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DAOB > GD Exam 1 > Flashcards

GD Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Primary dentition consists of ________

A

20 teeth total: 10 upper and 10 lower

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2
Q

Primary teeth erupt at about age _______ and remain until age _____

A

6 and remain until age 6 approx

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3
Q

What is the mixed dentition period

A

Both deciduous and permanent teeth

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4
Q

What is permanent dentition composed of?

A

32 teeth total. 16 upper and 16 lower

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5
Q

What are successional teeth

A

Permanent teeth that replace deciduous teeth
*Permanent molars, which replace nothing, are called accessional teeth

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6
Q

Humans have what two types of dentition? Define them

A

Diphyodont: develop two sets of teeth
Heterodont: distinctive classes of teeth that are regionally specialized

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7
Q

What are the two classes of anterior teeth?

A

Incisors and canines

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8
Q

What teeth are known as the cornerstones of dental arch

A

Canines

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9
Q

What are the two classes of posterior teeth?

A
  1. Premolars
  2. Molars
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10
Q

Premolars are also known as ________

A

Bicuspids

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11
Q

Premolars are designated as first or second bicuspid by ________

A

their position in the dental arch

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12
Q

How many molars are there?

A

SIx upper and six lower

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13
Q

Review this

A
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14
Q

Arch Form is what shaped

A

U-shaped
*The maxilla is bigger than the mandible

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15
Q

The arch form is determined mostly by

A

underlying basal bones

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16
Q

Compare overjet vs overbite

A

Overjet is horizontal overlap
Overbite is vertical overlap

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17
Q

Define curve of spee

A

cusp tips follow an upwards curve in lateral view

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18
Q

Define curve of wilson

A

curvature of the mandibular teeth is concave
curvature of the maxillary teeth is convex in frontal view

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19
Q

What is the anatomical and clinical crown?

A

Anatomical: covered with ENAMEL
Clinical: portion of anatomical crown that is visible clinically

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20
Q

What is anatomical root and clinical root?

A

Anatomical: portion of the tooth that is covered with cementum
Clinical: port of the root that is embedded in the jaw

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21
Q

Define cervical line

A

Line that separates the anatomic crown from the anatomic root
-junction between enamel and cementum (CEJ)

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22
Q

Define pulp cavity

A

space in the tooth that contains the pulp or “nerve” of the tooth
- it has a coronal (crown) portion and a radicular (root) portion, usually called the root canal

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23
Q

What are the 4 types of tooth tissue

A
  1. Enamel
  2. Dentin
  3. Cementum
  4. Pulp
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24
Q

The protective outer surface of the anatomic crown.
It is 96% mineral and is the hardest tissue in the body

A

ENAMEL

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25
Q

Located in both crown and root, it makes up the bulk of the tooth beneath the enamel and cementum.

A

Dentin

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26
Q

What lines the pulp cavity

A

Dentin

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27
Q

-This substance covers the surface of the anatomic root
-It facilitates anchorage of the tooth in its bony socket (the alveolus)

A

Cementum

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28
Q

-The central, innermost portion of the tooth
-It has formative, sensory, nutritive, and reparative functions during the life of the tooth

A

Pulp

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29
Q

Define midline

A

An imaginary line on the plane that bisects the dental arch at the center

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30
Q

Define Mesial

A

toward the center midline of the dental arch

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31
Q

Define distal

A

Away from the center midline of the dental arch

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32
Q

Define proximal

A

the surface of a tooth that is toward another tooth in the arch

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33
Q

Define facial

A

toward the cheeks or lips `

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34
Q

Define labial

A

facial surface of anterior teeth (toward the lips)

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35
Q

Define Buccal

A

facial surface of posterior teeth (towards the cheeks)

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36
Q

Define Lingual

A

Toward the tongue

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37
Q

Define Occlusal

A

The biting surface; that surface that articulates with an antagonist tooth in an opposing arch

