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Flight Dispatch TC > General > Flashcards

General Flashcards

1
Q

ETOPS definition

A

No air operator shall operate a twin engine aircraft on a route containing a point that is farther from an adequate aérodrome than the distance that can be flown in 60 min at the one engine inoperative cruise speed, unless flight is wholly in CDA

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2
Q

Taking off from airport where wx conditions are lower than landing minima

A

Can only take off if:
Other airport can be flown in 60 min w one engine inoperative

For a/c w 3-4 engines, airport distance 120 min w one engine inoperative

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3
Q

Weight of aircraft should allow full stop landing at destination and alternate

A

Turbojet- 60% of LDA
Propeller- 70% of LDA

If runway if wet, add 15% more

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4
Q

Stopway

A

End of runway
Marked w yellow chevrons
Helps aircraft stop during an abandoned take off

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5
Q

Clearway

A

Rectangular area end of runway

Prepared without any obstacles for initial climb of aircraft

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6
Q

Relationships of runway distances

A

TODA= TORA+ CLEARWAY

Takeoff distance available is the whole runway from before threshold including stopway and clearway

ASDA= TORA + STOPWAY

Accelerate stop distance is from before threshold, the runway and then stopway

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7
Q

RVSM AIRSPACE

A

FL290 to FL410

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8
Q

Rhumb line

A

Cut all meridians at constant angle
All latitude is a rhumb line
Not shortest distance but maintain same heading
Straight line on transverse Mercator projection is rhumb line

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9
Q

Isogonic lines

A

Lines of equal variation

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10
Q

Type I fluid

A

De-icing
Very limited hold over time
Heated water w glycol (anti freeze)

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11
Q

Type II fluid

A

More thicker than type I
Sticks to wing
Absorbs falling precipitation to avoid freezing
Designed to shear off when airspeed (Vr) reaches 100kts

A/c w lower vr can’t use type II

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12
Q

Type III fluid

A

Similar to type II
Designed to shear off at slower speed
Vr less than 100 kts

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13
Q

Type IV fluid

A

Similar to type II
Longer hold over time
Dyed GREEN, so not mistaken for ice
Doesn’t flow off as easily as Type II fluid

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14
Q

What is hold over time

A

The amount of time that the anti ice or de ice fluid is effective

HOT is affected by temperature, precipitation, winds, humidity etc.

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15
Q

A transport category aircraft may operate over water with life jackets on board out to what distance?

A

Up to 400 nautical miles, or the distance that can be covered in 120 minutes of flight at the cruising speed filed in the flight plan or flight itinerary, whichever distance is the lesser, from a suitable emergency landing site.

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16
Q

where can you file a Flight itinerary

A

FIC/FSS or responsible person

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17
Q

in case of over due aircraft

A

on Flight Plan:
Search will commence within an hour of overdue time

on Flight Itinerary:
will commence after SAR time has been exceeded on the itinerary
24 hours after last ETA

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18
Q

While in RVSM airspace how much can you deviate from altitude

A

150 feet climb and descend

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19
Q

flight crew at controls

A

All flight crew members who are on flight deck duty shall remain at their duty stations with their safety belts fastened and, where the aircraft is below 10,000 feet ASL, with their safety belts, including their shoulder harnesses, fastened unless a flight crew member leaves his/her duty station for the performance of duties in connection with the operation of the aircraft, for physiological needs.

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20
Q

Stormscope lightening detection

A

detected lightening in all quadrants of aircraft upto 200nm from aircraft

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21
Q

airborne wx radar

A

it sends a narrow beam from nose of aircraft.
bounces back as soon as it detects any moisture.
may show area clear behind a supercell since the waves get absorbed in the intensity of the super cell

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22
Q

Transponder code 1000

A

IFR aircraft below 18000 ASL

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23
Q

Transponder code 2000

A

IFR aircraft at or above 18000 ASL

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24
Q

Transponder code 1200

A

VFR aircraft at or below 12500

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25
Q

Transponder code 1400

A

VFR aircraft above 12500

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26
Q

flight dispatcher main responsibilities

A

Flight watch always takes priority over pre-departure preparation and planning activities

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27
Q

When is an aircraft required to be equipped with weather radar, or thunderstorm detection equipment?

A

Under 704 and 705 operations with passengers on board in IMC when current weather reports or forecasts indicate that thunderstorms may reasonably be expected along the route to be flown.

