Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Gen Path Exam 2 > Gen Path Exam 2 > Flashcards

Gen Path Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Inflammatory cells central to granulomatous inflammation?

a. Macrophages
b. Epithelial cells
c. Multinucleated giant cells
d. Epitheloid cells
e. A & B
f. A, C, D

A

A, C, D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Agents that are known to cause cancer most often have one common characteristic and that is:

a. They are all synthetic agents created by man.
b. They target the labile cell populations of the body.
c. They cause cellular hyperplasia.
d. They have the potential to damage DNA.

A

d. They have the potential to damage DNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q 
All inflammatory reactions are characterized by: 
1. Increase blood flow 
2. Increased vascular permeability 
3. Fibrin exudation 
4. Leukocytic exudation 
5. Parenchymal cell necrosis 
A. 1 
B. 1,2 
C. 1,2,3 
D. 1,2,3,4,5 
E. 1,2,4
A

E. 1,2,4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

All of the following are important diagnostic criteria for benign and malignant tumors EXCEPT?
A. Compression/disturbance of function in surrounding tissue
B. Differentiation / anaplasia
C. Rate of growth
D. Local invasiveness
E. Metastasis

A

A. Compression/disturbance of function in surrounding tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

All of the following are reasonable differentials for a primary neoplasm of the spleen EXCEPT:

a. Hemangiosarcoma.
b. Osteosarcoma.
c. Histiocytic sarcoma.
d. Leiomyosarcoma.
e. Lymphoma.

A

b. Osteosarcoma.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

All of the following are true regarding “Cancer Cachexia” EXCEPT:

a. Refers to the emaciated state sometimes seen in patients with cancer.
b. It cannot be attributed entirely to low caloric intake.
c. It is primarily the result of tumor consumption of nutrients.
d. It is associated with elevated levels of TNFalpha, IL-6 and IFNgamma.
e. Affected individuals have altered metabolic pathways that interfere with normal storage and usage of fats.

A

c. It is primarily the result of tumor consumption of nutrients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

All of the following are TRUE regarding oncogenic viruses EXCEPT:

a. RNA oncogenic viruses have genetic material that is very close in sequence to host cellular proto-oncogenes
b. DNA viruses do not carry cellular oncogenes
c. Some oncogenic viruses induce antibody production in the host that prevents tumor development in the infected host.
d. All viral induced tumors are malignant.
e. Feline leukemia virus is a well known example of an oncogenic RNA virus.

A

d. All viral induced tumors are malignant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

All of the following are true regarding the term “dysplasia” EXCEPT:

a. Dysplasia usually occurs in epithelial tissues.
b. Dysplasia is often a pre-neoplastic change.
c. Dysplasia is an irreversible change.
d. Dysplastic tissues have abnormal looking cells.
e. Dysplastic tissues are a disorganized form of hyperplasia.

A

c. Dysplasia is an irreversible change.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

All of the following events or conditions favor repair by fibrosis, rather than by regeneration:

  1. Severe and prolonged injury
  2. Acute neutrophilic inflammatory response
  3. Loss of basement membranes
  4. Large amounts of necrotic and/or fibrinous exudates
  5. Lack of renewable cells
A. 1,2 
B. 1,2, 3 
C. 1,2,3,4 
D. 1,2,3,4,5 
E. 1,3,4,5
A

E. 1,3,4,5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Based on what you know about predicting patterns of metastasis using anatomic relationships, hemodynamics and patterns of venous blood flow, which of the following neoplasms would be LEAST likely to have hepatic metastasis?

a. Renal cell carcinoma
b. Carcinoma of the small intestine.
c. Hemangiosarcoma of the spleen.
d. Pancreatic exocrine carcinoma.
e. Beta cell carcinoma of the pancreas.

A

a. Renal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Cells or tissues from which sarcomas arise include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Endothelial cells.
b. Hepatoctyes.
c. Adipoctyes.
d. Lymphocytes.
e. Smooth muscle cells.

A

b. Hepatoctyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Choose one feature of a neoplasm that indicates it is unequivocally malignant:

a. Numerous mitotic figures.
b. Areas of necrosis.
c. Lack of cellular differentiation.
d. Clear evidence of metastasis.
e. Grows by infiltration.

A

d. Clear evidence of metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Choose the correct statement regarding what we learned about the biological behavior of benign and malignant neoplasms:

a. Some malignant tumors initially go through a benign phase.
b. Malignant tumors develop increasing degrees of malignancy as they undergo continual mutations that select for tumor cell survival.
c. Some benign tumors have very limited or essentially no potential to become malignant.
d. All malignant tumors studied have been shown to have multiple genetic alterations.
e. All of the above are true.

A

e. All of the above are true.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q 
Chronic inflammatory reactions in most tissues in the body are usually characterized by which of the following processes? 
A. Neutrophil chemotaxis
B. Basophil infiltration
C. Mast cell hyperplasia
D. Fibrinous response
E. Fibrosis
A

E. Fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
Common mutations in genes associated with cancer include all of the following EXCEPT?
A. Apoptosis regulating genes
B. Cytochrome P450 expression genes
C. Proto‐oncogenes
D. Tumor suppressor genes
E. DNA repair genes
A

B. Cytochrome P450 expression genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Connective tissue myofibroblast contraction and remodeling is mediated by:

A

TGF-beta, PDGF, collagenase, MMPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define:

  • Granulomatous inflammation
  • Granuloma
  • Granulation tissue
A
    • inflammatory process dominated by macrophages (sometimes epithelioid and giant cells)
  • compact and organized collection of mononuclear inflammatory cells (macrophages, lymphocytes, and plasma cells) dominated by macrophages
  • highly organized fibrovascular tissue that often replaces necrotic debris and areas where poor regeneration occurs.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Eosinophilic inflammatory rxns are often induced by:

A

Nematode parasites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Epithelial proliferation/migration is mediated by:

A

EGF, HGF, PDGF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q 
Epithelioid cells and multinucleated giant cells in granulomatous inflammatory reactions are derived from:
A. Mast cells
B. Neutrophils
C. Eosinophils
D. Lymphocytes
E. Macrophages
A

E. Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Fibroblast migration/replication and collagen synthesis is mediated by what?

A

PDGF, EGF, FGF, TGF-beta, TNF, IL-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Fibrous vs fibrinous

A

a. Fibrous: product of a repair process

b. Fibrinous: inflammatory exudate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q 
The gene that serves as the "Guardian of the Genome" to block growth of mutated cells and control
DNA repair is? 
A. p53
B. K‐RAS
C. Cytochrome c
D. VEGF
E. Telomerase
A

A. p53

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Granulomatous inflammation is almost always?

a. acute
b. chronic

A

b. Chronic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q 
The growth factor released from macrophages in chronic inflammatory reactions that has the paradoxical effect of promoting fibroblast proliferation and inhibiting epithelial proliferation is: 
A. TGF-β 
B. TNF-α 
C. b-FGF 
D. PGDF 
E. VEGF
A

A. TGF-β

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q 
Histamine increases vascular permeability at the level of capillaries and venules via which
mechanism? 
A. Endothelial cell contraction
B. Endothelial cell damage
C. Increased transcytosis
D. Induces endothelial proliferation
A

A. Endothelial cell contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Histamine increases vascular permeability via:

A

Endothelial cell contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Holstein cattle and Irish Setter dogs have mutations in which of the following molecules to develop leukocyte adhesion molecule-deficiency?

A

integrin (CD18)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q 
Hypercalcemia in apocrine gland adenocarcinoma of the anal sac in dogs is mediated by? 
A. PGE2
B. IL‐1
C. IL‐2
D. PTH
E. PTHrP
A

E. PTHrP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

In a dog with iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism from chronic administration of corticosteroids, you would expect to find:

a. Completely atrophic adrenal cortices.
b. Bilateral atrophic ACTH dependant zones of the adrenal cortices.
c. Bilateral diffuse hyperplasia of the ACTH dependant zones of the adrenal cortices.
d. Normal adrenal cortices.
e. Bilateral nodular hyperplasia of the ACTH dependant zones of the adrenal cortices.

A

b. Bilateral atrophic ACTH dependant zones of the adrenal cortices.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Inciting stimuli of granulomatous inflammation are
A. Particulates resisting lysosomal degradation
B. Persisting molecules that stimulate T‐cell hypersensitivity
C. Stimuli that are chemotactic for neutrophils
D. A, B
E. A, B, C

A

D, A, B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Inciting stimuli of granulomatous inflammation are?

a. Particulates resisting lysosomal degradation
b. Persisting molecules that stimulate T-cell hypersensitivity
c. Stimuli that are chemotactic for macrophages and neutrophils
d. A&B
e. A&C

A

A&B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q 
An increase in cell number associated with an increase in organ size is?
A. Hypertrophy
B. Atrophy
C. Hypoplasia
D. Metaplasia
E. Hyperplasia
A

E. Hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q 
An increase in cell size associated with an increase in organ size is? 
A. Hypertrophy
B. Atrophy
C. Hypoplasia
D. Metaplasia
E. Hyperplasia
A

A. Hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

An inflammatory cell that is long-lived, can divide locally in tissue, and regulates immune and repair responses:

A

Macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In granulation tissue, blood vessels often are arranged parallel to one another and in which orientation to the exudates surface?
A. Parallel
B. Perpendicular

A

B. Perpendicular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

In the lab we discussed canine osteosarcomas. Which of the following statements is NOT TRUE regarding canine osteosarcomas?

a. They occur most commonly in the appendicular skeleton of large breed dogs.
b. They most frequently have early metastasis to regional lymph nodes.
c. They may predispose to a pathologic fracture.
d. Histopathologic diagnosis is dependant upon finding tumor cells producing osteoid.
e. They often produce a cartilaginous matrix.

A

b. They most frequently have early metastasis to regional lymph nodes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Leukocyte adhesion and migration during an inflammatory cell response is mediated by:
A. Immunoglobulin and complement fragments
B. Integrins
C. Intercellular adhesion molecules (ICAM)
D. Selectins
E. B and C

A

E. B and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q 
Leukocyte adhesion deficiency has been described in which of the following? 
A. Holstein cattle
B. Labrador Retriever dogs
C. Irish Setter dogs
D. A and B
E. A and C
A

E. A and C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Leukocyte rolling in vessels during an inflammatory cell response is mediated by:
A. Immunoglobulin and complement fragments
B. Integrins
C. Intercellular adhesion molecules
D. Selectins
E. B and C

A

D. Selectins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

List 4 types of injuries or pathologic processes that lead to fibrosis

A

1) large amounts of exudate
2) loss of basement membrane
3) lack of renewable cell population
4) severe and prolonged tissue injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

List two major pathogenetic mechanisms that contribute to the development of granulomatous inflammatory reactions.

A

1) substances that induce T-cell hypersensitivity

2) substances that resist lysosomal degradation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Macrophage-dominated (granulomatous) inflammatory rxns are often induced by:

A

Fungi and mycobacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q 
Macrophages can differentiate into which of the following cells? 
A. Epithelial cells
B. Epithelioid cells
C. Multinucleated giant cells
D. A, B, C
E. B, C
A

E. B, C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q 
A malignant neoplasm of urinary bladder epithelium is called? 
A. Mesothelioma
B. Teratoma
C. Cystandenocarcinoma
D. Transitional cell carcinoma
E. Choriocarcinoma
A

D. Transitional cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Mediators of Chemotaxis/Activation:

A

Chemokines (IL-8), C5a, LTB4, Microbial products, fibrinopeptides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Mediators of Fever:

A

IL-1, TNF-alpha, PGE2

48
Q

Mediators of Pain:

A

Bradykinin, PGE2

49
Q

Mediators of Vascular permeability:

A

Histamine, C3a, C5a, Bradykinin, Leukotrines C4, C4, E4, and PAF

50
Q

Mediators of vasodilation:

A

PGE2, Histamine, NO

51
Q

Monocyte/Macrophage chemotaxis: mediated by what?

