GEN Updated 01JUN2017

Question 1

AIP ENR 1.2-1, para 1.1.1 – The VFR

VFR flights may only be conducted when:

Answer 1

VFR flight may only be conducted:

a. in VMC;
b. provided that, when operating at or below 2,000FT above the ground or water, the pilot is able to navigate by visual reference to the ground or water;
c. at sub-sonic speeds; and
d. in accordance with the speed restrictions identified at ENR 1.1, 8.15. (OLD 1.1, 65.)

Question 2

AIP ENR 1.2-1, para 1.1.2 – The VFR

VFR at Night:

Answer 2

Unless the pilot in command is authorised under CASR Part 61 to conduct a flight under the IFR or at night under the VFR and the aircraft is appropriately equipped for flight at night or under the IFR, a VFR flight must not:

a. be conducted at night; and
b. depart from an aerodrome unless the ETA for the destination (or alternate) is at least 10 minutes before last light allowing for any required holding.

Question 3

AIP ENR 1.2-1, para 1.2.1 – The Special VFR
Or MATS 9.2.7.1

When ATS allowed to provide Special VFR?

Answer 3

A Special VFR clearance may be issued, at pilot request, for a VFR flight within a CTR, or in CTA next to the CTR for the purpose of entering or leaving the CTR, provided:

a) it is by day;
b) VMC does not exist; and
c) an IFR flight will not be unduly delayed.

Question 4

AIP ENR 1.2-1, para 1.2.2 – The Special VFR

Minimum Visibility and Requirements of Special VFR?

Answer 4

When operating under a Special VFR clearance, pilots are responsible for ensuring that:

a. the flight is conducted clear of cloud;

b. the visibility is not less than:
1) for aeroplanes, 1,600M;
2) for helicopters, 800M; or
3) for balloons, 100M below 500FT AGL and 3,000M at and
above 500FT AGL;

c. a helicopter is operated at such a speed that the pilot has adequate opportunity to observe any obstructions or other traffic in sufficient time to avoid a collision; and
d. the flight is conducted in accordance with the requirements of CAR 157 with regard to low flying.

Question 5

MATS 6.2.1.1 – Callsign Confusion

Callsign Confusion

Answer 5

When similar callsigns may cause confusion you may take action to minimise errors including:

a) emphasising certain numbers/letters;
b) repeating the entire callsign e.g. QANTAS451 QANTAS451;
c) repeating the prefix e.g. QANTAS451 QANTAS;
d) advising pilots that there are aircraft with similar callsigns on frequency; or
e) instructing pilots to use a different callsign either temporarily or for the duration of the flight.

Question 6

FIHA ENR 1.1, para 1.5.2 – Right of Way

Define ‘Right of Way’

Define ‘Well-Clear’

Answer 6

The captain of an aircraft who is required by there rules to give right of way to another aircraft is to avoid passing over or under the other, or crossing ahead, unless well clear.

An aircraft is well clear if it is flown no closer than 500 FT vertically or 600 m (2000 FT) horizontally from other aircraft.

Question 7

FIHA ENR 1.1, para 1.1 – General Rules

Minimum Safe Heights

Answer 7

Except where necessary for taking off, landing, executing instrument approach procedures, conforming with ATC instructions, or when authorised by an appropriate authority in order to undertake a specific task, aircraft shall not be flown:

a. over the congested areas of cities, towns or settlements, or over an open-air assembly of persons, unless at such a height as will permit, in the event of an emergency arising, a landing to be made without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface; this height shall not be less than 1000FT above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600M from the aircraft (300M in the case of a helicopter); and
b. elsewhere than as specified above, at a height less than 500FT above obstacles or water (ARMY - 200FT above highest obstacles or water).

Question 8

FIHA ENR 1.1, para 1.2.1 – General Rules

Low Flying

Answer 8

Low flying is defined as flying at less than 500FT

(ARMY- 200FT) above obstacles or water.

Question 9

FIHA ENR 1.1, para 1.3 – General Rules

Aerobatics

Answer 9

1. 3.1 No pilot is to engage in aerobatics over populous areas or public gatherings except as approved in appropriate command instructions. Instructions relating to flypasts and flying displays are published in:
   a. RAN: ABR 5150;
   b. ARMY: SI (AVN); and
   c. RAAF: AC SI.

OLD – not below 4000ft above terrain.

Question 10

FIHA ENR 1.1, para 1.5.3 – General Rules

Overtaking

Answer 10

An aircraft being overtaken has the right of way and the overtaking aircraft, whether climbing, or descending or in horizontal flight, shall give right of way to the other aircraft by altering its heading to the right, and no subsequent change in the relative positions of the two aircraft shall absolve the overtaking aircraft from this obligation until it is entirely past and clear. The overtaking aircraft shall not pass by diving.

Question 11

FIHA ENR 1.1, para 1.5.5 – General Rules

Converging

Answer 11

When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same height, the aircraft captain having the other on his right must give way except that:

a. power driven heavier-than-air aircraft must give way to airships, gliders and balloons;
b. airships must give way to gliders and balloons;
c. gliders must give way to balloons; and
d. captains of power driven aircraft must give way to aircraft which are seen to be towing other aircraft or objects.

Question 12

FIHA ENR 1.1, para 1.5.6 – General Rules

Approaching Head-on Rule

Answer 12

When two aircraft are approaching head-on or approximately so, and there is danger of collision, both aircraft captains must alter heading to the right.

Question 13

FIHA ENR 1.2, para 2 – VMC Conditions

Visual Meteorological Conditions
Class C

Answer 13

Controlled Airspace – Class C

Types of Aircraft - Height - Flight Visibility - Distance from Cloud horiz/vert - additional conditions

Aeroplanes and Helicopters - above 10000ft AMSL - 8km - 1500m horizontal - 1000ft vertical -

Aeroplanes and Helicopters - below 10000ft AMSL - 5000m - 1500m horizontal - 1000ft vertical - ATC may permit operations in weather conditions that do not meet these specific criteria (special VFR)

(Above 5000m use …km)

Question 14

AIP ENR 1.4-11, para 5.3.2.2 – Restricted Airspace

Define RA status 1,2,3

Answer 14

RA CONDITIONAL STATUS LEGEND:
Conditional Status RA1: Pilots may flight plan through the Restricted Area and under normal circumstances expect a clearance from ATC.

Conditional Status RA2: Pilots must not flight plan through the
Restricted Area unless on a route specified in ERSA GEN FPR or under agreement with the Department of Defence, however a clearance from ATC is not assured.Other tracking may be offered through the Restricted Area on a tactical basis.

Conditional Status RA3: Pilots must not flight plan through the
Restricted Area and clearances will not be available.

Note: In a declared emergency, every effort will be made to obtain approval to transit a Restricted Area, irrespective of its conditional status.

Question 15

MATS 1.1.1.20 – Definitions

Restricted Area definition and designation

Answer 15

An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is restricted in accordance with certain specified conditions.

Note: This designation is used when necessary in the interests of public safety or the protection of the environment.

Question 16

MATS 1.1.1.4 – Definition

Define Blanket Clearance

Answer 16

A pre-arranged clearance originated for specific activities or events and specified in a letter of agreement or MATS Supplementary Procedures.

Question 17

MATS 2.4.1.2 – Alerting Services

Alerting Services are provided to who?

Answer 17

Provide the alerting service:

a) for all aircraft provided with air traffic control service;
b) to any aircraft known or believed to be the subject of unlawful interference;

and

c) in so far as practicable, to all other aircraft having filed a flight plan or otherwise known to air traffic services.

Question 18

MATS 2.7.4.2 – Phraseology

What is the response to a test transmission?

Answer 18

Respond to a test transmissions with:

a) identification of the station making the initial test transmission;
b) identification of the responding station; and
c) assessment of the readability of the test transmission.

Question 19

MATS 5.1.10 – Due Regard

Due Regard

Answer 19

ATS is not responsible for:

a) ATS to due regard aircraft; and
b) Separation between due regard aircraft and other aircraft

Note 1: State aircraft that are operating with due regard are not complying with ATC rules and procedures but rather undertaking responsibility for collision avoidance with other traffic complying with ATC rules and procedures.