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38
Q

Define Inciscal

A

The cutting edge of anterior teeth

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39
Q

Define apical

A

toward the apex, the tip of the root

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40
Q

Define contact

A

a point or area where one tooth is in contact with its neighbor

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41
Q

Know this well

A
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42
Q

Define cusp

A

A point or peak on the occlusal surface of MOLAR and premolar teeth and on the inciscal ridges of canines

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43
Q

a bulge or elevation on the lingual surface of incisors or canines. It makes up the bulk of the cervical third of the lingual surface

A

the cingulum

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44
Q

Define Lobe

A

primary centers of formation in the development of the crown of the tooth
-cusps and mamelons are represented of lobes

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45
Q

define mamelons

A

lobes seen on anterior teeth; any of the three rounded protuberances seen on the unworn surfaces of an incisor

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46
Q

What are the four types of ridges?

A
  1. Marginal ridges
  2. Triangular ridges
  3. Transverse ridges
  4. Oblique ridges
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47
Q

Define marginal ridge and where its located

A

round borders of enamel that form the margins of the surfaces of premolars and molars, mesially and distally, and the mesial and distal margins of the incisors and canines lingually

okay so
1. Incisors and canines: lingual outer border
2. Molars and premolars: mesially and distally

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48
Q

Where are TRIANGULAR ridges found

A

Ridges that descend from the tips of molars and premolars towards the central groove of the occlusal surface
*remember molar and premolar only

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49
Q

Where are TRANSVERSE ridges found and how are they created

A

created when a buccal and a lingual triangular ridge join
* it is the union of two triangular ridges crossing transversely across the surface of a posterior tooth

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50
Q

Where are OBLIQUE ridges found

A

-Seen on maxillary molars and are a companion feature to the distal oblique groove

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51
Q

Location of central fossa

A

found on the occlusal surface of a molar. Formed by the converging of ridges terminating at a central point in the bottom of a depression where there is a junction of developmental grooves

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52
Q

what is the lingual fossa

A

sulcus on the lingual surface of INCISORS

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53
Q

Where are triangular fossae found

A

found on molars and premolars on the occlusal surfaces mesial or distal to marginal ridges

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54
Q

A ______ is often the site of the onset of dental decay

A

a pit.
*a pit is a small pinpoint depression located at the junction of developmental grooves or at the terminals of these groups

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55
Q

A sharply defined, narrow and linear depression formed during tooth development and usually separates lobes or major portions of a tooth.

A

developmental groove

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56
Q

Describe the odontogram and explain its use

A

its a digital representation of the patient’s mouth, including existing restoration, pathology, and planned treatment

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57
Q

How do you add a treatment note to a procedure

A

Select “Add Tx Note”

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58
Q

The college of dentistry mostly uses _____ formatting

A

AMA

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59
Q

T or F: “And” in searches means within a concept

A

False.
And means both between 2 concepts
Or will always give you more (within a concept)

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60
Q

List 3 clinical tools you can use when doing research

A
  1. Dynamed
  2. Lexicomp/ clinical pharmacology
  3. medline Plus
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61
Q

What is a wildcard in database searches

A

a character that substitutes for another character or string of characters when searching a database.

Example: Dent* =dentistry, dental, dentin, dented

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62
Q

What are the 4 personality styles

A
  1. Analytical
  2. Driving
  3. Amiable
  4. Expressive
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63
Q

What personality type
Emphasis is on working conscientiously within existing circumstances to insure quality and accuracy

*want all the info
*dont like changes to the routine
*withdraws and avoids conflict when under stress

A

Analytical

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64
Q

what personality type

Emphasis is on shaping the environment by overcoming opposition to accomplish results

*more task oriented when under stress
*few details

A

Driver

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65
Q

What personality type

Emphasis is on cooperating with others within existing circumstances to carry out the task

*Cry but bottle up anger when under stress

A

Amiable

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66
Q

what personality type

emphasis is on shaping the environment by influencing or persuading others

*thrive on uniqueness, recognition
*Future oriented
*Under stress: let you know their opinion, sometimes forcefully

A

Expressive

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67
Q

What is the goal of cultural competence?

