Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MSRA passmed > Gen Med > Flashcards

Gen Med Flashcards

1
Q

Multiple myeloma features (CRABBI)

A

Calcium: hypercalcaemia
Renal: light chain deposition within the renal tubules
Anaemia
Bleeding
Bones (pain)
Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Falsely low HbA1C reading causes

A

Sickle cell anaemia
G6PD
Beta thalassemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Falsely high HbA1C reading causes

A

Splenectomy, iron-deficiency anaemia, B12 deficiency and alcoholism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Eradication of h pylori test

A

Urea breath test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lhermitte’s sign

A

Tingling of fingers when neck is flexed
Indicates disease near the dorsal column nuclei of the cervical cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Treatment of broad complex tachycardia

A

IV amiodarone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Enzyme inducers (CRAP GPs)

A

CRAP GPs :*

Carbemazepines
Rifampicin
Alcohol
Phenytoin
Griseofulvin
Phenobarbitone
Sulphonylureas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Enzyme inhibitors

A

SICKFACES.COM

Sodium valproate
Isoniazid
Cimetidine
Ketoconazole
Fluconazole
Alcohol & Grapefruit juice
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin
Sulfonamides
Ciprofloxacin
Omeprazole
Metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Torsades de pointes causes

A

Hypothermia
Hypocalcaemia
Hypokalaemia
Hypomagnesaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Bacterial otitis media most common cause

A

H. Influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Dermatomyositis cause

A

Malignancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What artery is affected in amarousis fugax

A

Opthalmic/retinal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Management of HF

A

1st line: ACEi/BB(Bisoprolol, Carvedilol)
2nd line Aldosterone antagonist(Spironolactone, Eplerenone), reduced EF= SGLT-2 inhibitor
3rd line: involve a specialist for
-Ivabradine(SR, HR>75+ EF<35%)
-Sacubitril-valsartan( EF <35%+ Symptoms despite ACEi/ARB)
-Digoxin( if coexistent AF)
- Hydralazine+Nitrate( in Afro-Caribbean)
-Cardiac resynchronization therapy( Widened QRS e.g. LBBB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia management

A

Carbamezapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Management of acute seizures

A

Buccal midazolam
Rectal diazepam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cushing reflex

A

Bradycardia and hypertension with a wide pulse pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Bell’s palsy management

A

Oral steroids within 72hrs of onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Posterior stroke signs

A

5Ds: dizziness, diplopia, dysarthria, dysphagia, dystaxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Ulcerative colitis management

A

Mild/moderate
Proctitis: topical (rectal) aminosalicylate

proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis: topical aminosalicylate -4 wks later-> add a high-dose oral aminosalicylate OR switch to a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and a topical corticosteroid —> oral aminosalicylate and an oral corticosteroid
Extensive disease: topical (rectal) aminosalicylate and a high-dose oral aminosalicylate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ACS take home meds

A

STAAB
Statin
Ticagrelor (or Clopidogrel)
Aspirin
ACEi
Beta blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Long term prophylaxis of cluster headaches

A

verpamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Fundoscopy signs of acut angle closure glaucoma

A
  1. Optic disc cupping - cup-to-disc ratio >0.7 (normal = 0.4-0.7), occurs as loss of disc substance makes optic cup widen and deepen
  2. Optic disc pallor - indicating optic atrophy
  3. Bayonetting of vessels - vessels have breaks as they disappear into the deep cup and re-appear at the base
  4. Additional features - Cup notching (usually inferior where vessels enter disc), Disc haemorrhages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

RA vs OA XR findings

A

OA (LOSS): Loss of joint space, Osteophytes, Subchondral cysts, Sclerosis
RA (LESS): Loss of joint space, Erosions, Subluxation, Extra-articular
Ostroporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Complications of MIs

A

1st 48 hours: Pericarditis
1-2wks: L ventricular free wall rupture (acute heart failure secondary to cardiac tamponade), VSD (acute heart failure associated with a pan-systolic murmur)
2-6wks: Dressler’s syndrome: fever, pain, pericardial effusion, raised ESR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Anti-platelets advice for ACS and PCI

A

Aspirin (lifelong) & ticagrelor (12 months)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Generalized tonic-clonic management

A

males: sodium valproate
females: lamotrigine or levetiracetam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Focal seizures management

A

first line: lamotrigine or levetiracetam
second line: carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine or zonisamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Absence seizures management

A

first line: ethosuximide
second line:
male: sodium valproate
female: lamotrigine or levetiracetam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Myoclonic seizures management

A

males: sodium valproate
females: levetiracetam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Tonic or atonic seizures management

A

males: sodium valproate
females: lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Features of anti-phospholipid syndrome

A

Clots - veno/ arterial thrombus
L - livido reticularis
O - obstetric miscarriage
T - thrombocytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Conditions that precipitate lithium toxicity