Note 3: Australian state aircraft may operate due regard and foreign state aircraft must operate IAW their authorisation which may include due regard operations.

Question 20

FIHA ENR 1.7, 2.1 – Transition Layer

Describe Transition Layer

Answer 20

The system of altimetry used in Australia makes use of a transition layer between the Transition Altitude which is always 10,000 FT and the Transition Level of FL110 to FL125 depending on QNH to separate aircraft using QNH from those using 1013.2 hPa as a datum.

FL110 – Not Available when Area QNH is below 1013 HPA
FL115 – Not Available when Area QNH is below 997 HPA
FL120 – Not Available when Area QNH is below 980 HPA
FL125 – Not Available when Area QNH is below 963 HPA

Question 21

AIP GEN 3.4-15, para 4.8.1 - Pharaseology

Language used for all Air to Ground transmissions?

Answer 21

ENGLISH

English language must be used for all air-ground RTF communications within Australian FIRs unless use of an alternative language has been arranged with ATS prior to any specific flight.

Question 22

AIP GEN 2.2-7

Define CTAF

Answer 22

Common Traffic Advisory Frequency

A designated frequency on which pilots make positional broadcasts when operating in the vicinity of a non-controlled aerodrome.

Question 23

AIP Gen 3.4, 3.2.1>10, para 3.2.1, 3.2.6

Define CA/GRS

Answer 23

Certified Air/Ground Radio Service

3. 2.1 A Certified Air/Ground Radio Service is an aerodrome-based radio information service, which may operate at non-controlled aerodromes. The service is a safety enhancement facility which provides pilots with operational information relevant to the particular aerodrome. The service is operated by or for the aerodrome operator to published hours, on the CTAF assigned to the particular aerodrome. It is not an Airservices or RAAF-provided air traffic service.
4. 2.2 The CA/GRS does not provide any separation service.
5. 2.6 The operational information provided by a CA/GRS assists pilots in making informed operational decisions. Pilots retain authority and responsibility for the acceptance and use of the information provided.

Question 24

MATS 1.1.1.3/2.4.6.1.1 – Reserving Airspace

What is an Airspace Reservation and what types are available including the activities that are covered?

Answer 24

A defined volume of airspace normally under jurisdiction of one aviation authority and temporarily reserved by common agreement, for exclusive use of another.

The types of airspace reservations available are those:

a) relating to fixed defined areas; or
b) that are ‘mobile’, because they cover activities such as aerial refuelling, en route formation flights, etc.

Question 25

AIP GEN 3.4-11, para 4.1.4 - Phraseology

What language to indicate intentions?
if no phraseology available

Answer 25

Where circumstances warrant, and no phraseology is available, clear and concise plain language should be used to indicate intentions.

Question 26

MATS 6.5.2.1 – Voice Call

What does the reply of a voice call consist of?

Answer 26

Reply to a voice call with:

a) identification of the calling unit;
b) identification of the called unit; and
c) STANDBY when appropriate.

Question 27

AIP ENR 1.4-13, para 5.3.5 – Danger Airspace

Does flight through danger airspace
require specific approval?

Answer 27

Approval for flight within an active Danger Area outside controlled airspace is not required. However it is the responsibility of the Pilot-In-Command to be aware of the dangerous activity and take appropriate precautions.

Question 28

MATS 2.4.1.1 - Airspace

What are the speed limitations of military aircraft?

Answer 28

Note 1: Speed limitations do not apply to military aircraft, except military IFR in Class C airspace at particular locations specified in ERSA.

Question 29

AIP ENR 1.1-46, para 3.5.1.1.1 – Radio Comms

Carriage of VHF Radios, and being qualified to use the radio, are mandatory when…

Answer 29

Carriage of VHF radio and being qualified to use the radio, are mandatory when operating at or in the vicinity of a non-controlled registered, certified or military aerodrome.

Question 30

AIP GEN 3.4-16, para 4.11 - Phraseology 1 of 2

Transmission of Numbers:

ALTITUDES
800...?
1,500...?
6,715...?
10,000...?

CLOUD HEIGHT
2,200…?
4,300…?