A

Cultural humility

*cultural humilty is a goal, not a destination

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68
Q

Name two ways dentistry is a culture

A
  1. Shared power and norms
  2. Shared language
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69
Q

What are the three roles medical interpreters can play

A
  1. neutral: translation only
  2. Conduit: advocate
  3. Cultural broker: will facilitate intended cultural meaning
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70
Q

What are the 3 types of empathy?

A
  1. Cognitive (perspective taking)
  2. Personal distress (feeling another person’s pain)
  3. Empathetic concern (recognize the emotional state, tune in, and then respond)
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71
Q

Two types of trust

A

residual
specific

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72
Q

define residual trust

A
  1. formed in milliseconds
  2. largely based on non-verbal behavior
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73
Q

define specific trust

A

based on conscious processing of the situation

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74
Q

What is important to know on a medical and dental history

A
  1. chief complaint
  2. relevant medical history
  3. social history
  4. risk factors
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75
Q

Components to a comprehensive examination

A
  1. obtain patient history
  2. chief concern
  3. radiographic examination
  4. clinical evaluation of extraoral and intraoral soft and hard tissues
  5. gathering diagnostic information to assist in treatment planning process
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76
Q

What is a periodic examination

A

performed on a returning and regular basis
update of patient history

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77
Q

What is a problem-focused examination

A

limited to a specific problem

78
Q

What is Protected Health Information (PHI) and what is it used for?

A

HIPAA
-requires health care providers to prevent unnecessary use and release of PHI
- PHI can be used for treatment purposes, obtaining payment for services, quality assurance or assisting legal authorities
-Include demogrpahic data, medical data, or diagnoses or treatment notes

79
Q

T or F: De-Identified Data can be used without restriction by removing 18 identifiers

A

True

80
Q

What vital signs are measured at UIC COD

A
  1. Blood pressure
  2. Pulse
81
Q

When should blood pressure and pulse be obtained (4 times)

A
  1. During COE
  2. Periodic exams
  3. Prior to administering local anesthesia
  4. At ALL visits for patients with HTN, thyroid disease or cardiac disease
82
Q

The first sound (Korotkoff) when measuring blood pressure is the ______ pressure

A

Systolic

83
Q

__________ pressure is when Korotkoff sounds completely disappear

A

Diastolic pressure

84
Q

Reading blood pressure by ______ is considered the gold standard

A

auscultation

85
Q

Top number in blood pressure is the ____ and what does it represent

A

systolic blood pressure
-represents how much pressure your blood flow is exerting against the artery walls when the heart CONTRACTS

86
Q

the bottom or second number in blood pressure is the ______ and what does it represent

A

diastolic blood pressure
-represents how much pressure your blood flow is exerting against the artery walls when the heart is at REST

87
Q

What is
1. normal
2. elevated
3. hypertension stage 1 and 2

Systolic blood pressure?

A
  1. Less than 120 is normal
  2. 120-129 is elevated
  3. stage 1: 130-139
    stage 2: greater than or equal to 140
88
Q

What is
1. normal
2. elevated
3. hypertension stage 1 and 2

Systolic and Diastolic blood pressure combined?

A
  1. Less than 120/80 is normal (together)

2.120-129/ less than 80 is elevated (together)

  1. 130-139/ OR 80-89 (if one or the other is present patient is stage 1 hypertension)

more than or equal to 140/ OR more than 90 (if one or the other is present patient is stage 2 hypertension)

89
Q

How do you measure pulse?

A
  1. Find radial artery thumb side of the hand
  2. Palpate for 30 seconds then multiply your count by 2
90
Q

What is normal pulse range

A

Normal 60-80 bpm

91
Q
  1. What is high pulse range
  2. What is tachycardia range
  3. What is bradycardia range
A
  1. High: 80-100
  2. More than 100 is tachycardia
  3. Less than 60 is bradycardia
92
Q

What is the normal oral temperature measuremnt?