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28
Q

Increased Performance Shear

A

increase in headwind
increase in IAS
decrease in tailwind

nose will pitch up, so you will be higher than glide patch. Need to decrease power to get back down to the patch then increase power to maintain glide path.

Helps in a steeper climb gradient hence avoiding obstacles better

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29
Q

Decreased Performance Shear

A

decrease in headwind
decrease in IAS
increase in tailwind

nose will pitch down, so you will go below glide patch so you need to add power to climb up to the path then decrease it to stay there.

loss of performance, tend to sink or undershoot aiming point

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30
Q

Vmca for a multi-engined aircraft is determined

A

With the critical engine inoperative and with the engines at full power at the time of the engine failure, the aircraft is assumed to be loaded at the most rearward approved C of G, the landing gear is retracted, the flaps are at the take-off setting, and the propeller is windmilling.

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31
Q

When on a normal approach path to an up slope runway:

A

Upslope runway, when viewed on final approach, has the affect of making you think you are too high, thereby causing you to fly a lower than normal approach.

The correct answer is: You appear to be too high on the approach.

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32
Q

When starting a new technical record:

A

Ensure enough entries are carried over from the previous volume to ensure an unbroken chronological order.

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33
Q

what is a stabilator

A

Is a combination horizontal stabilizer and elevator whose purpose it is to provide pitch stability.

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34
Q

what is skidding

A

when too much rudder is applied and too little bank.

ball on opposite side of bank

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35
Q

what is slipping

A

when too little rudder and too much bank is applied.

ball and bank on same side

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36
Q

Vestibular illusions include:

A

Entering cloud in a banked attitude, vertigo, the leans, and acceleration and deceleration illusions.

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37
Q

what happens during a black hole approach

A

during approach at night, you see no horizon, no moonlight or stars, no reference other than runway lights. If there is a city behind the runway the pilot get the ILLUTION ON BEING HIGH and compensates for it flying lower that can lead to accident.

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38
Q

Hypoxia

A

Lack of oxygen to brain

Euphoria develops

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39
Q

Hypoxic hypoxia

A

lack of oxygen due to change in altutude

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40
Q

Anemic hypoxia

A

inability of blood to absorb oxygen

smokers- since theres more carbon monoxide, no room for oxygen

41
Q

Histotoxic hypoxia

A

body’s cells inability to absorb oxygen

42
Q

Stagnant hypoxia

A

pooling of blood ( high G maneuvers)

43
Q

What are some of the factors that may reduce a pilots situational awareness?

A

Lack of knowledge, stress, fatigue, personality, false assumptions, fixation.

44
Q

Time of useful consciousness (TUC)

A

The amount of time an individual can perform flight duties with inadequate oxygen.
Smoking reduces this time.
Rapid decompressions reduces time by 50%

45
Q

TUC 20,000

A

5-12 min

46
Q

TUC 25,000

A

2-3 min

47
Q

TUC 30,000

A

45-75 sec

48
Q

TUC 35,000

A

30-60 sec

49
Q

TUC 40,000

A

10-30 sec

50
Q

TUC 45,000

A

12-15 sec

51
Q

TUC 50,000

A

12 sec or less

52
Q

Runway surface condition is reported when theres NO WATER but what other substances

A 
slush
wet snow
loose snow exceeding 1/4 in
frost
CRFI .04 or less
full width of runway is not clear
53
Q

Airspeed limitation for aircraft below 10,000 ft

A

not above 250 kts

54
Q

airspeed limitation when below 3000 ft and 10nm from control zone

A

not more than 200kts

55
Q

What is critical point

A

The point at which it takes the SAME AMOUNT OF TIME to go on to the airport ahead of a/c, as it will to go back to the airport behind the a/c

56
Q

critical point formula

A

CP = total distance x GS out / GS out + GS back

GS out = ground speed toward destination
GS back = ground speed toward departure aerodrome
CP = Distance of CP from DESTINATION

If headwind is given: gsout is minus headwind
gdback is add headwind

57
Q

Difference between critical point and point of no return

A

CP is distance calculation only

PNR is fuel calculation too!

58
Q

wake separation in RADAR

A

super heavy behind super heavy 4mi
heavy behind super heavy 6 mi
medium behind super heavy 7 mi
light behind super heavy 8 mi

heavy behind heavy 4mi
medium behind heavy 5 mi
light behind heavy 6 mi

light behind medium 4 mi

59
Q

wake separation in NON RADAR

A

2 min separation applied
Not applied for light behind medium only advisory given

3 min separation applied if ATC thinks the a/c will cross the flight path

60
Q

On international routes, air carriers are governed by:

A

The air regulations of the country over which the air carrier is flying and the air regulations of the country in which the aircraft is registered.