VISIBILITY
200…?
1,500…?
3,000…?

RUNWAY VISUAL RANGE
700…?

Answer 30

All numbers used in the transmission of altitude, cloud height, visibility and Runway Visual Range (RVR) information, which contain whole hundreds and whole thousands, must be transmitted by pronouncing each digit in the number of hundreds or thousands followed by the word HUNDRED or THOUSAND as appropriate, e.g.

ALTITUDES
800 “EIGHT HUNDRED”
1,500 “ONE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED”
6,715 “SIX SEVEN ONE FIVE”
10,000 “ONE ZERO THOUSAND”

CLOUD HEIGHT
2,200 “TWO THOUSAND TWO HUNDRED”
4,300 “FOUR THOUSAND THREE HUNDRED”

VISIBILITY
200 “TWO HUNDRED”
1,500 “ONE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED”
3,000 “THREE THOUSAND”

RUNWAY VISUAL RANGE
700 “SEVEN HUNDRED”.

Question 31

AIP GEN 3.4-16, para 4.11 - Phraseology 2 of 2

Transmission of Numbers:

FLIGHT LEVELS
FL 180…?
FL 200…?

HEADINGS

150. ..?
151. ..?
152. ..?

WIND
DIRECTION 020°…?
100°…?
210°…?

WIND SPEEDS
70KT…?
18KT, gusting 30…?

MACH NUMBER
0.84…?

ALTIMETER SETTING

1000. ..?
1001. ..?
1002. 95…?

RUNWAY VISUAL RANGE
350…?

Answer 31

All other numbers must be transmitted by pronouncing each digit
separately, e.g.

FLIGHT LEVELS
FL 180 “FLIGHT LEVEL ONE EIGHT ZERO”
FL 200 “FLIGHT LEVEL TWO ZERO ZERO”

HEADINGS
150 “ONE FIVE ZERO”
080 “ZERO EIGHT ZERO”
300 “THREE ZERO ZERO”

WIND
DIRECTION 020° “ZERO TWO ZERO DEGREES”
100° “ONE ZERO ZERO DEGREES”
210° “TWO ONE ZERO DEGREES”

WIND SPEEDS
70KT “SEVEN ZERO KNOTS”
18KT, gusting 30 “ONE EIGHT KNOTS GUSTING
THREE ZERO”

MACH NUMBER
0.84 “DECIMAL EIGHT FOUR”

ALTIMETER SETTING
1000 “ONE ZERO ZERO ZERO”
1027 “ONE ZERO TWO SEVEN”
29.95 “TWO NINE DECIMAL NINE FIVE”

RUNWAY VISUAL RANGE
350 “THREE FIVE ZERO”

Question 32

AIP GEN 3.1-5, para 4.1 – AIRAC SYSTEM

Define the AIRAC System

Answer 32

In order to control and regulate the operationally significant changes requiring amendments to aeronautical charts, route listings, etc, such changes will generally be issued on predetermined dates according to the Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control (AIRAC) System.

Question 33

MATS 2.4.1.1.1 - Airspace

What are the speed limitations of military aircraft?

Answer 33

Speed limitations do not apply to military aircraft, except military IFR in Class C airspace at particular locations specified in ERSA.

Question 34

Which airspace?

Established:

a) within radar coverage lower limit FL180 and upper limit FL600;
b) outside radar coverage lower limit FL245 and upper limit FL600; and
c) extending from 90 NM south of Melbourne to Launceston and Hobart, lower limit FL180 upper limit FL600.

Answer 34

MATS 2.4.2.1 – Classes of Airspace

Classes of Airspace and Application
A

Question 35

Which Airspace?

Established:

a) within radar coverage south of Sydney, lower limit FL125 and upper limit FL180 under Class A airspace;
b) in the control area steps associated with controlled aerodromes, excluding control area steps classified as Class D airspace; and
c) in CTRs of defined dimensions.

Answer 35

MATS 2.4.2.1 – Classes of Airspace

Classes of Airspace and Application
C

Question 36

Which Airspace?

Established:
CTRs of defined dimension, and associated control area steps to a maximum upper limit 5500 FT.

