Genen Flashcards

1
Q

Who is the Proband?

A

the person who brings the family to the attention of the genetics clinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who is the Consultand?

A

the person sitting in front of you asking for genetic advice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Vertical pattern of inheritance

A

feature in which multiple generations are affected

This is dominant inheritance – you only need one faulty gene to get the disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Horizontal inheritance

A

People in a single generation are affected (sibship)

This is recessive inheritance – you need two faulty genes to get the disease

NB: vertical always takes precedence over horizontal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Knight’s move inheritance

A

two males are affected through an unaffected
female

This is characteristic of an x-linked recessive disorder (the female has an additional
unaffected X chromosome which ‘protects’ her)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the inheritence of Achondroplasia?

A

Autosomal dominant

Causes short stature due to shortening of the limbs (short-limb dwarfism)

Shows complete penetrance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the inheritence of Albinism?

A

Autosomal recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Autosomal Dominant Inheritance

A

The genes for these traits are on the autosomes.

you need only one mutant gene to express the trait.

heterozygote and homozygote for the mutation show the same phenotype.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the features on a pedigree that suggest dominant inheritance?

A

1) vertical pattern of inheritance, affects every generation
2) both males and females affected
3) male to male transmission

Variable expression and complete/incomplete penetrance are possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Variable expressivity

A

quantitative and qualitative differences in phenotype between individuals having the same allele or genotype.

I.e. not everyone affected, even in the same family (who are assumed to have
the same mutation) has exactly the same phenotype as they can be affected to different extents by the same gene.

severity, frequency of ‘attacks’ and age of onset can all vary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What causes Variable expressivity?

A

Environmental factors causing an epigenetic effect (switching on or off of genes)

MODIFIER GENES: alter expression of a human gene at anotherlocusthat in turn
causes agenetic disease

If the trait is X linked, there can be variation due to the differences in the pattern of X inactivation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Incomplete penetrance

A

Refers to the fact that you can inherit a mutation, e.g. BRCA, but not express the phenotype

i.e. the phenotype can skip a generation

Many autosomal dominant disorders show incomplete penetrance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Obligate heterozygotes

A

individuals in the direct line of descent of an affected parent who have
affected children.

I.e. they must be carriers of the trait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

GONADAL MOSAICISM

A

Gonadal mosaicism = a type of genetic mosaicism where more than one set of genetic information is found
specifically within the gamete cells.

When present in the gonads, offspring can inherit the mutation (will affect 100% of child’s cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Genetic mosaicism

A

Genetic mosaicism indicates that a person is composed of more than one genotype

develops when a genetic mutation occurs after fertilization, and results in an individual possessing both a mutated cell line and a normal cell line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Autosomal recessive conditions

A

for someone to be affected they must have inherited two faulty copies of the gene

Parents are assumed to be carriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the characteristic traits of an autosomal recessive inheritance pattern?

A

1) horizontal pattern of inheritance
2) both sexes can be affected
3) parents are usually both carriers but unaffected
4) the probability of a normal sibling being a carrier is 2/3
5) if the trait is rare, there may be consanguinity

AR conditions are usually fully penetrant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the probability of a normal sibling of an affect child with an AR condition being a carrier?

A

2/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the recurrence risk for each sibling of an affected person with an AR condition?

A

1/4 (25%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Name 3 AR conditions

A
  • sickle cell disease
  • cystic fibrosis
  • phenylketonuria (PKU)
  • spinal muscular atrophy (SMA)
  • congenital adrenal hyperplasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Compound heterozygotes

A

have two different mutations in the same gene, causing a mutation in each allele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Sex linked inheritance

A

refers to traits controlled by genes on the X or Y chromosome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Transmission of x-linked recessive disorders to offspring

A

1) XR traits show no male to male transmission since their sons receive their Y and not their X.
2) Unaffected males do not transmit the phenotype.

3) All daughters of an affected male are heterozygous carriers since they get their father’s X
chromosome with the mutant allele.

4) knights move pedigree pattern
4) males affected more than females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the genotype of the daughter of a man affected by an x-linked recessive disorder?

A

All daughters of an affected male are heterozygous carriers since they get their father’s X chromosome with the mutant allele.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the genotype of the son of a man affected by an x-linked recessive disorder?

A

XR traits show no male to male transmission since their sons receive their Y and not their X.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a manifesting carrier?

A

Females may be mildly affected x-linked recessive disorders as a result of to skewed x-inactivation (uneven inactivation of the x-chromosome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy?

