CIH Part II Flashcards

1
Q

What chemical CANNOT be detected with an FID?

A

Formaldehyde.

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2
Q

What analytical method can quantify hundreds of different chemicals and be used for continuous monitoring?

A

Infrared analyzer.

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3
Q

In which form of radiation emission does the mass of the atom stay the same?

A

Beta.

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4
Q

What is the whole body dose rate PEL for U.S. radiation workers?

A

5 rem/year.

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5
Q

Why is plastic and glass the shielding of choice for beta radiation?

A

When beta particles hit high-atomic number materials, they create x-rays.

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6
Q

What organ is most vulnerable to lasers?

A

The eyes.

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7
Q

Erythema is also known as what?

A

Sunburn.

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8
Q

Hearing of bodily tissue is a concern with what type of radiation?

A

Non-ionizing.

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9
Q

What does a steep dose-response curve indicate?

A

Small variation in response.

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10
Q

Adverse effects affecting solely the site of exposure is known as what?

A

Local toxicity.

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11
Q

Ethanol and carbon tetra chloride have what kind of effect?

A

A synergistic effect.

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12
Q

Substances that cause birth defects in a developing embryo or fetus are called what?

A

Teratogens.

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13
Q

What is the common term for “uticarial reactions?”

A

Hives.

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14
Q

What two chemicals are metabolized to phosgene in the kidneys?

A

Carbon tetrachloride and chloroform.

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15
Q

Heating chlorinated solvents or refrigerants and/or isocyanate production are red flags for what exposure?

A

Phosgene gas.

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16
Q

What health outcome is associated with Benzene?

A

Leukemia.

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17
Q

What do CO, cyanides, and H2S have in common?

A

They are all chemical asphyxiants.

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18
Q

Organophosphates like parathion and malathion inhibit what kind of enzymes?

A

Cholinesterase enzymes.

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19
Q

ADME

A

Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion.

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20
Q

Metal process that involves high amperage and low voltage, and electrolytic reduction?

A

Aluminum manufacturing.

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21
Q

Does aluminum production utilize an acidic or caustic bath to dissolve the bauxite ore and form alumina?

A

Caustic.

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22
Q

Polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, CO, fluorides, and CO2 are byproducts of what manufacturing process?

A

Aluminum manufacturing.

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23
Q

Adding alloys and reducing carbon content refers to what manufacturing process?

A

Steel manufacturing (iron to steel).

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24
Q

Lung cancers are associated with which aspect of the steel manufacturing process?

A

Coking process.

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25
Q

Laryngeal cancer is associated with what metal refining activity?

A

Pickling.

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26
Q

During which alkaline treatment is hydrogen gas released?

A

Electrolytic cleaning.

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27
Q

In electroplating, which piece is the workpiece?

A

Cathode (-).

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28
Q

Cyanide salt solutions and acid baths may be found in which process?

A

Electroplating.

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29
Q

What evaluating the TLV of a gaseous mixture, how do you know if the PEL for the mixture has been exceeded?

A

Greater than 1.

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30
Q

What does a low SD value indicate?

A

Little variability between samples.

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31
Q

What does a high SD value indicate?

A

A lot of variability between samples.

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32
Q

What two variables affect fan noise?

A

Rotational speed and number of blades.

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33
Q

What particle size is inhalable?

A

< 100 um.

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34
Q

What size cassette is used in asbestos air sampling?

A

25 mm w/ extended cowl.

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35
Q

PVC cassettes are generally used to sample for what?

A

Silica, dust, and zinc oxide.

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36
Q

What sampler used for inhalable dust is also capable of being used for biological sampling?

A

Button sampler.

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37
Q

What sampler would be good for collecting culturable samples?

A

Andersen impactor.

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38
Q

What adsorbent can handle up to 90% humidity?

A

Activated charcoal.

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39
Q

What sampler is best used to sample for semi-volatiles?

A

Impinger.

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40
Q

What is the most common type of adsorbent?