Answer 36

MATS 2.4.2.1 – Classes of Airspace

Classes of Airspace and Application
D

Question 37

Which Airspace?

Established:

a) within radar coverage:
i) south of Sydney, lower limit 8500 FT and upper limit FL125 under Class C airspace; and
ii) north of Sydney, lower limit 8500 FT and upper limit FL180, under Class A airspace;
b) outside radar coverage within continental Australia lower limit FL180 and upper limit FL245 under Class A airspace;
c) an area extending from 90 NM south of Melbourne to Launceston and Hobart, lower limit FL125 and upper limit FL180 under Class A airspace;
d) in two corridors; Sydney to Dubbo, lower limit FL125 and upper limit FL180 Melbourne to Mildura, lower limit FL125 and upper limit FL180, under en route Class E airspace; and
e) in the control area steps associated with Class D controlled aerodromes at Karratha, Broome, Avalon, Mackay and Rockhampton excluding control area steps classified as Class C or D airspace.

Answer 37

MATS 2.4.2.1 – Classes of Airspace

Classes of Airspace and Application
E

Question 38

Which Airspace:

Non-controlled airspace comprises:
a) Flight Information Areas (FIA); and
b) Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) area.
Note: Except south of 65° South.

Answer 38

MATS 2.4.2.1 – Classes of Airspace

Classes of Airspace and Application
G

Question 39

MATS 1.1.1.18 – Prohibited Area

Prohibited Area

Answer 39

Airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial waters of a state, within which the flight of an aircraft is prohibited. Designation is appropriate only for reasons of military necessity.

Question 40

MATS 1.1.1.6 – Danger Area

Danger Area

Answer 40

Airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or territorial waters of a state, within which activities of potential danger to aircraft may exist

Question 41

MATS 1.1.1.5 – Controlled Airspace

Controlled Airspace

Answer 41

An airspace of defined dimensions within which ATC services are provided IAW the airspace classification.

CTA: Controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth, excluding OCA.

CTR: Controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the earth to a specified upper limit.

Question 42

AIP GEN 3.4-12, para 4.13.1 – Standard Words and Phrases

Readable Levels of a Transmission

Answer 42

1. Unreadable
2. Readable now and then
3. Readable but with difficulty
4. Readable
5. Perfectly readable

Question 43

MATS 2.3.1.2

Traffic/Overall Priority

Answer 43

In order, give priority for use of a manoeuvring area or airspace to:

1) An aircraft in a state of emergency including being subject to unlawful interference;
2) A multi-engined aircraft which has suffered the loss of an engine and has not been subjected to an emergency phase;
3) An aircraft known to have suffered failure of radio communication;
4) An aircraft that has declared itself a MERCY flight;
5) An aircraft participating in Search and Rescue (SAR), Medical (MEDEVAC), or Flood or Fire Relief (FFR) flights;
6) An aircraft operating under police callsign POLAIR RED ( or FEDPOL RED) and engaged in operations where life is at risk; an
7) An aircraft engaged in the personal transport of:
i. Heads of State or of Government
ii. Other selected dignitaries on official visits to Australia; or
iii. The Governor-General or the Prime Minister

Question 44

MATS 6.5.2.8 – Telephony protocols

Phrase for change of runway

Answer 44

Use the phrase ‘CHANGE OF RUNWAY, (discrete RWY designator), when a RWY change is initiated or approved.

Question 45

AIP GEN 2.2-6

Define CTAF
When should monitor?

Answer 45

Common Traffic Advisory Frequency

A designated frequency on which pilots make positional broadcasts when operating in the vicinity of a non-controlled aerodrome.

Pilots of aircraft transiting in the vicinity of a non controlled aerodrome should monitor the designated CTAF while within 10nm of the aerodrome.

Question 46

MATS 2.7.4 – Testing of Air-Ground facilities

What is the

a) Format of a test transmission?
b) Response to a test transmission?

Answer 46

Format:

b) identification of the station being called;
c) identification of the calling station;
d) words “ RADIO CHECK” and
e) frequency if more than one frequency in use.

Respond:

a) identification of the station making the initial test transmission;
b) identification of the responding station; and
c) assessment of the readability of the test transmission.