A

Chemokines, TNF, PDGF, FGF, TGF-beta

52
Q

Neutrophil-Endothelial surface molecules mediating “rolling”

A

Sialyl-Lewis X- Selectin

53
Q 
One of the mechanisms contributing to effective parasite larval killing by eosinophils is?
A. Superoxide anion
B. Hydroxyl radical
C. Lipid peroxides
D. Major basic protein
E. Ferrous iron production
A

D. Major basic protein

54
Q 
One of the most reliable indicators of chronicity in an inflammatory reaction is: 
A. Plasma cells 
B. Lymphocytes 
C. Macrophages 
D. Lack of neutrophils 
E. Fibrosis
A

E. Fibrosis

55
Q

The p53 tumor suppressor gene functions include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Regulation of gene expression.
b. Induction of apoptosis.
c. Slowing or stopping the cell cycle.
d. Transmission of growth promoting signals at the cell surface.
e. Promotion of cell differentiation.

A

d. Transmission of growth promoting signals at the cell surface.

56
Q 
Pain in an inflammatory reaction is mediated by release of: 
A. Bradykinin 
B. Prostaglandin E2 
C. Histamine 
D. Leukotriene B4 
E. A and B
A

E. A and B

57
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes are most often the result of:

a. Diffuse metastasis and organ destruction.
b. Tumor cell production of hormones or cytokines.
c. The massive size of the primary tumor.
d. An intense host immunogenic response to tumor cells.
e. The initial local invasion of the primary tumor.

A

b. Tumor cell production of hormones or cytokines.

58
Q

A population of cells could be said to have been “initiated” if:

a. They appear dysplastic on histopathological examination.
b. They have survived sublethal genetic damage and are able to divide.
c. They have undergone hyperplasia.
d. They have an increased nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio.
e. They have undergone metaplasia on histopathological examination.

A

b. They have survived sublethal genetic damage and are able to divide.

59
Q

The primary protein products of proto-oncogenes include all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Growth factors
b. Signal transducing proteins
c. Growth factor receptors
d. Proteins that induce apoptosis
e. Cyclins

A

d. Proteins that induce apoptosis

60
Q

Suppurative inflammatory rxns are often induced by:

A

Bacteria (non-mycobacteria)

61
Q 
Testicular Sertoli cell tumors in dogs occasionally induce which of the following disturbances of
growth in prostatic epithelium? 
A. Hypertrophy
B. Atrophy
C. Hypoplasia
D. Metaplasia
E. Hyperplasia
A

D. Metaplasia

62
Q 
A three day old foal with a small thymus might have which thymic disturbance of growth? 
A. Atrophy
B. Hypoplasia
C. Metaplasia
D. A or B
E. A or C
A

B. hypoplasia
(If the foal had a virus infection, then atrophy AND hypoplasia would be the answer–Because the virus would cause atrophy. If no virus is mentioned, then the answer is just hypoplasia).

63
Q

Tissue injury in a type IV hypersensitivity rxn/allergic rxn is mediated via:

a. Immune complex formation
b. T-Cell induction of granulomatous inflammation
c. Direct T-cell toxicity
d. B,C

A

d. B,C

64
Q

Tumor cell evasion from host defense mechanisms includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Perforin mediated killing of host T cells.
b. Release of immunosuppressive proteins.
c. Down regulation of host cell MHCI antigens.
d. Continual production of new antigens.
e. Shedding of antigens.

A

a. Perforin mediated killing of host T cells.

65
Q 
Tumor cells evade immunologic destruction by all of the following mechanisms EXCEPT? 
A. Produce immunosuppressive molecules
B. Upregulate tumor suppressor genes
C. Develop antigen negative variants
D. Reduce MHC molecule expression
E. A, B
A

B. Upregulate tumor suppressor genes

66
Q

Type I anaphylactic hypersensitivity rxns can be mediated by:

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgE
d. A,B
e. A,C

A

e. A&C

67
Q

Type III hypersensitivity reactions can be mediated by:

a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgE
d. A,B
e. A,C

A

d. A,B

68
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity reactions contribute to tissue damage via which of the following
mechanisms?
A. Complement fixation and neutrophil chemotaxis and cytotoxicity
B. CD8 T‐cell cytotoxicity
C. Cell mediated immunity with cytokine/lymphokine mediated indirect effects
D. A and B
E. B and C

A

E. B and C

69
Q

Vascular endothelial cell migration and proliferation are stimulated by which of the following mediators released from macrophages?

  1. Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
  2. Basic fibroblast growth factor (b-FGF)
  3. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α)
  4. Transforming growth factor beta (TGF-β)
  5. Platelet derived growth factor (PDGF)
A. 1, 2 
B. 1,2,3 
C. 1,2,3,4 
D. 1,2,3,4,5 
E. 3,4,5
A
  1. Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
  2. Basic fibroblast growth factor (b-FGF)
  3. Transforming growth factor beta (TGF-β)
  4. Platelet derived growth factor (PDGF)

(supposedly the correct answer choice doesn’t exist for this question???)

70
Q

Where would you first look for evidence of metastasis of a malignant melanoma of the skin of the digit of a front limb in a dog?

a. Prescapular lymph node of the affected limb.
b. Axillary lymph node of the affected limb.
c. In the soft tissues surrounding the affected digit.
d. Lungs.
e. Liver.

A

b. Axillary lymph node of the affected limb.

71
Q 
Which is an inflammatory cell that is long‐lived, can divide locally in tissue and regulates immune
and repair responses? 
A. Neutrophil
B. Eosinophil
C. Macrophage
D. Platelet
E. B and C
A

C. Macrophage

72
Q

Which molecules on leukocytes (L) and endothelial cells (E) respectively mediate leukocyte adhesion
on endothelial cells preceding transmigration during inflammation?
A. L:integrin (CD11/CD18) and E: ICAM‐1
B. E: integrin (CD11/CD18) and L: ICAM‐1
C. L:Sialy‐Lewis X‐modified glycoprotein and E: E‐selectin
D. E:Sialy‐Lewis X‐modified glycoprotein and L: E‐selectin
E. A and C

A

A. L:integrin (CD11/CD18) and E: ICAM‐1

73
Q

Which molecules on leukocytes (L) and endothelial cells (E) respectively mediate leukocyte rolling
on endothelial cells during inflammation?
A. L:integrin (CD11/CD18) and E: ICAM‐1
B. E: integrin (CD11/CD18) and L: ICAM‐1
C. L:Sialy‐Lewis X‐modified glycoprotein and E: E‐selectin
D. E:Sialy‐Lewis X‐modified glycoprotein and L: E‐selectin
E. A and C

A

C. L:Sialy‐Lewis X‐modified glycoprotein and E: E‐selectin

74
Q

Which of the following are growth factors for endothelial cells that are produced by macrophages?
A. Vascular endothelial growth factor
B. Basic fibroblast growth factor
C. Tumor necrosis factor - alpha rel from macs but no endothelial cell prolif
D. A and B
E. A, B and C

A

D. A and B

75
Q

Which of the following are mechanisms that account for neutrophils generally being the first cells to reach an inflammatory site during an acute inflammatory reaction?