A

Oral temperature of 98.6 degrees and can vary as much as 1 degree throughout the day

93
Q

What is the normal rate of respiration?

A

12-16

94
Q

How might height and weight be useful for treatment?

A

Can be helpful for pediatric patients when determining medication dosage

95
Q

Normal blood glucose level range is

A

70-99 mg/dL

96
Q

Define ASA I classification and give example

A

a normal and healthy patient with no evidence of systemic disease

*example not applicable

97
Q

Define ASA II classification and give examples

A

A patient with mild systemic disease or significant health risk factor. Patient is able to walk up a flight of stairs without difficulty

*Ex: Controlled diabetes, controlled hypertension, asthma history, mild obesity, pregnant, smoker, dental anxiety or fear

98
Q

Define ASA III classification and give examples

A

Patient with moderate to severe systemic disease that limits activity, not incapacitated though. Pt can walk up ONE flight or stairs or two city blocks but stops

*Ex: stable angina, postmyocardial infarction, uncontrolled hypertension, massive obesity, symptomatic respiratory disease

99
Q

Define ASA IV classification and give examples

A

Patient with severe systemic disease that IS LIFE THREATENING. Pt is unable to walk up a flight of stairs, cant walk two blocks, and is distress at rest

*UNSTABLE angina, liver failure, severe congestive heart failure, end stage renal disease

100
Q

What dental procedures are little to no risk (ASA I)?

A

-oral examination
-radiographs
-study models

101
Q

What dental procedures have LOW risk

A

-local anesthesia
-simple restorations
-prophylaxis
-asymptomatic endodontic therapy
-simple extractions
-orthodontic treatment

102
Q

What dental procedures have MEDIUM risk

A

-symptomatic endodontic therapy
-multiple extractions
-single implant placement
-deep scaling
-root planing

103
Q

what dental procedures have HIGH risk

A

-Extensive surgical procedures
-Mulitlpe implants
-general anesthesia

104
Q

Describe diagnostic process of treatment planning

A

-gather information about patient
-create patient database that will serve as the basis for all future patient care decisions
-takes place during dental examination

105
Q

Diagnostic information sources include (3)

A
  1. patient history
  2. clinical and radiographic examination
  3. Other diagnostic sources
106
Q

Describe the process of developing a diagnoses

A
  1. Information gathering
  2. Evaluation of findings
  3. Significant findings
  4. Comprehensive diagnosis list
107
Q

Define risk assessment

A

Determining the likelihood of a patient’s acquiring a specific disease or condition

108
Q

Define outcome assessment

A

The results that a patient and practitioner anticipate receiving as a result of treatment

109
Q

Define prognosis

A

Prognosis is a prediction. prediction based on present circumstances of the patient’s future condition.

Prognosis is the likely outcome or course of a disease; the chance of recovery or recurrence

The prospect recovering from injury or disease, or a prediction of the course and outcome of a medical condition

*generally express as excellent, good, favorable, unfavorable, fair, poor, etc

110
Q

List the 5 phases of a treatment plan

A
  1. Systemic phase
  2. Acute phase
  3. Disease control phase
  4. Definitive treatment plan
  5. Maintenance care phase

SADicDetM

111
Q

What phase of treatment is this?

Thorough evaluation of the patients health history and any procedures necessary to manage the patient’s general and psychological health before or during dental treatment Eg: Consult with other provider, antibiotic prophylaxis, stress and fear management

A

Systemic

SADicDetM

112
Q

What phase of treatment is this?

Resolve any symptomatic problems with which a patient may present

Treatment addressing patients CC should be rendered in this phase
Eg: pain, swelling, infection, broken teeth, missing restoration

A

Acute

SADicDetM

113
Q

What phase of treatment is this?

Control active oral disease and INFECTION stop occlusal and esthetic deterioration and manage any risk factors that cause ORAL PROBLEMS Eg: controlling caries, arresting periodontal disease

A

Disease control phase

SADicDetM

114
Q

What phase of treatment is this?

Rehabilitate patient’s oral condition and includes procedures that improves appearance and function. Eg: periodontal surgery, orthodontic treatment, elective extractions, cosmetic procedures

A

Definitive treatment phase
SADicDetM

115
Q

What phase of treatment is this?

Individualized plan that strives to maintain the patient in optimum oral health

A

Maintenance care phase

SADicDetM

116
Q

Memorize this

A
117
Q

T or F

Treatment planning at UIC COD

  1. Treatment plan expires after 24 months
  2. Not every phase needs a re-evaluation
  3. Existing treatment plans need to be revised, updated and put under the current provider’s name
A
  1. F After 12 months
  2. F Every phase needs a re-eval
  3. T
118
Q

SOAP notes are used for

A

new patient exam, recall patient, or when a patient has a new dental problem

119
Q

Progress notes are used for

A

middle of treatment updates, used for periodic visits

120
Q

Components of SOAP note

A

Subjective: Cheif complaint, hx of present illness
Objective: findings gathered during the clinical exam
Assessment: Diagnosis
Plan: Care plan for the patient and documentation of informed consent

121
Q

Open ended questions are questions that usually start with

A

How or What

122
Q

Treatment addressing patient’s CC should be rendered in which phase of the treatment plan?

A

Acute phase

123
Q

Describe dental caries as a disease

A
  1. 1889 Chemico-parasitic theory of Miller: local phenomenon associated with carb retention and acidogenic bacteria
  2. Specific Plaque Hypothesis proposed by Leosche

At the tooth level, localized destruction of susceptible hard tissues by acidic byproducts from bacterial fermentation of dietary habits

124
Q

What are the components of the multifactorial model of caries process

A

Host, time, biofilm, carbohydrates, education, saliva, social factors, behavior are all related to dental caries

125
Q

Multifactorial model of caries process

Components of the HOST/TOOTH

A
  1. Tooth resistance
  2. Anatomic factors
  3. Salivary flow
126
Q

Multifactorial model of caries process

HOST/TOOTH –> list saliva protective functions

A
  1. control growth of flora and prevents bacteria adherence by

-clears acid metabolites
-saliva buffering system
-helps remineralization with calcium, phosphate, and fluoride ions
-antibacterial activity

127
Q

Multifactorial model of caries process

Name the two organisms (micro) that initiate enamel caries

A
  1. Strepcoccus mutans
  2. Streptocossus sobrinus
128
Q

Multifactorial model of caries process

CARIOGENIC BIOFILM/BACTERIA

Name the organism important in the progression of dentinal caries

A

Lactobacillus species

129
Q

Multifactorial model of caries process

FERMENTABLE CARBS

list the factors

A

-Consumption of sucrose
-fermantation of glucose and fructose (leads to lactic acid formation)
-Levels of mutans strep (MS) increases by sucrose consumption
-frequency

130
Q

Describe demineralization/remineralization process of dental caries

A

DEMIN:
acidogenic bacteria–> metabolized fermentable carbs to produce acid–> lactic acid dissociates releasing hydrogen ions–> decrease pH–> acids diffuse into underlying tooth structure–>dissolving of minerals—> calcium and phosphate diffuse out of tooth= cavity

REMIN:
1. saliva provides calcium, phosphate, and proteins that neutralize acid
2. promote remineralization
3. flouride can also enhance remineralization

131
Q

What do incipient carious lesions look like on clinically smooth surfaces?

A

earliest manifestations usually seen beneath plaque is a WHITE SPOT LESION

132
Q

Radiographic appearance of incipient enamel caries (best diagnosed via bitewing)

A
133
Q

Protective factors –> No caries

A

Salivary flow and its components
Proteins, calcium phosphate, immunoglobins
flouride
good OH

If protective factors outweigh pathologic factors, no caries will result

134
Q

Carie classification system by anatomical site? the anatomical sites caries can be found on

A
  1. Pit/fissures
  2. Smooth surfaces
  3. Root
135
Q

Carie classification system by activity?