A

Hypomagnesaemia
Hypercalcaemia
Hypernatraemia
Hypokalaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Scleritis vs episcleritis

A

Scleritis is painful
Episcleritis is Pain free

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Inferio-posterior infarct complications

A

Acute mitral regurg (acute hypotension and pulmonary oedema)
AV block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Most common cause of death following an MI

A

V fib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Anti-emetic for intracranial causes of N+V

A

Cyclizine -> dex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

UC vs Crohn’s

A

UC: ileocaecal valve -> rectum continuous disease, no inflammation past submucosa, crypt abscesses, bloody diarrhoea, uveitis, CR cancer, Primary sclorsing cholangitis, pseudopolyps, LLQ tenderness

Crohn’s: Episcleritis, weight loss, mouth -> anus skip lesions, indlammation of all cells, goblet cells, bowel obstruction, non-bloody diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Addison’s + vomiting

A

Im hydrocortisone until vomiting stops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Lacunar stroke site

A

Basal ganglia, thalamus, internal capsule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Good prognosis in RA

A

RF -ve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

1st line treatment of Lyme’s disease

A

21 day course of doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Acute haemolytic reaction sx

A

Fever, abdo pain and hypotension post transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Fever, abdo pain and hypotension post transfusion

A

Acute haemolytic reaction sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Murmur man

A

Draw murmur man

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Pre-endoscopy variceal haemorrhage meds

A

Terlipressin and Abx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Angina management

A

ABCD
Aspirin+GTN
Beta-blockers + Ca channel blocker (amlodipine)
Ca channel blocker mono= Verapamil/diltiazem
Nicorandil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis

A

Oral cipro or rifampicin

48
Q

Most likely cause of death in CK on haemodialysis

A

IHD

49
Q

IgA nephropathy vs minimal change disease

A

Minimal change disease: nephrotic syndrome
IgA nephropathy: nephritic syndrome

50
Q

Management of minimal change disease

A

Oral corticosteroids

51
Q

Renal transplant increases the risk of which cancers

A

SCC, cervical cancer, lymphoma

52
Q

Discharge advice post-penuothorax

A

No sea diving for life
Stop smoking
No flying until 1 week post check x-ray

53
Q

Antii-CCP

A

RA

54
Q

ANCA

A

Vasculitides

55
Q

Anti-Jo1

A

Poly/Dermatomyositis

56
Q

Anti-dsDNA
ANA

A

SLE

57
Q

AntiRo/Anti-LA

A

Sjorgen’s

58
Q

Treatment for wilson’s

A

Penicillamine

59
Q

Monitoring tests for haemochormatosis

A

Ferritin and transferrin

60
Q

Causes of raised prolactin

A

pregnancy
prolactinoma
physiological
polycystic ovarian syndrome
primary hypothyroidism
phenothiazines, metoclopramide, domperidone

61
Q

EGFR variables

A

CAGE
Creatinine
Age
Gender
Ethncity

62
Q

AF electrical cardioversion, when to do

A

Haemodynamically unstable
Elective

63
Q

Elective cardioversion, onset <48 hrs ago

A

Rhythm OR rate control
Rate control (Beta blockers or Ca channel blockers)
Heparinize + rhythm control

64
Q

Anticoag in AF if onset <48 hrs, post cardioversion

A

No anti coag if no risk of stroke (CHADVASC)

65
Q

Elective cardioversion, onset >48hrs ago

A

Anticoag for 3/52 OR TOE to exclude thrombus -> cardiovert immediately
Heparinize + cardiovert (electrical preferred_
Anticoag post electical cardioversion for 4 wks, then rv

66
Q

AF pharmacological vcardioversion options

A

Amiodarone if structural heart disease
Flecainide if no structural heart disease

67
Q

What medication should be avoided in HOCM

A

ACE i

68
Q

Tumour lysis syndrome electrolytes

A

Hyperkalaemia
Hyperphosphatemia
Hypocalcaemia

69
Q

Prophylaxis for TLS

A

allopurinol /rasburicase

70
Q

Hodgkin’s lymphoma signs of poor prognosis

A

B symptoms
Increasing age
Male sex
IV disease
Lymphocyte depleted subtype

71
Q

Sickle cell crises

A

Big spleen - mostly always sequestration crisis
Limb pain - mostly haemolytic/ischaemic/vaso-occlusive crisis
Hip pain - haemolytic/ischaemic/vaso-occlusive crisis (plus possible avascular necrosis head of femur)
Parvovirus infection should result in an aplastic anaemia (with pancytopenia of all cell lines)

72
Q

How soon can you re-administer adrenaline in anaphylaxis

A

5 minutes

73
Q

Cushing’s triad

A

Bradycardia
Irregular breathing
Hypertension + widening pulse pressure

74
Q

Migraine acute management

A

triptain+NSAID/triptan+paracetamol

75
Q
A
76
Q

Causes of digoxin toxicity

A

Low: hypoK, hypoMg, hypoalbumin? Hypothermia/thyroidism
Potassium: drugs that cause hypoK (thiazides/loop diuretics)
Can: hyperCa, acidosis, hyperNa
Hurt/Heart: common heart drugs: amiodatone, diltiazem, verapamil, spiro