  1. Neutrophils are rapidly motile
  2. High circulating number of neutrophils in peripheral blood
  3. Neutrophils are responsive to a wide array of chemotactic substances
  4. Neutrophils have a 7 to 14 day half life in tissue
A. 1 
B. 1,2 
C. 1,2,3 
D. 1,2,3,4 
E. 2,3,4
A

C. 1,2,3

76
Q

Which of the following are potent inducers of angiogenesis?

a. VEGF
b. Beta-FGF
c. HGF
d. A&B
e. A,B, & C

A

d. A & B

77
Q 
Which of the following are potent mediators of increased vascular permeability?
a. Bradykinin
b. LTC4, LTD4, LTE4
c. LTB4 
d. IL-8/CXCL8
e. A,B 
F. B,D
A

e. A, B

78
Q 
Which of the following are proto‐oncogenes that are commonly mutated in cancer?
A. RAS
B. PDGFB
C. ERBB1 (EGFR)
D. p53
E. A, B, C
A

E. A, B, & C

79
Q

Which of the following best defines a carcinoma insitu?

a. A malignant neoplasm of mesenchymal origin that is confined by a basement membrane.
b. A malignant neoplasm of epithelial origin that has invaded the surrounding stroma
c. A malignant neoplasm of epithelial origin that has not penetrated the basement membrane.
d. A squamous cell carcinoma of the skin that has spread to only one regional lymph node.
e. A malignant neoplasm of epithelial origin that does not have the potential for metastasis.

A

c. A malignant neoplasm of epithelial origin that has not penetrated the basement membrane

80
Q

Which of the following best defines a polyp?

a. Any benign tumor of epithelial origin.
b. Benign epithelial tumor that projects from a mucosal surface.
c. A benign mesenchymal tumor that develops within the wall of the intestines
d. A benign epithelial tumor that protrudes from the surface of the skin by forming many frond-like projections
e. A benign tumor originating from a gland.

A

b. Benign epithelial tumor that projects from a mucosal surface.

81
Q

Which of the following cells is considered to be a stable cell capable of contributingto regeneration?
A. Neuron
B. Cardiac myocyte
C. Nonciliated bronchiolar epithelial cell
D. Bone marrow progenitor cell
E. Basal epithelial cell in epidermis

A

C. Nonciliated bronchiolar epithelial cell

82
Q 
Which of the following cells release vasoactive amines and arachidonic acid metabolites to
upregulate inflammatory reactions? 
A. Mast cell
B. Neutrophil
C. Lymphocyte
D. Macrophage
E. A and B
A

A. Mast cell

83
Q 
Which of the following chemicals mediates pain during an inflammatory reaction?
A. Bradykinin
B. PGD2 (prostaglandin)
C. TNF-α
D. IL-8
E. A and B
A

A. Bradykinin (or E. A & B)

84
Q

Which of the following criteria are used to help determine whether or not a neoplasm is benign or malignant?

a. Numbers of mitotic figures.
b. Degree of tumor cell differentiation.
c. Pattern of growth (via expansion or infiltration).
d. Known biological behavior for the specific tumor in the species under consideration.
e. All of the above must be considered.

A

e. All of the above must be considered.

85
Q 
Which of the following enzymes play a role in tumor cell breakdown of extracellular matrix in
invasion and metastasis? 
A. Plasminogen activator
B. Matrix metalloproteases
C. Phospholipases
D. A, B
E. A, B, C
A

D. A, B

86
Q

Which of the following factors are released by activated neutrophils in an inflammatory reaction to augment recruitment of additional neutrophils?