A
  1. Active
  2. Arrested
  3. Inactive
136
Q

Carie classification system by stage?

A
  1. Incipient (white spot lesion is the first sign of caries seen with the naked eye)
  2. Non-cavitated lesion
  3. Cavitated lesion
137
Q

List all smooth-surface caries location

A
  1. Buccal surfaces
  2. Lingual surfaces
  3. Interproximal surfaces
  4. All of the above

SS-BLIA

138
Q

Signs of ACTIVE carious lesions

A
  1. Whitish
  2. Soft
  3. Dull
  4. chalky
  5. Opaque
139
Q

Signs of inactive/arrested carious lesions

A
  1. stained
  2. Hard
  3. dark
  4. glossy
140
Q

Review this

A
141
Q

Limitations of GV Black classification system?

A
  1. classifies carious lesions at an advanced stage
  2. Does not different stage of diseases (cavitated vs non cavitated)
  3. No allowance for activity of disease (active vs arrested)
  4. Early stages of caries are not classified
142
Q

Bacteria isolated from dental unit water include

A
  1. pseudomonas
  2. Legionella
  3. non TB mycobacterium
143
Q

Four models of Dental Practice

A

Normative:
1. Service or interactive: Both dentist and patient bring values and expertise to the decision making process of dental treatment
Non Normative:
2. Guild model: Dentist decides what is best. Patient either accepts or declines
3. Commercial model: Dentist goal is to make a profit
4. Consumerist/ agent model: Dentist does as directed by the customer

144
Q

Define Caries Risk:

A

The probability that
1. a specific number of new lesion will develop
2. A specific number of existing lesions will progress over a specified period of time

145
Q

What is CaMBRA

A

Caries management by risk assessment

146
Q

Caries non-modifiable risk factors

A
  1. presence of numerous restorations or past caries
  2. radiation or chemo
  3. xerostomia
  4. Dexterity limitations
  5. malformed teeth
  6. exposed root surfaces
  7. presence of dentures or ortho treatment
  8. Age
  9. Economic and educational status
147
Q

Caries modifiable risk factors

A

-fluoride exposure
-meds causing reduced salivary flow
-oral hygiene habits
-deep pits and fissures
-dietary habits
-S. Mutans/Lactobacillus prevalence
-pH of saliva

148
Q

List 4 Caries protective factors

A
  1. saliva and sealants
  2. antibacterials
  3. flouride
  4. effective diet
149
Q

Caries risk reduction is based on

A
  1. risk factors modification
  2. reduce the bacterial level
  3. neutralize the pH
  4. facilitate mineral exchange
150
Q

Hyposalivation is associated with increase in the number of _______ and increase ________ activity

A

increase in number of cariogenic bacteria and increase caries activity

151
Q

Ranking of caries predictors

A
  1. past and present caries activty (the strongest predictor)
  2. primary surfaces with incipient caries
  3. Recent placement of restoration
  4. High sugar intake
152
Q

Caries follow-up times
1. high/extreme risk
2. Moderate risk
3. low risk

A
  1. 3 month
  2. 6 months
  3. 1 year
153
Q

Hyposalivation vs Xerostomia

A

hyposalivation is a condition where the flow rates of saliva are abnormally low

xerostomia is a SUBJECTIVE feeling of daily oral dryness

154
Q

Minimum salivary flow rate necessary to maintain oral health is

A

0.1 to 0.2 mL/min unstimulated flow

155
Q

Daily production of saliva for a healthy individual is

A

0.5-1 L daily

156
Q

What is an armamentarium

A

a watch, tube, graduated pipette, 1 gr. paraffin for saliva stimulation

157
Q

Frequency of fermentable carbohydrate consumption, and conditions of low pH will favor the proliferation of ____________

A

Acid-tolerating (and acidogenic) bacteria

158
Q

T or F
Patients with high level of S. mutans in saliva (greater than 10^5 CFU/mL) are potentially at risk for developing dental caries