A

Activated charcoal.

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41
Q

What core body temperature marks the beginning of hypothermia as the body loses heat?

A

35 C.

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42
Q

What chemical is classified as a “deep lung irritant?

A

Nitrogen dioxide.

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43
Q

What kind of radiation can penetrate several material types, make other objects radioactive, and produce many of the radioactive sources used in industrial, academic, and medical applications?

A

Neutrons.

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44
Q
A
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45
Q

What particle size can reach the thoracic region?

A

< 10 um.

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46
Q

What particle size is respirable?

A

< 4 um

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47
Q

How how mass can the breakthrough section have in a sorbent tube in the event of breakthrough and still be considered usable?

A

Up to 10% of the mass of the collection sample.

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48
Q

What is the optimal setup in a passive diffusion sampling situation?

A

Large space, short distance to source.

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49
Q

Thermal desorption is part of the analysis method for which type of sampling?

A

Adsorbent sampling.

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50
Q

What is the downside of using colorimetric tubes?

A

Accuracy +/- 20%.

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51
Q

What direct read analyzer is not sensitive to formaldehyde?

A

FID.

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52
Q

What is something that is measurable for populations but not individuals?

A

Probability of getting a disease.

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53
Q

What risk model says that there is no “safe” level of exposure and that every exposure increases your risk of getting sick.

A

No threshold risk model.

54
Q

Are isocyanate respiratory sensitizers?

55
Q

In regard to exposure assessments, what describes a “compliance strategy?”

A

Taking only a few measurements of persons expected to have the highest exposure.

56
Q

In regard to exposure assessments, what is a “comprehensive strategy?”

A

Taking random sample exposures and developing an exposure distribution. Often involves SEG’s.

57
Q

What does variability between workers indicate?

A

Excess exposures result from activities or behaviors of individual workers.

58
Q

What is the study of disease in populations?

A

Epidemiology.

59
Q

What is the assumption of a null hypothesis?

A

That there is no association between a risk factor and a disease.

60
Q

Difference in risk between an exposed group and an unexposed group is known as what?

A

Attributable risk.

61
Q

What is the most powerful type of study other than clinic trials?

A

Cohort study.

62
Q

What kind of study identifies a population prospectively and follows them over time?

A

Cohort study.

63
Q

A study of a population regardless of exposure or disease status is known as what?

A

Cross-sectional study.

64
Q

Who developed Theory X and Theory Y?

A

Douglas McGregor.

65
Q

According to H.W. Heinrich, what percentage of accidents are cause by unsafe acts?

66
Q

Hygiene theory is attributed to which safety philosopher?

A

Frederick Herzberg.

67
Q

Who developed “Incongruency Theory,” which states there is an incongruency between how employees see themselves and how the organization sees them?

A

Chris Argyris.

68
Q

What is the ISO environmental management standard?

A

ISO 14,000/14,001.

68
Q

What number is the ISO quality management system?

69
Q

TB is what kind of pathogen?

70
Q

DNA or RNA and a protein coat is called what?

71
Q

Trichinellosis and toxoplasmosis are kinds of what?

A

Parasites.

72
Q

In what kind of study is disease and exposure measured at the same time?

A

Cross-sectional study.

73
Q

Using different criteria to define disease between exposed and unexposed populations is known as what?

A

Observational bias.

74
Q

Choosing controls from a different population than cases is known as what kind of bias?

A

Selection bias.

75
Q

What is the assumption of an alternate hypothesis in epidemiology?

A

There is an exposure-disease relationship.

76
Q

What is confounding bias?

A

When variables affecting either exposure or disease are not considered.

77
Q

What makes a confidence interval not significant?

A

If it includes 1 (or 100 in some cases).

77
Q

What is the defining characteristic of BSL 2?

A

Indigenous agents of moderate risk.

78
Q

Standard Threshold Shift

A

10 dB drop in either the 2,000 Hz, 3,000 Hz, or 4,000 Hz range in either ear.