  1. Leukotriene B4
  2. IP-10
  3. Fibrinogen
  4. Serum amyloid A
A. 1 
B. 1,2 
C. 1,2,3 
D. 2 
E. 2,4
A

A. 1

87
Q

Which of the following factors or processes favors repair by fibrosis rather than by regeneration?
A. Severe/prolonged injury
B. Large amounts of exudate
C. Availability of adequate renewable/stem cells
D. A, B
E. A,B,C

A

D. A, B

88
Q

Which of the following factors released by macrophages stimulate fibroblast proliferation?
1. Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
2. Basic fibroblast growth factor (b-FGF)
3. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α)
4. Transforming growth factor beta (TGF-β)
5. Platelet derived growth factor (PDGF)
A. 1, 2
B. 1,2,3
C. 1,2,3,4, 5
D. 2,3,4,5
E. 3,4,5

A

D. 2,3,4,5

89
Q 
Which of the following growth factors stimulates endothelial proliferation in repair?
A. VEGF
B. basic‐FGF
C. TNF‐alpha
D. A,B
E. A,B,C
A

D. A,B?

90
Q 
Which of the following growth factors stimulates epithelial proliferation in repair? 
A. TGF‐beta
B. EGF
C. PDGF
D. A, B, C
E. B, C
A

B. EGF

91
Q

Which of the following have potent chemotactic activity for neutrophils?

A

C5a, LTB4, IL-8/CXCL8

92
Q

Which of the following inflammatory mediators play a central role in anaphylaxis?

a. Histamine
b. LTC4, LTD4, LTE4
c. C5a
d. A,B
e. A,B,C

A

d. A,B

93
Q 
Which of the following is a chemokine that is a potent chemotactic factor for monocytes/macrophages? 
A. LTB4 
B. TNF-α 
C. Macrotactin 
D. Interferon-γ 
E. MIP-1α
A

E. MIP-1α

94
Q 
Which of the following is a chemokine that is a potent chemotactic factor for neutrophils? 
A. IL-8 
B. TNF-α 
C. IL-14 
D. PDGF 
E. TGF-β
A

A. IL-8

95
Q 
Which of the following is a cytokine that promotes macrophage activation and differentiation to giant cells and epithelioid cells in granulomatous inflammation? 
A. PDGF 
B. TNF-α 
C. Interferon-α 
D. Interferon-β 
E. Interferon-γ
A

E. Interferon-γ

96
Q

Which of the following is a disease cause?
A. Pasteurella multocida
B. Cutaneous habronemiasis
C. Chronic diffuse eosinophilic and granulomatous dermatitis
D. Johnes Disease
E. Cerebral nematodiasis

A

A. Pasteurella multocida

97
Q 
Which of the following is a malignant neoplasm of smooth muscle? 
A. Hemangioma
B. Leiomyoma
C. Leiomyosarcoma
D. Rhabdomyoma
E. Rhabdomyosarcoma
A

C. Leiomyosarcoma

98
Q

Which of the following is an etiologic diagnosis?
A. Pasteurella multocida
B. Protozoal encephalitis
C. Chronic multifocal suppurative encephalitis
D. Johnes Disease
E. Lymphosarcoma

A

B. Protozoal encephalitis

99
Q

Which of the following is a potent inducer of fibrosis?

a. TGF-beta
b. TNF-alpha
c. PDGF
d. A & B
e. A, B, C

A

e. A,B,&C

100
Q 
Which of the following is commonly generated during thrombosis and is chemotactic for macrophages? 
A. C5a 
B. Leukotriene C4 
C. Leukotriene B4 
D. Fibrinopeptides 
E. Plasminogen activator
A

D. Fibrinopeptides

101
Q 
Which of the following is highly expressed in malignant neoplastic cells to promote angiogenesis? 
A. TNF‐alpha
B. VEGF
C. Collagenase
D. p53
E. TGF‐alpha
A

B. VEGF

102
Q

Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding the p53 gene and its protein product?

a. p53 proteins function as nuclear transcription factors.
b. p53 proteins are frequently found to be mutated or defective in malignant neoplasms.
c. p53 proteins help transmit growth promoting influences within the cell.
d. Somatic mutations (every cell in the body) of p53 genes have been documented as a predisposing factor contributing to the development of cancer at an early age in humans.

A

c. p53 proteins help transmit growth promoting influences within the cell.

