Gene therapy Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

Replication-incapable viruses are used as vectors. What does this mean?

A

They have been GMed so that essential viral components have been deleted so they cannot replicate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Give 5 major components of a viral vector.

A
  1. MCS
  2. Selection gene
  3. Marker gene
  4. Promoters
  5. Enhancers to increase expression of selection gene
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Viruses are commonly used as vectors in gene therapy. Define an adenovirus.

A

A non-integrating DNA virus: it does not integrate itself into the genome and instead uses the cellular machinery to make viral proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Are adenoviruses replicated at cell division of the host?

A

No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Adenoviruses do not elicit an immune response from the host. True or false?

A

False, they are highly immunogenic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Viruses are commonly used as vectors in gene therapy. Define a retrovirus.

A

Viruses that use reverse transcriptase to incorporate their genetic material into the genome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does a retrovirus incorporate its DNA into the genome?

A

It uses reverse transcriptase to make cDNA from its RNA genome which is them incorporated into the host DNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The inserted DNA of retroviruses is replicated during cell division of the host. True or false?

A

True, retroviruses affect dividing cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What can insertional mutagenesis cause?

A

Cancer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is are lentiviruses?

A

A subset of retroviruses that can infect non-diving cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Give some examples of non-dividing cells.

A

Terminally differentiated cells like neurons etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What kind of illnesses do lentiviruses produce? Give an example.

A

Those with a delayed onset of symptoms after infection. HIV (human immunodeficiency virus) is an example of a lentivirus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

HIV-based vectors can be used in gene therapy. How is this possible without causing AIDS?

A

The packaging and replication elements of the virus are separately transfected into the same cell - no complete HIV viruses are produced thus it cannot be replicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is pseudotyping?

A

A process that allows us to specify the envelope proteins expressed by a virus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the point of pseudotyping?

A

The pseudotyped virus appears, based on its cell-surface proteins, as something it is not, allowing it to transfect most cell types.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Can a pseudotyped virus replicate itself?

A

Yes but it will not pass on the new cell-surface proteins to its progeny.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the general procedure of viral transfection?

A
  1. Insert the desired DNA into a plasmid, grow in bacterial hosts
  2. Insert plasmid into viral vector
  3. Use virus to transfect desired recipient of target DNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Define Gateway Cloning.

A

Allows DNA transfer to different cloning vectors whilst maintaining the reading frame. It uses specific recombination sequences called ‘gateway sites’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Gateway cloning is based on proteins from which organisms?

A

Lambda and E. coli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Define an entry clone.

A

A plasmid containing your gene of interest flanked by entry sites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Define a destination vector.

A

A vector that will be inserted with the desired gene. The desired gene will replace a section of DNA in the destination vector.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the advantage to gateway cloning?

A

Entry clone libraries have been created. This means that every time you want to insert a particular gene into a vector you don’t have to go through the whole process, you can just use the entry clone to transform the vector.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In gateway cloning, gateway sites are sometimes referred to as what?

A

‘att’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In entry clones the gateway sites are referred to as…?

A

attL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

In destination clones the gateway sites are referred to as…?

A

attR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the basic gateway cloning reaction? Explain it briefly.

A

The ‘LR’ reaction. The attL in entry clones are cut to give sticky ends. The attR in destination clones are cut to give complementary sticky ends. These are joined together.

27
Q

The LR reaction has two products. What are they?

A
  1. The expression clone: this is the vector with the desired gene inserted
  2. A by-product: this is the rest of the entry clone plasmid (without the desired gene) combined to a section of DNA from the destination vector. It is useless.

Basically 2 plasmids have just swapped sections and one product has ended up with both good bits.

28
Q

The gateway reaction is described as a conservative reaction. Why?

A

There is no loss or gain of nucleotides.

29
Q

Can the reaction be reversed?

A

Yes, for sub-cloning.

30
Q

The co-integrate is an intermediary construct that is formed between the entry and destination clones BEFORE the expression clone is formed. True or false?

A

True.

31
Q

What is TA PCR cloning?

A

A method that clones PCR products into a vector. Taq polymerases often leave a 3’ T-overhang in PCR. TA PCR products have A-overhangs, thus the 2 come together.

32
Q

50% of the clones produced by TA PCR are antisense.

A

True.