79
Q

At what BSL is an open bench allowed?

80
Q

Working with indigenous or exotic agents that have a definite risk of infection calls for what biosafety level?

81
Q

What is the minimum intake velocity for a BSC-3?

82
Q

In a BSC-1, how much air is recirculated?

A

None, all is exhausted outside through a HEPA filter.

83
Q

What BSC has a separate plenum of uncontaminated air?

A

BSC-2 Type B.

84
Q

What kind of waste must be decontaminated prior to disposal?

A

Biological waste.

85
Q

What disease is associated with devices that produce waterborne aerosols?

A

Legionnaire’s disease.

86
Q

Is diesel exhaust known as a human carcinogen?

87
Q

Nasopharyngeal cancer is a result of chronic exposure to what chemical?

A

Formaldehyde.

88
Q

Why does incomplete combusion occur?

A

Insufficient oxygen.

89
Q

In IAQ, a high level of which chemical indicates ventilation issues?

90
Q

What are the primary hazards of Ozone?

A

Respiratory.

91
Q

When using hard hats, what must the headband suspension clearance be?

A

> 1.25 in.

92
Q

In regard to aerosol cartridge classification, what does N stand for?

A

Non-oil aerosols.

93
Q

In regard to aerosol cartridge classification, what does R stand for?

A

Can be used with oil aerosols up to 8 hours.

94
Q

How much hose is allowed to use with a SAR?

95
Q

What is the APF for a tight-fitting PAPR or airline respirator?

96
Q

What part of the body is affected by DeQuervain’s syndrome?

A

The thumb.

97
Q

What is the qualitative test for DeQuervain’s?

A

Finklestein’s test.

98
Q

What is called when tendons on the inside of the elbow are injured or strained?

A

Medial epicondylitis (golfer’s elbow).

99
Q

Hand Activity Level

A

Estimated force for given hand activity level that will likely produce CTD.

100
Q

What is the ideal standing bench height?

101
Q

What is the ideal sitting bench height?

A

50 - 71 cm.

102
Q

How far below the elbow should the standard work height be for heavy work?

103
Q

What is the defining symptom of heat exhaustion?

A

Cold and clammy skin.

104
Q

What describes fainting due to heat?

A

Heat syncope due to non-acclimitization.

105
Q

Why do heat cramps occur?

A

Loss of salt through sweating.

106
Q

What is the lowest classification of heat-related illness?

A

Heat fatigue.

107
Q

What temperature describes moderate hypothermia?

108
Q

What temperature describes severe hypothermia?

109
Q

At what temperature is adequate insulation required for cold stress?

110
Q

What is the principle of detection employed by a sound level meter?

A

Direct measurement of sound pressure.

111
Q

What does increasing the number of samples taken do to the certainty?

A

Estimation of the mean is improved by narrowing the confidence limits.

112
Q

What health effect is caused by somatosensory toxins?

A

Impaired sense of touch or temperature.

113
Q

What is the minimum relative moisture content necessary to promote the growth of mold in typical wallboard material?

114
Q

Which analytical method is best for separating ionic chemicals such as inorganic compounds and aldehydes for analysis?

A

Ion chromatography.

115
Q

What is brass composed of?

A

Copper and zinc.

121
Q

What analytical limit is generally 10x the instrument noise level?

A

Limit of quantification.

122
Q

What analytical limit is generally 3x the instrument noise level?

A

Limit of detection.

123
Q

In analytical chemistry, what is concentration equal to?

A

Mass/Volume (mg/m3).

124
Q

What is the analytical technique where substances are separated based on the mass of the molecule?

A

Mass spectrometry.

125
Q

What is atomic absorption spectroscopy used to analyze?

126
Q

What is the purpose of SDpooled?

A

It is used to compare two unique sample sets.

128
Q

What scientific principle is utilized by infrared analyzers?

A

Beer’s law.

130
Q

Argyria

A

Bluish/slate grey coloring of skin and mucous membranes that is the result of over-exposure to silver dust.