61
Q

The IFR fuel requirements for an aircraft operated under 704 operations are in addition to the alternate fuel requirements:

A

To descend at any point along the route to the lower of the single-engined service ceiling, or 10,000 feet; to cruise at that altitude to a suitable aerodrome; to conduct an approach and a missed approach; and to hold for 30 minutes at an altitude of 1,500 feet above the elevation of the aerodrome.

62
Q

Holding speed below 6000

A

200 KIAS

63
Q

Holding speed above 6000 to 14,000

A

230 KIAS

64
Q

Holding speed above 14,000

A

265 KIAS

65
Q

explain net takeoff flight path (NTFP)

A

The net take-off flight path of an aircraft must clear all obstacles by at least 30 feet vertically or at least 200 feet horizontally within the aerodrome boundaries, and by at least 300 horizontally outside those boundaries.

66
Q

To conduct an RVR 1200 feet visibility take-off

A

The captain must have successfully completed low visibility take-off training; the captain must conduct the take-off; the captain must have 100 hours P.I.C. on type; the aircraft attitude instruments shall have pitch attitude index lines above and below the zero pitch reference to at least 15 degrees; and the runway has serviceable and functioning high intensity runway lights or runway centreline markings.

67
Q

standard pressure to altimeter setting

A

make change always when in standard pressure region

68
Q

When must you comply with ICAO flight rules?

A

Over the high seas and over foreign states where they do not conflict with the rules of that state.

69
Q

Where would you find information on what to report in the event of an aircraft accident?

A

AIM

70
Q

what kind of wing increases Dutch roll tendency

A

dihedral, sweepback and high wing

anhedral wing has opp effect

71
Q

In an aircraft anti skid braking system:

A

A sensor detects tire deceleration and releases the brakes to each of the tires as necessary to prevent skidding.

72
Q

In icing conditions, the aircraft stall warning system

A

will not be accurate

73
Q

what is subsonic

A

all flow everywhere around the aircraft is less than the speed of sound

74
Q

what is transonic

A

some flow is subsonic and some is supersonic

75
Q

what is chord

A

line from leading edge to trailing edge of wing

76
Q

angle of incidence

A

angle between longitudinal axis and chord line

77
Q

what is point of no return

A

the greatest distance of time an aircraft can fly past the last landable airfield and then return to that airfield with a safe fuel reserve.

78
Q

PNR formula

A

T = Endurance x GSback / GSout + GSback

Endurance = total fuel on board minus reserve fuel

79
Q

CAT I approach

A

basic ILS approach
all IFR rated pilots are eligible
operations permitted down to 200ft DH
1/2 SM or RVR 2600

80
Q

CAT II approach

A

Requires special runway, a/c and pilot training
operation are permitted down to 100ft DH
RVR A 1200 and RVR B 600

81
Q

CAT III A approach

A

100ft DH

RVR A, B, C not less than 600

82
Q

CAT III B approach

A

50ft DH

RVR A , B, c not less than 600 but not less than 150ft

83
Q

CAT III C approach

A

no DH, no RVR AUTOLAND

84
Q

45 bank angle

A

1.4g

85
Q

60 bank angle

A

2g

86
Q

15 bank angle

A

1.04g

87
Q

75 bank angle

A

4g

88
Q

aspect ratio formula

A

aspect ratio= wing span / wing chord

89
Q

what happens when AOA increases

A

stall speed increases
lift increases
induced drag increases

90
Q

stall speed in turn formula

A

vs x square root of load factor

91
Q

maneuvering speed formula

A

va = vs x 1.9

92
Q

speed of sound formula

A

S = 39 x square root of temp kelvin

kelvin = Celsius + 273

93
Q

mach # formula

A

TAS / speed of sound

94
Q

type J ARCAL

A

5 times

95
Q

type K ARCAL

A

7 times

96
Q

alternate minima

2 or more precision runways

A

400-1 or 200- 1/2

97
Q

alternate minima

1 precision runway

A

600-2 or 300-1

98
Q

no precision runway

A

800-2 or 300-1

99
Q

Vb

A

max gust intensity

Flight Dispatch TC (6 decks)

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