A

X-linked recessive

~ 2/3 cases are inherited from a person’s mother

~1/3 cases are due to a new mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the risk of the son of a female carrier of an x-linked recessive disorder being affected?

A

Sons of female carriers have a 50% risk of being affected

father passes on Y chromosome, mother can pass on either the normal
X chromosome or the faulty X chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the risk of the daughter of a female carrier of an x-linked recessive disorder being affected?

A

Females are usually only carriers

Daughters of a female carrier have a 50% chance of being a carrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the expected genotype proportions of the offspring of a male with an X-linked recessive condition?

A

No sons are affected – passes on Y chromosome

all daughters are carriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

X-Linked Dominant Inheritance

A

When the disorder nearly always manifests in heterozygous females

Females tend to be affected twice as often as males and an affected female will transmit the phenotype
to 50% of her children independent of their sex.

No male to male transmission.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Name 3 conditions that show X-Linked Dominant Inheritance

A

vitamin D resistant rickets

Incontinentia pigmenti (has male lethality)

Rett syndrome (male lethality - usually)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the risk of the daughter of a female affected by an x-linked dominant disorder being affected?

A

50% chance of passing on the gene

Sons and daughters at equal risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the risk of the son of a female affected by an x-linked dominant disorder being affected?

A

50% chance of passing on the gene

Sons and daughters at equal risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the risk of the daughter of a male affected by an x-linked dominant disorder being affected?

A

All daughters will be affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the risk of the son of a male affected by an x-linked dominant disorder being affected?

A

No sons will be affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which one of the following is common for X-linked recessive inheritance:

  • Severely affected females
  • Parental consanguinity
  • Daughters are carriers if their father is affected
  • Equal sex ratio for affected individuals
  • Affected boys with an affected father
A

Daughters are carriers if their father is affected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is Genetic “anticipation”?

A

Increasing severity and earlier age of onset of a condition in successive generations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which conditions show genetic anticipation?

A

Huntington disease (HD),

Fragile X syndrome,

Myotonic dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is Pseudo-dominant inheritance?

A

If an autosomal recessive condition has a very high carrier frequency or consanguinity – it appears like an autosomal dominant condition

i.e. the inheritanceof a recessive trait mimics adominant pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which condition shows Pseudo-dominant inheritance?

A

Gilbert syndrome - carrier frequency is approximately 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the pattern of mitochondrial inheritance?

A

inherited only from the mother, but to variable extents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

hypertelorism

A

abnormally increased distance the orbits (eyes)

44
Q

Examples of dysmorphic features

A

Head - micro/macrocephaly

Eyes - abnormal Palpebral fissures

Ears - low set, rotated anteriorly or posteriorly

Philtrum - smooth in FAS

Skin – Lumps, abnormal pigmentation

Hands and feet - Palmar creases

Fingers and toes – Polydactyly/syndactyly

45
Q

Pre-implantation Genetic Diagnosis

A

1-2 cells removed for testing at 3 days of development, when the embryo contains only 6-10 cells

analysis by PCR or FISH

Embryo sexing for X-linked recessive disorders possible by FISH

46
Q

Pre-implantation Genetic Diagnosis advantages

A

Permits implantation of unaffected embryos

Termination of pregnancy then unnecessary

47
Q

Pre-implantation Genetic Diagnosis disadvantages

A

Possible long waiting list

Not available to all women

Difficult with multiple visits and procedures

“Take home baby rate” usually <50% per cycle

48
Q

Main principles of a screening programme

A
 Clearly defined disorder
 Appreciable frequency
 Advantage to early diagnosis
 Few false positives (specificity)
 Few false negatives (sensitivity)
 Benefits outweigh the costs
49
Q

False negative

A

missed true case (negative result on screening test)

50
Q

False positive

A

positive on screening but negative on diagnostic test

51
Q

Sensitivity

A

How good is the test at correctly identifying people who do have the condition?

i.e. of all the people who have the condition, how many get a positive test on the screening
test?

52
Q

Specificity

A

How good is the test at identifying people who don’t have the disease?

i.e. How good is this test at ruling out the disease when it’s not present

53
Q

PRENATAL SCREENING TESTS

Down syndrome

A

Two methods, which can be used in combination with each other:

1) Serum screening
 Maternal blood biochemical markers
 Blood sample taken from the mother between 10 - 14 weeks of pregnancy
 Serum screen measures free beta-hCG and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A)

2) Ultrasound screening (nuchal translucency)
 Carried out between 11 -14 weeks
 Foetal nuchal translucency (FNT) screening uses ultrasound to measure the size of the nuchal pad at
the nape of the foetal neck.
 nuchal translucency increases in Down syndrome

54
Q

Guthrie test

A

NEONATAL SCREENING TEST

Screens for 9 conditions, including PKU, CF, sickle cell disease and congenital hypothyroidism

55
Q

Who is Sickle Cell and Thalassaemia (SCT) screening offered to?

A

all pregnant women

fathers-to-be, where antenatal screening shows the mother is a genetic carrier

all newborn babies,

56
Q

Chorionic villus sampling

A

GENETIC DIAGNOSTIC TEST

o Weeks 10-12
o Up to 1/50 chance of miscarriage
o Result in <1 week

57
Q

Amniocentesis

A

GENETIC DIAGNOSTIC TEST

o Weeks 16-18
o Up to 1/100 miscarriage rate
o Result in 1-2 weeks

58
Q

Array comparative genomic hybridization

A

technique for detection of chromosomal copy
number changes on a genome wide and high-resolution scale.

compares foetal DNA with normal DNA

checks for excess of any part of any chromosome

59
Q

non-invasive prenatal diagnosis (NIPD)

A

sample of blood taken from the mother. Detects free foetal DNA in the maternal serum

Can be used for achondroplasia and for foetal sex determination

60
Q

What is Heteroplasmy?

A

the presence of more than one type of organellar genome (mitochondrial DNA
or plastid DNA) within a cell/individual.

I.e. A cell can have some mitochondria that have a mutation in the mtDNA and some that do not. This is termedheteroplasmy.

61
Q

Threshold effect

A

Mitochondrial disease may become clinically apparent once the number of affected
mitochondria reaches a certain level; the “threshold expression.”

62
Q

Huntington Disease

  • inheritance
  • onset
  • mutation
  • symptoms
A
  • autosomal dominance with genetic anticipation (especially when passed on by the father)
  • onset typically in adulthood between 30 and 50
  • unstable length mutation in gene (huntingtin, HTT)
     Repeat of CAG codon
  • symptoms = progressive choreas, dementia and psychiatric symptoms
63
Q

How many CAG repeats cause the varied presentations in Huntington’s disease?

A
  • up to 35 repeats = unaffected
  • 36-39 = incomplete penetrance (may or may not get HD)
  • > 40 = Huntington’s
64
Q

How do CAG repeats lead to HD?

A
  • CAG repeat unit within the coding sequence encodes a polyglutamine tract
  • expansion of the tract causes insoluble protein aggregates and neurotoxicity
65
Q

Myotonic dystrophy

  • inheritance
  • mutation
  • symptoms
A

Autosomal dominant with genetic anticipation

Adult onset disease.

unstable length mutation of a CTG repeat
in the 3’ untranslated region of the DMPK gene. causes RNA splicing abnormalities for several genes because the abnormal region binds to a protein binding factor needed for splicing.

Symptoms:
o progressive muscle weakness in early adulthood
o myotonia - inability to relax voluntary muscle after vigorous effort.
o cataracts

66
Q

A man has been diagnosed as having myotonic dystrophy (DM), an adult onset disease for which there is no cure. He wishes to know if his healthy 5-year-old son is later going to develop DM.

Can parent request genetic test for child?

A

No - they will have to wait until the child is able to decide for themselves.

Parents can only request for their child to be testing if it has a specific benefit such as in cystic fibrosis, when they can test for the specific phenotype to determine which medication will work best.

67
Q

Cystic Fibrosis

  • inheritance
  • mutation
  • symptoms
A

Autosomal recessive

CFTR mutations causes defective chloride ion channel. Leads to increased thickness of secretions as the ion channel does not function properly. Phenylalanine deletion is most common

Causes:
• recurrent lung infections
• exocrine pancreatic insufficiency (85-90% of cases) due to blockage by secretions

68
Q

How is Cystic Fibrosis diagnosed?

A

screening of newborns by immunoreactive trypsin (IRT) level

confirmation by DNA testing (for CF mutations) and/or sweat testing (for increased chloride concentration)

69
Q

Name 4 conditions that show genetic anticipation

A

1) huntington’s disease
2) myotonic dystrophy
3) Fragile X syndrome
4) spinocerebellar ataxia

70
Q

Name 3 x-linked recessive conditions

A

1) duchenne uscular dystrophy
2) Becker’s muscular dystrophy
3) Fragile X syndrome

71
Q

NF-1

  • inheritance
  • mutation
  • symptoms
A

Autosomal dominant

mutation of agene onchromosome 17
that is responsible for production of
the protein neurofibromin –> abnormal neurofibromin production

Symptoms 
café au lait macules
neurofibromas
short stature
macrocephaly

Incomplete penetrance

72
Q

Duchenne muscular Dystrophy

  • inheritance
  • mutation
  • symptoms
A

X-linked recessive

DMD Gene: Out of frame mutation -removal of TCAC, 4 nucleotides

Causes Abnormal dystrophin
production

Symptoms
progressivemuscle degeneration and weakness
Onset by ~3 years, wheelchair by ~12

Boys with DMD will have massively increased levels of serum CK from birth

73
Q

Becker’s muscular dystrophy

  • inheritance
  • mutation
  • symptoms
A

X-linked recessive

DMD Gene: In-frame mutation - TTC codon is removed

Causes Abnormal dystrophin
production

Symptoms = milder phenotype of DMD
Onset by ~11 years

74
Q

Fragile X syndrome

  • inheritance
  • mutation
  • symptoms
A

X-linked recessive + genetic anticipation

Repeats in 5’ UTR of FMR1 gene. The repeat causes hypermethylation of DNA & repression transcription of genes

leads to silencing of theFMR1gene and
a lack of its product

most common inherited cause of significant learning disability

75
Q

Edward syndrome

A

Trisomy 18

Much more severe than trisomy 21

  • small chin
  • clenched hands with overlapping fingers
  • malformations of heart, kidney & other organs

• If babies survive first year, generally have profound learning disabilities

76
Q

Patau syndrome

A
Trisomy 13
• Congenital heart disease is usual
• About 50% die within 1 month
• like in Edward syndrome, approximately only 10% survive 1st year,
generally with profound LD
  • cleft lip & palate
  • Microphthalmia
  • abnormal ears
  • clenched fists
  • post-axial polydactyly – (extra little finger)
77
Q

Unbalanced translocation

A

A portion of a chromosome becomes deleted and rejoins at a different
point of the same chromosome or with a different chromosome

78
Q

Balanced carriers

A

male or female who has all the chromosomes (normal total amount of chromosomal material), but part of one chromosome has swapped with part of another chromosome

Child can inherit an unbalanced set of chromosomes because they inherit one of these abnormal chromosomes and not the other

May account for multiple miscarriages or stillbirths within a family

79
Q

Non-disjunction

A

Failure of a pair of homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids to separate during meiosis I
and II respectively

Most error results from non-disjunction during meiosis

80
Q

What is anenhancer?

A
a short (50–1500 bp) region of DNA that can be bound by proteins
(transcription factors) to increase the likelihood that transcription of a particular gene will occur. 

may be missing in some developmental disorders

81
Q

What abnormalities can you look for with DNA-based detection methods?

A
  1. Detection of point mutations
  2. Detection of sub-microscopic duplications and deletions
  3. detection of aneuploidies
82
Q

aneuploidies vs polyploidies

A

Aneuploidy - whereby there is an abnormal number of chromosomes, e.g. Trisomy 18

polyploidy – abnormal number of chromosomes but total chromosome number is a multiple of 23, e.g. triploidy

83
Q

How can you detect of point mutations?

A

1) DNA sequencing
- Sanger - looks at one gene at a time

  • next generation sequencing - looks at all genes at once
    2) Allele-specific (ARMS) PCR
84
Q

How can you detect of point mutations if you don’t know where the point mutation is?

A

DNA sequencing:

  • Sanger
  • next generation sequencing
85
Q

How can you detect of point mutations if you know where the point mutation is?

A

Allele-specific (ARMS) PCR can be used for specific known point mutations (primer has to be designed specifically)

86
Q

What methods are used for detection of sub-microscopic duplications and deletions?

A

1) MLPA (PCR-based):
o Used to look for deletions between 500-2000 nucleotides in size

2) Array comparative genomic hybridisation (aCGH)
o A way of looking across all of the chromosomes all at once

87
Q

What methods are used for detection of aneuploidies?

A

Quantitative fluorescent PCR (QF-PCR)
 Use DNA markers on chromosomes 13, 18 and 21 to give PCR peaks
 2 signals = indicates 2 chromosomes, ok
 3 signals = indicates extra chromosome

Remember: quantitative because aneuploidies have a different number

88
Q

What are the available Chromosome-based analysis methods?

A

Karyotyping - evaluates the number and structure of a person’s chromosomes in order to detect abnormalities

FISH (Fluorescence In-Situ Hybridisation) - Used to look for particular parts of a chromosome. Not as precise as other techniques.
Can be used to look for a deletion of 1-2 million nucleotides

89
Q

What methods would you use for Whole chromosome analysis?

A

karyotyping

QF-PCR

90
Q

What methods would you use for detecting Sub-microscopic deletions/duplications (<5Mb)?

A

o FISH (Fluorescence In-Situ Hybridisation)

o MLPA (if you know the position)

o aCGH (if position not known)

91
Q

What methods would you use for detecting Point mutations?

A

o DNA sequencing

o ARMS

92
Q

Missense substitution vs nonsense substitution

A

Missense substitution – changes one amino acid into another one

nonsense substitution: a point mutationin a sequence of DNA that results in a
premature stop codon

93
Q

Would two different gene mutations located on the same copy of a gene be enough to cause an AR disorder?

A

No

Both copies of the gene would need to be mutated for the disease to be caused.

Having justtwo different gene mutations on thesamecopy of a gene could still leave the other allele (gene copy) unaffected and functional.

Note that an individual with two different gene mutations on different copies of the same gene is called “compound heterozygous”

94
Q

Could a female be affected by an XR disorder if she had a mutation on both of her X chromosomes?

A

Yes

Alternatively, she could be affected by also having Turner syndrome (XO)

If that single X chromosome contained a mutation then she could be as
severely affected as an affected male.

95
Q

A boy has CF. What is the approximate chance of his mother’s brother being a carrier?

A

50%

CF is autosomal recessive therefore both of his parents must be carriers. This means that one of his mother’s parents are carriers.

Therefore, the uncle would have had 50/50 chance of inheriting the
mutation from the carrier grandparent.

96
Q

A 12 year old boy has CF. What is the approximate chance that his healthy older sister is a carrier?

A

Age is significant as this is a childhood onset disease and she clearly does not have it

you need to remove the carrier phenotype out of the equation, so there are only 3 options left

The options left are:
o Carrier
o Carrier
o Unaffected

Therefore, the chance of her being a carrier is 2/3 = 67%

97
Q

What is MLPA most commonly used to detect?

A

Looking for a sub-microscopic deletion of a gene

e.g. single nucleotide substitution in an unknown position in a gene

98
Q

clinical features and inheritance of MYH polyposis

A

Autosomal recessive (not autosomal dominant!)

 People with thisconditionhave fewer polyps than those with the classic type of FAP
o 15-200 polyps
o like a mild (“attenuated”) form of FAP, but this is a different disorder

Caused by mutation in DNA repair gene MYH
o Normal function: base excision repair (BER) gene – DNA glycosylase
 high risk of carcinoma
 2 yearly colonoscopy

99
Q

Li Fraumeni syndrome

A
Rare Autosomal Dominant cancer predisposition syndrome
o Breast cancer
o Brain tumours
o Sarcoma
o Leukaemia
o Adrenocortical carcinoma

 Mutations in master control gene, TP53

100
Q
The presence of male breast cancer in a family with other breast cancers, suggests which one of these
genes may be mutated?
1) MLH1
2) MSH2
3) MSH6
4) BRCA1
5) BRCA2
A

BRCA2

101
Q

Which one of the following is not a tumour suppressor gene?

1) MSH2
2) MLH1
3) BRCA2
4) RET
5) APC

A

RET -proto-oncogene, encodes a receptor tyrosine kinase

102
Q

Which one of the following is true for proto-oncogenes?

1) They include MSH2
2) They are only expressed in malignant tissues
3) Their tumorigenic activity requires the loss or mutation of both copies of the gene
4) They participate in the normal cellular response to growth factors
5) They inactivate oncogenes

A

They participate in the normal cellular response to growth factors

103
Q

clinical features and inheritance of familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

A

autosomal dominant inherited condition

numerousadenomatous polypsform mainly
in the epithelium of the large intestine.

Polyps start out benign, but malignant transformation into colon cancer occurs when they are left untreated

Congenital Hypertrophy of the Retinal Pigment Epithelium (CHRPE) seen in 80%
o Black spots seen on the retina
o Caused by proliferation of cells due to gene mutations

APC gene - chromosome 5 (tumour suppressor gene)
Annual bowel screening from age 11 for individuals with the mutation

104
Q

clinical features and inheritance of HNPCC/Lynch syndrome

A

autosomal dominant

high risk of colon cancer

Usually only a few polyps (less than 10)

Risk of getting other types of cancer:
o particularly endometrial cancer in females
o Stomach
o Ovary

inheritance of mutation in mismatch repair (MMR) system genes
o Complex of proteins that are important for accurate DNA replication
o if this system doesn’t work, mutations accumulate

105
Q

Genes causing HNPCC

A
All code for proteins that are involved in mismatch repair.
 MLH1 
 MSH2
 MSH6
 PMS2