33
Q

Define TOPO cloning.

A

A method that uses topoisomerase to clone PCR products into a plasmid vector.

34
Q

Explain how TOPO cloning works.

A

Topoisomerase ligates DNA fragments together instead of DNA ligase. Topoisomerase is attached to a TOPO vector.

35
Q

What form of topoisomerase is used in TOPO cloning?

A

Topoisomerase I.

36
Q

What is the recognition sequence for topoisomerase 1?

A

(C/T)CCTT-3’

37
Q

Topoisomerase covalently recombines DNA. True or false?

A

True.

38
Q

TOPO cloning can be used in combination with TA cloning. True or false?

A

True.

39
Q

TOPO cloning can be made directional by adding primers. True or false?

A

True.

40
Q

How quickly does topoisomerase I act at room temperature?

A

It takes 5 minutes to ligate a DNA fragment into a vector.

41
Q

TOPO cloning can ligate fragments into gateway destination vectors. True or false?

A

True.

42
Q

Define tetracycline-controlled transcriptional activation.

A

A method of transducible gene expression whereby transcription is reversibly turned on or off in the presence of tetracycline.

43
Q

What is tetracycline?

A

An antibiotic.

44
Q

How does tetracycline-controlled transcriptional activation work?

A

It uses the binding of tetracycline transactivator (TA) protein to tetracycline response elements (TRE) to activate genes.

45
Q

There are 2 versions of tetracycline-controlled transcriptional activation. What are they?

A
  1. Tet-Off

2. Tet-On

46
Q

How does Tet-Off work?

A

Tetracycline turns the gene off. Tetracycline prevents tTA from binding to TRE which is necessary for gene expression.

47
Q

How does Tet-On work?

A

Applying tetracycline turns the gene on. Tetracycline causes rtTA to bind to TRE, which is necessary for gene expression.

48
Q

Tet-Off anf Tet-On cannot both occur at the same time. True or false?

A

False - the two can be combined if tissue specific promoters are used.

49
Q

Doxycycline is a more stable derivative of tetracycline that is often used instead. True or false?

A

True.

50
Q

What technology can Tet-Off be combined with to produce conditional knock-out mutants?

A

Cre-Lox recombination

51
Q

List 3 major types of marker gene.

A
  1. Fluorescent proteins
  2. LacZ gene
  3. Protein tags, e.g. His-tag
52
Q

What does IRES stand for?

A

Internal Ribosome Entry Site.

53
Q

What does an IRES do?

A

Induces translation initiation in the middle of a mRNA sequence.

54
Q

What is the point of IRESs?

A

You can express 2 different exons from 1 mRNA.

55
Q

Why is IRES used?

A

To ensure the expression of marker genes.

56
Q

Promoters can be tissue-specific. This relies on the expression of what?

A

Tissue-specific transcription factors (to bind to the specific promoter regions and begin transcription).

57
Q

Why is it not the best idea to directly administer a viral vector to a patient, aiming to alter cells in vivo? Give 2 reasons.

A
  1. Elicits an immune response, particularly with adenoviruses.
  2. Often a particular type of cell is the desired target and it is hard to be specific e.g. cystic fibrosis
58
Q

One method of delivering viruses for gene therapy is the ex vivo transduction of transplantable cells. What kind of cells does this require?

A

Stem cells.

59
Q

Give one problem with using a) embryonic stem cells, b) IPSCs and c) adult somatic stem cells in transduction experiments.

A

a) Controversial
b) Safety concerns, may cause cancers
c) Hard to isolate and culture

60
Q

Give 3 advantages of using somatic stem cells in ex vivo transduction.

A
  1. Taken from the patient themselves - no immunogenicity
  2. Self-renewal means clonal growth once transduced
  3. No direct contact with virus for patient, thus reduced toxicity.
61
Q

Define SCID.

A

Severe Combined Immunodeficiency: disease where patients have no immunity due to T- and B-cell dysfunction.

62
Q

What causes SCID?

A

An X-linked mutation resulting in defective adenosine deaminase (ADA) enzyme.

63
Q

How many children with SCID have been saved via transplant of cells with corrected genes so far?

A

17

64
Q

What problems have SCID patients that have undergone cell transplants with corrected genes faced?

A

Reversion to defective ADA and leukaemia.