Gems Flashcards

1
Q

PET for lung cancer upstages what proportion

A

30%

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2
Q

If take off a superficial bladder cancer, what is the risk of it coming back without further treatment

A

70%

Need intravesical BCG or CTx- gemcitabine or mitomyxin

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3
Q

Risk factor for bowel cancer recurring post resection

A

resect fewer than 11 LN

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4
Q

How many doses of IPI?

A

4 doses

Transient worsening before disease progression

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5
Q

Treat autoimmune colitis

A

steroids

if not better in 48 hours then give infliximab

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6
Q

How is ifosfamide nephrotoxic

A

Tubular dysfunction

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7
Q

Pall care person falling asleep , pain well controlled

A

consider psychostimulants like dexamphetamine and modafenil

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8
Q

p53 function

A
  • guardian of the genome
  • present in low level in all cells
  • eg radiation damage activates–>act as transcription factor for p21 which inhibits cyclin dependent kinases that regulate the cell cycle
  • sometimes in cancer cells increased levels of MDM2 and 4 which are its neg regulators
  • sometimes causes apoptosis when activated
  • most mutations are substitutions leading to misfolding. Actually increase levels in cells as harder to break down HIGH levels
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9
Q

2 main factors for determining local recurrence

A

margins

presence or absence of extensive in situ component

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10
Q

2 main factors for ipsilateral recurrence

A

lymphatic invasion
age under 35

also size over 2 cm
and higher grade

NOT subtype or nodal status

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11
Q

most common gene mutation associated with renal clear cell

A

VHL

when this is silenced by second hit or methylation, Hypoxia inducible factor (HIF) accumulates

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12
Q

IN colorectal cancer, KRAS, BRAF and EGF pathways all mediated via MAPK (and EGF via PI3K as well). What is the clinical difference>

A

BRAF more likley found in small adenomas, proximal cancers, serrated adenomas, hyperplastic polyps

EGF blockers do not work if downstream signalling mutations eg activating mutations in KRAS, BRAF, PI3K

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13
Q

DNA damage from radiation is mended by what mechanism usually?

A

nucleotide excision repair

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14
Q

how do you diagnose pheo compared with carcinoid tumour

A

pheo 24 hour urinary metanephrines or VMA

carcinoid urine 24 hour 5-HIAA

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15
Q

Best drug combination for highly nauseating chemo?

A

dex
aprepitant
5HT3 antag

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16
Q

bisphos or denosumab better in castration resistant prostate cancer with bony mets?

A

denos
may be superior in breast
non inferior in non breast non prostate

good in renal dysfunction
hypocalcaemia more common

17
Q

ADT in prostate cancer what effect on bone mets?

A

increase risk of fracutre

18
Q

which are the only sarcomas where chemo is used?

A

Ewing and rhabdomyosarcoma

19
Q

SVC BUT UNKNOWN TUMOUR- DO WHAT?

A

recent reviews show not really that life threatening and get a tissue diagnosis first- only urgent if mental state or collaspse or upper airway obstruction

20
Q

age group breast cancer screening

A

50-69

causes 14-32% mortality reduction as long as your life expectancy is 5 years or more

21
Q

normal PSA and prostate cancer

A

does not rule out

22
Q

what is the concept of free PSA

A

PSA from cancer cells tends to bind more avidly to proteins, so free PSA percentage is low

23
Q

when do you get chemo in breast cancer surgery

A

axillary node involveemnt
node negative and tumour over 1cm or other bad things like age under 35, neg oestrogen receptor status or prog, gigh grade

24
Q

how to screen a brca woman

A

age 25-30
MRI plus mammography
ultrasound increases false positives so not sued

consider preventative mastectomy
ovaries out after children as later onset of ovarian cancer than breast cancer in BRCA carriers

discuss chemoprevention

25
Q

When do you use cetuximab

A

head and neck squamous cell

EGFR positive, KRAS WILD type colion cancer

26
Q

When is trasuzumab used

A

HER2 positive gastric or GOJ cancer
HER2 postiive breast

remember the heart failure is NOT related to cumulative dose risk
if stop to let recover from heart failure, can often re challenge
cardiac biopsy does NOT show the myocyte destruction like with anthracycline

27
Q

Erlotinib MOA

A

REVERSIBLE
TKI
targets MULTIPLE receptors
including VEGF2 and 3 receptors, PDGFR B, FLT 3 and cKIT

28
Q

GBM treatment

A
adjuvant chemoradiotherapy (radio increases the sens to chemo) then chemo alone after dubulking the GBM
Use temzolomide
29
Q

Teratoma tumour markers

A

beta HCG and AFP negative
only treatement is surgerys
no role chemo radio

30
Q

Choriocarcinoma where do they like to go

A

bleed in the BRAIN

31
Q

choriocarcinoma tumour markers

A

beta HCG in the THOUSANDS SUPER SUPER HIGH

32
Q

If see long bone mets sparing vertebral column, think…

A

gastric primary

33
Q

management of seminoma and non seminoma stage 1

A

seminoma probably give 1 dose carboplatin

non seminoma 1-2 cycles BEP

34
Q

WHat does sunscreen do?

A

Blocks UVB
Studies show reduce SCC and melanoma not BCC

UVA penetrates to deep dermis (UVB only epidermis) and causes free radical generation and other bad things

35
Q

What does SJS look like

A
blistering lesions 
TRUNK
almost always MUCOSAL too
4-21 days after first dose drug 
full thickness epidermal necrosis
also febrile, photophobia, sore throat, dysphagia
36
Q

What happens in porphyria cutanea tarda?

A

Acquired deficiency in hepatic uroporphyrinogen decarboxylase - accumulation of uroporphyrinogen and porphyrinogen in the liver–>plasma and urine

Photosensitising in the skin
ALT and AST up
Alcohol increases susceptibility

skin- subepidermal bullae on biopsy
Erythrocyte porphyrins normal
Urine orange with woods lamp

37
Q

most common cause of erythema nodosum

A

strep pharyngitis!!

also seen in TB, sarcoid, IBD, cancer, deep fungal, OCP