103
Q

Which of the following is the best indicator of chronicity when examining inflammatory reactions by light microscopy?
A. Plasma cells in the tissue exudate
B. Macrophage number in the tissue exudate
C. Endothelial cell proliferation and hemorrhage.
D. Fibroblast proliferation and collagen synthesis
E. Epithelial cell proliferation and mucus production

A

D. Fibroblast proliferation and collagen synthesis

104
Q 
Which of the following mediate pain in an inflammatory reaction? 
A. CXCL8/IL‐8
B. C5a
C. LTC4
D. PGE2
E. TNF‐alpha
A

D. PGE2

105
Q

Which of the following mediate pain perception?

A

PGE2 and Bradykinin

106
Q 
Which of the following mediators is strongly chemotactic for eosinophils?
A. CCL3/MIP‐1alpha
B. CCL11/Eotaxin
C. CXCL8/IL‐8
D. PGE2
E. LTB4
A

B. CCL11/Eotaxin

107
Q 
Which of the following mediators is strongly chemotactic for lymphocytes? 
A. CCL3/MIP‐1alpha
B. CCL11/Eotaxin
C. C5a
D. PGE2
E. LTB4
A

?A. CCL3/MIP‐1alpha

108
Q 
Which of the following mediators is strongly chemotactic for neutrophils? 
A. CCL3/MIP‐1alpha
B. CCL11/Eotaxin
C. CXCL8/IL‐8
D. LTB4
E. C and D
A

C. CXCL8/IL‐8

109
Q

Which of the following molecular interactions is responsible for leukocyte adhesion to endothelial cells during an inflammatory reaction?
A. ICAM-1 / Integrin (CD11/CD18)
B. P-selectin / Sialyl Lewis X modified protein
C. Antigen / IgE
D. P-selectin / E-selectin
E. VCAM-1 / P-selectin

A

A. ICAM-1 / Integrin (CD11/CD18)

110
Q

Which of the following molecular interactions is responsible for low affinity binding (rolling) of leukocyte on endothelial cells during an inflammatory reaction?
A. ICAM-1 / Integrin (CD11/CD18)
B. P-selectin / Sialyl Lewis X modified protein
C. Antigen / IgE
D. P-selectin / E-selectin
E. VCAM-1 / P-selectin

A

B. P-selectin / Sialyl Lewis X modified protein

111
Q

Which of the following neoplasms would least likely to be able to metastasize via exfoliation and implantation?

a. Hemangiosarcoma than ruptures the splenic capsule.
b. Esophageal leiomyosarcoma.
c. Carcinoma arising on the surface of an ovary.
d. Small intestinal carcinoma with evidence of transmural invasion

A

b. Esophageal leiomyosarcoma.

112
Q 
Which of the following pathogenetic mechanisms of edema contribute most significantly to protein-rich edema fluid in inflammatory reactions?
A. Increased hydrostatic pressure
B. Increased vascular permeability
C. Decrease capillary oncotic pressure
D. Lymphatic obstruction
E. Increased sodium retention
A

B. Increased vascular permeability

113
Q

Which of the following processes regresses with stimulus removal?
A. Neoplasia
B. Hyperplasia

A

B. Hyperplasia

114
Q

Which of the following proteins is broken down in epithelial cells to mediate loosening of
intercellular junctions prior to invasion/metastasis?
A. TP53
B. ICAM‐1
C. CD11
D. E‐cadherin
E. Fibronectin

A

D. E‐cadherin

115
Q 
Which of the following proteins is important in mediating cancer cachexia? 
A. TNF‐α
B. Proteolysis inducing factor
C. p53
D. KRAS oncogene protein
E. A,B
A

E. A,B

116
Q 
Which of the following tissues is least likely to repair by regeneration following injury that induces
necrosis? 
A. Skin
B. Intestinal mucosa
C. Renal tubules
D. Myocardium
E. Bone marrow
A

D. Myocardium

117
Q

Which type of inflammatory cells is often associated with liquefactive necrosis?

A

Neutrophil

Gen Path Exam 2 (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions