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Sheppard Air Study > General > Flashcards

General Flashcards

1
Q

GVR is not available for the runway you intend to use. For RVR 2400 you should substitute

A

1/2 SM ground visibility

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2
Q

If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?

A

As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM

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3
Q

All pilots should use the local altimeter setting because it provides:

A

Data to enable better vertical separation of aircraft

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4
Q

How can you obtain the pressure altitude on flights below 18,000’?

A

Set your altimeter to 29.92”Hg

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5
Q

How can you determine the pressure altitude on an airport without a tower or FSS?

A

Set the altimeter to 29.92”Hg and read the altitude indicated

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6
Q

Which altitude is indicated when the altimeter is set to 29.92”Hg?

A

Pressure Altitude

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7
Q

Why is it important to have the correct altimeter setting? It allows the altimeter to read:

A

true altitude at field elevation

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8
Q

Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicate height above:

A

The standard datum plate

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9
Q

(Refer to figure 78.) When eastbound on V86 between Whitehall and Livingston, the minimum altitude that you should cross BZN is?

A

10,200’

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10
Q

If you adjust the altimeter from 30.11”Hg to 29.96” Hg, the indicated altitude would be:

A

150’ lower

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11
Q

Which of the following defines the type of altitude when maintaining FL210?

A

Pressure

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12
Q

(Refer to figure 91) What lighting is indicated on the chart for Jackson Hole Airport?

A

Pilot controlled lighting

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13
Q

(Refer to figure 134.) Unless a higher angle is necessary for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath angle for a 2-bar VASI?

A

3°

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14
Q

Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI?

A

If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white

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15
Q

The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will:

A

Constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the proper glidepath

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16
Q

Tricolor Visual Approach Indicators normally consist of:

A

A single unit, projecting a three color visual approach path

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17
Q

When on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the piot will see the near bar as:

A

White and the far bar as red

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18
Q

When conducting a non-precision approach, the pilot reaches the missed approach point and observes that all three bars of a 3-bar VASI are red. The pilot should:

A

Immediately initiate the missed approach procedure

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19
Q

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?

A

Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area

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20
Q

(Refer to figure 135.) Unless a higher angle is required for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath for a 3-bar VASI?`

A

3°

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21
Q

(Refer to figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot observe when on the lower glidepath?

A

5

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22
Q

(Refer to figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is above both glidepaths?

A

7

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23
Q

(Refer to figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot observe the aircraft is below glidepaths?

A

4

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24
Q

(Refer to figure 136) Which illustration depicts an “on glidepath indication?

A

10

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25
Q

(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration depicts a “slightly low” 2.8 ° indication?

A

11

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26
Q

(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is ona glidepath higher than 3.5°?

A

8

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27
Q

(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is “slightly high” (3.2°) on the glidepath?

A

9

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28
Q

(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below the glide slope?

A

12

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29
Q

Which type of runway lighting consist of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?

A

REIL

  • These are normally installed on the approach end of the runway. They help with identifying the approach end of the runway in low visibility conditions
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30
Q

The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide:

A

Rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility

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31
Q

The ‘runway hold position’ sign denotes:

A

an entrance to the runway from a taxiway

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32
Q

‘Runway hold positions’ markings on the taxiway

A

identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway

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33
Q

The ‘no entry sign identifies

A

paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited

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34
Q

When turning onto a taxiway fro another taxiway, the ‘taxiway directional sign’ indicates

A

designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection

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35
Q

Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having

A

white lettering with a red background

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36
Q

(Refer to figure 94.) What sign is designated by illustration 7?

A

Mandatory instruction sign

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37
Q

(Refer to figure 94.) What colors are runway holding position signs?

A

White with a red background

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38
Q

(Refer to figure 94.) Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are:

A

yellow, and the dashed lines are nearest the runway

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39
Q

(Refer to figure 137.) What is the distance (A) from the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance marker?

A

1,000’ feet

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40
Q

(Refer to figure 137.) What is the distance (B) from the beginning of the runway to the location zone marker?

A

500 feet

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41
Q

(Refer to figure 137.) What is the distance (C) from the beginning of the touchdown zone marker to the beginning of the fixed distance marker?

A

500 feet

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42
Q

Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?

A

Arrows leading to the threshold mark

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43
Q

(Refer to figure 138.) What night operations, if any, are authorized between the approach end of the runway and the threshold lights?

A

Taxi and takeoff operations are permitted, providing the takeoff operations are toward the visible green threshold lights.

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44
Q

Which condition is guaranteed for all of the following altitude limits: MAA, MCA, MOCA, and MEA? (non mountainous area.)

A

1,000’ obstacle clearance

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45
Q

Class G airspace is that airspace where

A

ATC does not control air traffic

46
Q

Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training Routes (MTR) above 1,500 feet?

A

IFR Low Altitude En Route Chart

47
Q

During a flight, the controller advises “traffic 2 o’clock 5 miles southbound”. The pilot is holding 20° correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?

A

40° to the right of the aircraft’s nose

48
Q

A “CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET” clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to

A

vacate 4,000’ without notifying ATC

49
Q

While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from ATC clearance. What action must be taken?

A

Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible and obtain an amended ATC clearance

50
Q

To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be made?

A

As rapidly as practicable to 1,000 feet above/below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude

51
Q

When may a pilot cancel the IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight?

A

Only in VFR conditions when not in Class A airspace

52
Q

Which type of airspace are depicted on the En Route Low Altitude Chart?

A

Special Use Airspace

53
Q

For IFR operations off of established airways below 18,000 feet, VOR navigational aids used to describe the “route of flight” should be no more than

A

80 NM apart

54
Q

(Refer to figure 24.) Proceeding southbound on V187, (vicinity of Cortez VOR) contact is lost with Denver Center. You should attempt to reestablish with Denver Center on:

A

118.575 MHz

55
Q

At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern?

A

When over or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later.

56
Q

What timing procedure should be used when performing a holding pattern at a VOR?

A

Timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later

57
Q

ATC instructs you to hold at 6,000 feet. What is the maximum indicated airspeed you may use?

A

200 knots

58
Q

(Refer to figure 242.) What type of entry is recommended to the missed approach holding pattern in if the inbound heading is 050°?

A

Teardrop

59
Q

You are in a civil turbojet aircraft holding above 14,000 MSL. WHat is the maximum permitted airspeed?

A

265 knots

60
Q

Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within:

A

the 1-minute time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view

61
Q

What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assued with the Minimum Sector Altitude depicted on the IAP charts?

A

1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility, but not acceptable navigation signal coverage

62
Q

When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lost altitude or become better established on course, the additional circuits can be made:

A

only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves

63
Q

How is ATC radar used for instrument approaches when the facility is approved for approach control service?

A

Course guidance to the final approach course, ASR and PAR approaches, and the monitoring of nonradar approaches

64
Q

Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?

A

When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests “NO STAR”

65
Q

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or higher on a direct flight off airways?

A

Set the altimeter to the current reported setting for climb-out and 29.92”Hg upon reaching 18,000 feet

66
Q

Descending from FL 350 to an approximate field elevation of 650 MSL, you fail to set the altimeter to 30.57. Upon landing your altimeter shows?

A

Sea level

67
Q

While you are flying at FL250, you hear ATC give an altimeter setting of 28.92”Hg in your area. At what pressure altitude are you flying?

A

25,000 feet

68
Q

En Route at FL290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of 30.26”Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 134 feet and your altimeter is functioning properly, what will indicate after landing?

A

206 feet below sea level

69
Q

Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?

A

May cause hard to recognize symptoms

70
Q

Which statement is correct regarding the use of cockpit lighting for night flight?

A

The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will impari night adaptation

71
Q

Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?

A

Rely on the indicators of the flight instruments

72
Q

What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?

A

Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal

73
Q

Which use of cockpit lighting is correct for night flight?

A

Reducing the interior lighting intensity to a minimum level

74
Q

Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight?

A

Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals

75
Q

What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

A

Haze creates the illusion of being a greater distance than actual from the runway

76
Q

Departure control has instructed you to “resume own navigation” after being vectored to a victor airway. You should:

A

maintain airway by use of your own navigation equipment

77
Q

While on IFR clearance, ATC tells you “radar contact”. This means:

A

your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight following will be provided until radar identification is terminated

78
Q

Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you to “RESUME OWN NAVIGATION”. This phrase means that:

A

Resume operations as filed and cleared

79
Q

What is the definition of MEA?

A

The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage.

80
Q

The altitude that provides acceptable navigational signal coverage for the route, and meets obstacle clearance requirements, is the:

A

MEA (minimum enroute altitude)

81
Q

Reception of signals from an off airway radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?

A

MRA

82
Q

If no MCA is specified, what is the lowest altitude for crossing a radio fix, beyond which a higher minimum applies?

A

The MEA at which the fix is approached

83
Q

MEA is an altitude which assures

A

Acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstruction clearance requirements

84
Q

Reception of signals from a radio facility, located off the airway being flow, may be inadequate at the designated MEA to identify the fix. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?

A

MRA

85
Q

ATC may assign the MOCA when certain special conditions exist, and when within

A

22NM of a VOR

86
Q

Acceptable navigational signal coverage at the MOCA is assured for a distance from the VOR of only:

A

22 NM

87
Q

(Refer to figure 193.) On which frequencies could you communicate with the Montgomery Country FSS while on the ground at College Station?

A

122.65 / 122.2

88
Q

(Refer to figure 24.) For planning purposes, what would be the highest MEA on V382 between Grand Junction Rgnl (JNC) and Durango, La Plata Co. (DRO) airports?

A

15,300 feet

89
Q

(Refer to figure 24.) At what point should a VOR changeover be made from JNC VOR to MANCA intersection southbound on V187?

A

52 NM south of JNC

90
Q

(Refer to figure 24.) What is the MOCA between JNC and HERRM intersection on V187?

A

12,100 feet MSL

91
Q

(Refer to figure 34.) For planning purposes, what is the highest useable altitude for an IFR flight on V573 from the HOT VORTAC to the TXK VORTAC?

A

16,000 feet MSL

92
Q

(Refer to figure 40.) For planning purposes, what is the highest useable altitude for an IFR flight eastbound on V66 between HYMAN and the Abilene VORTAC (ABI)?

A

17,000 feet MSL

93
Q

(Refer to figure 53.) Where is the VOR COP on V27 between the GVO and MQO VORTACs?

A

20 DME from GVO VORTAC

94
Q

(Refer to figure 65.) You are flying east on V552 from LFT to the TBD VORTACs? Which point would be the appropriate VOR COP?

A

34 DME from the LFT VORTAC

95
Q

(Refer to figures 65 & 67.) What is the significance of the symbol at GRICE intersection?

A

The localizer has an additional navigational function

96
Q

(Refer to figure 78.) What is the maximum altitude that you may flight plan an IFR flight on V86 Eastbound between BOZEMAN and BILLINGS VORTAC?

A

17,000 feet MSL

97
Q

(Refer to figure 87.) Where is the VOR COP when flying east on V306 from Daisetta to Lake Charles?

A

30 NM east of DAS

98
Q

(Refer to figure 87.) What is indicated by the localizer course symbol at Beaumont/Port Arthur Jack Brooks Regional Airport?

A

A published ILS localizer course, which has an additional navigational function

99
Q

(Refer to figure 87.) Which VHF frequencies, other than 121.5, can be used to receive De Ridder FSS in the Lake Charles area?

A

122.2 / 122.3

100
Q

(Refer to figure 87.) Where is the VOR changeover point on V20 between Beaumont and Hobby?

A

Halfway point

101
Q

(Refer to figure 89.) When flying from Milford Municipal to Bryce Canyon via V235 and V293, what minimum altitude should you be at when crossing Cedar City VOR?

A

12,000 feet

102
Q

(Refer to figure 89.) What VHF frequencies are available for communications with Cedar City FSS?

A

122.2
121.5
122.6
112.1

103
Q

(Refer to figure 89.) What is the ARTCC discrete frequency at the COP on V208 southwest bound from HVE to PGA VOR/DME?

A

127.55

104
Q

(Refer to figure 91.) What is the minimum crossing altitude at DBS VORTAC for a northbound IFR flight on V257?

A

8,600 feet

105
Q

(Refer to figure 91.) What is the function of the Great Falls RCO (Yellowstone vicinity)?

A

Remote communications outlet for Great Falls FSS

106
Q

(Refer to figure 91.) Where should you change VOR frequencies when en route from DBS VORTAC to JAC VOR/DME on V520?

A

60 NM from DBS VORTAC

107
Q

(Refer to figure 91.) What is the minimum altitude you should be flying at SABAT intersection when eastbound from DBS VORTAC on V298?

A

11,100 feet

108
Q

(Refer to figure 47.) En Route on V112 from BTG VORTAC to LTJ VORTAC, the minimum altitude crossing GYMME intersection is

A

7,000 feet

109
Q

(Refer to figure 47.) When En Route on V448 from YKM VORTAC to BTG VORTAC, what minimum navigation equipment is required to identify ANGOO intersection?

A

One VOR receiver

110
Q

(Refer to figure 47.) En Route on V468 from BTG VORTAC to YKM VORTAC, the minimum enroute altitude at TROTS intersection is

A

11,500 feet

Sheppard Air Study (3 decks)

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