacting or jerky throwing motions and repeated forceful wrist extensions.

466
Q

Tendinitis

A

Inflammation of the tendons caused by repeated tension, motion, bending, and contact with vibration.

467
Q

Severe hypothermia core temperature:

A

28 C (82.4 F).

468
Q

At what temperature does tissue freeze?

A

-1 C.

469
Q

Excessive sweating, fatigue, nausea, cold clammy skin, and headache or giddiness are signs of what condition?

A

Heat exhaustion.

470
Q

Heat Syncope

A

Non-acclimatized persons standing in the heat faint and blood flow is reduced to the brain.

471
Q

When managing cold stress, what body core temperature is it important to maintain?

A

36 C.

472
Q

When managing cold stress, at what temperature should adequate insulation be used?

A

< 4 C.

473
Q
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477
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CIH Exam (1 decks)

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