A

T

159
Q

Define line angle

A

Angle formed by the junction of two walls

160
Q

Define point angle

A

angle formed by the junction of three walls, or three line angles

161
Q

Most common patient-operator positioning

A

ALMOST supine
knees and feet at same level
head is slightly elevated

162
Q

4 positions for right handed operator

A
  1. right front 7 oclock
  2. right 9 oclock
  3. right rear 11 oclock
  4. direct rear, 12oclock
163
Q

Name

A

Dental explorer

164
Q

Name

A

11/12 explorer
*it has lots od different angles

165
Q

name

A

Nabers probe
*it curls

166
Q

Name

A

Periodontal probe

167
Q

Radiopacities are

A

White areas where x-rays were stopped (attenuated)

168
Q

Xray Short wavelength =. ________ frequency

A

short wavelength = high frequency = high energy

169
Q

Direct effects of X-rays

A

-direct collision with biological macromolecules
-result in altered structure and function

170
Q

Indirect effect of X-rays

A

-ionization (break up) of water molcules
-Formation of H and OH ions
-production of hydroperoxide H2O2

171
Q

kVp controls

A

QUALITY
as kVp is raised, the penetrating power of the beam is increased

172
Q

mA controls

A

QUANTITY
as mA is raised, more x-rays are produced per unit time

173
Q

exposure time controls

A

QUANTITY
as time is increased, x rays are produced for a longer period of time so more x-rays reach the film

174
Q

What type of image

A

periapical

175
Q

review this

A
176
Q

A radiographic examination is ______ in order to answer a specific disgnostic question needed to establish, maintain, or promote the patients health

A

prescribes

177
Q

Radiolucent is

A

relatively dark, air space on a radiograph ex: the sinus

178
Q

parts of intraoral exam

A

lips, buccal mucosa, gingiva, lateral, base ventral and dorsal tongue, floor of mouth, salivary glands

179
Q

Most common sites for oral cancer

A
  1. lateral tongue
  2. Then floor of mouth
180
Q

Explain sensitivity vs specificity

A

Sensitivity is the ability of a diagnostic method to identify correctly individuals with disease.

*the probability that a diagnostic method will detect caries when caries is present

Specificity is the proportion of those without disease who are correctly identified as not having disease.

*the probability that the test will indicate no caries when caries is not present

181
Q

Caries diagnosis for pit and fissure caries
Tactile: _______

List potential problems

A

Use of dental explorer

-possible cavitation of an incipient lesion
-poor sensitivity

182
Q

Caries diagnosis for pit and fissure surfaces

A

Radiographs
-less efficient as a diagnostic method for occlusal surfaces
-enamel lesions will not be visible

183
Q

T or F Stain within a fissure is indicative of carious dentin at the base of the fissure

A

F. stain within fissure is not indicative of carious dentine

184
Q

What does the non-cavitated initial/incipient lesion look like in enamel?

A

light or dark brown discoloration at the base of the pit with or without demineralization. No breakdown but area is soft

185
Q

What does the non-cavitated initial/incipient lesion look like in dentin?

A

shows signs of enamel undermining
opacity or discoloration inside the surface

186
Q

An active cavity should have _____ (hard/soft) walls or floors

A

Soft walls or floors

187
Q

When there is contact between proximal surfaces, _______ radiographs are the most effective evaluation methods

A

bitewing

188
Q

Visual, tactile, and radiographic detection of recurrent caries

A

Visual: discoloration of the margins, open margins
tactile: margin discrepancy between the tooth and restoration
radiograph: radiolucent area surrounding a radiopaque restoration

189
Q

5 steps of EBD

A
  1. Formulating a searchable question
  2. Search the literature efficiently
  3. Critically appraising the literature
  4. Apply the results to clinical practice
  5. Evaluate the outcomes
190
Q

What is PICO

A

When formulating a searchable question
P: population/patient/problem
I: Intervention
C: Comparison
O: Outcome

191
Q

What are MeSH terms?

A

Medical Subject Headings

DAOB (4 decks)

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