77
Q

Causes of psoriasis exacerbation

A

BLANQ
Beta blockers
Lithium
Anti-malarials
NSAIDs
ACEi
Infliximab

78
Q

Short QT interval causes

A

Hypercalcaemia
Hyperkalaemia

79
Q

Psoriasis management

A

Potent steroid + vitamin D analogue
BD vit D analogue
Potent steroid OR coal tar

80
Q

Psoriasis management

A

Potent steroid + vitamin D analogue
BD vit D analogue
Potent steroid OR coal tar

81
Q

Allergic reactions types

A

ACID
Anaphylaxis
Cell mediated
Immune complex
Delayed

82
Q

Anti emetics in raised intracranial pressure

A

Cyclizine
Dex

83
Q

Why are irradiated blood products used

A

Depleted T-cell lymphocytes to avoid transfusion associated host vs graft disease

84
Q

Goodpasture’s syndrome triad

A

Diffuse pulmonary haemorrhage, glomerulonephtitud and anti GBM antibodies

85
Q

Autosomal recessive vs dominant

A

Dominant is structural, except Gilbert’s, hyperlipideamia
Recessive is enzyme/metabolic related, except ataxias

86
Q

Anorexia features

A

All low
Gs and Cs are raised: GH, glucose, salivary glands, cortisol, cholesterol, carotinaemia

87
Q

Wernicke’s encephalopathy

A

COAT
Confusion
Oculomotor dysfunction
Ataxia
Thiamine treatment

88
Q

Korsokoff’s syndrome

A

CART (cart them off it’s incurable)
Confabulation
Anterograde and
Retrograde amnesia
Temperament altered

89
Q

HHT 4 main diagnostic criteria

A

Epistaxis
Telangectasia
Visceral lesions
FHx

90
Q

When to refer to specialist for molluscum contagiosum

A

patients with HIV
Eyelid margins or ocular region lesions

91
Q

Adverse effects of adenosine

A

Chest pain
FLushing

92
Q

Who to avoid adenosine in and why

A

Asthmatics -> bronchospasm

93
Q

Witnessed cardiac arrest on monitor

A

3 successive shocks followed by CPR

94
Q

Draw ALS algorithm

A

ALS

95
Q

What can make clopidogrel less effective

A

Omeprazole

96
Q

Hypokalaemia ECG

A

in hypok U have no Pot and no T, Long PR and long QTH

97
Q

Hypothermia ECG

A

Brr Just Freeze Little Atriums
Bradycardia
J waves (hump at end of QRS)
First degree HB
Long QT
Arrthmias

98
Q

Acute HF with shock management

A

Ionotropes
Vasopressors
mechanical circulatory assistance

99
Q

Hypercalcaemia ECG

A

Short QTs love milk

100
Q

HTN flowchart

A

HTN

101
Q

ECHO findings of HOCM

A

MR SAM ASH
Mitral regurg
Systolic ant motion
Asymmetric hypertrophy

102
Q

HOCM ECG

A

BIG QRS, Small Q, Twisted ST

103
Q

HOCM management

A

ABCD
Amiodarone
Beta blockers
Cardioverted defib
Dual chamber pacemaker

104
Q

HOCM drugs to avoid

A

ACEis, Nitrates, ionotropes

105
Q

Valve affected in Infective endocarditis

A

mitral valve

106
Q

Valve affected in Infective endocarditis in IVDU

A

tricuspid valve

107
Q

Bradycardia management

A

IV Atropine 500 mcg (can have up to 3mg)
Trancutaneous pacing
isoprenaline/adrenaline infusion titrated to response
Transvenous pacing

108
Q

Acromegaly testing

A

IGF1 first -> OGTT to confirm if levels raised

109
Q

Management of acromegaly

A

Octreotide

110
Q

Addison’s features

A

ADRENALS
Aldosterone deficiency
Dark skin
Refractory hypotension
Electrolyte imbalance (Hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia)
No energy
Appetite loss
Low sodium
Shock risk

111
Q

Addison’s investigation

A

Short synchathen test

112
Q

Cushing’s syndrome

A

Excess steroid production
Hyperaldosteronism
Hypokalaemic metabolic acidosis

113
Q

Management of cardiogenic shock post MI

A

inotropes or an intra-aortic balloon pump

114
Q

Arrythmia associated with inferior MI

A

AV node block

115
Q

Left ventricular rupture post MI

A

Ischemic damage weakens the myocardium, leading to aneurysm formation, persistent ST elevation, and risk of thrombus formation.

116
Q
A
117
Q

Min amount of time to observe anaphylaxis for

A

6 hours

MSRA passmed (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions