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BDS2; CHHD > Gastroenterology upper GIT > Flashcards

Gastroenterology upper GIT Flashcards

1
Q

What is the upper GI tract made of

A
  • oesophagus
  • stomach
  • duodenum
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2
Q

What is dysphagia

A

Difficulty in swallowing

  • needs urgent investigation to exclude malignancy
  • unless it is short term and associated with sore throat
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3
Q

What does pain on swallowing indicate

A

Oesophageal cancer, ulcer, spasm or candidiasis infection

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4
Q

What does difficulty to make swallowing movements indicate

A

Bulbar palsy (especially if swallowing causes coughing)

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5
Q

What does difficulty swallowing solids and liquids from the outset indicate

A

Motility disorder or pharyngeal cause

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6
Q

What does intermittent dysphagia indicate

A

Oesophageal spasm

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7
Q

What does consistent and worsening dysphagia indicate

A

Malignant stricture

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8
Q

What does a neck bulge or gurgle on swallowing with dysphagia indicate

A

Pharyngeal pouch

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9
Q

What do patients with dysphagia present with

A
  • Cachexia = general muscle wasting due to reduced intake and increased catabolism
  • Anaemia = tiredness, parlour of mouth
  • Oral examination could show smooth tongue
  • Supraclavicular lymph nodes (Virchow’s nodes)
  • Other signs of systemic disease
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10
Q

What are the mechanical causes of dysphagia

A
  1. Malignant stricture; pharyngeal, oesophageal, gastric cancer
  2. Benign stricture; oesophageal web or ring (iron deficiency anaemia)
  3. Extrinsic pressure; lung cancer, retrosternal goitre, aortic aneurysm, left atrial enlargement
  4. Pharyngeal pouch
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11
Q

What are the motility causes of dysphagia

A
  1. Achalasia
  2. Diffuse oesophageal spasm
  3. Systemic sclerosis
  4. Myasthenia gravis
  5. Bulbar/pseudobulbar palsy
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12
Q

What is myasthenia gravis

A

Autoimmune condition involving antibodies to ACh receptors affecting neuromuscular transmission causing increasing muscular fatigue

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13
Q

In which order does muscular fatigue occur in patient with myasthenia gravis

A
  1. Extraocular (ptosis)
  2. Bulbar (cranial nerve affecting swallowing)
  3. Face
  4. Neck
  5. Limbs
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14
Q

What treatment is given for myasthenia gravis

A

Pyridostigmine treatment for ACh replacement

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15
Q

What is bulbar palsy and what is it caused by

A

Presentation of diseases involving cranial nuclei of CNIX-XII and is a result of motor neurone disease, syringobulbia (increased cavity in upper spinal chord) or myasthenia gravis

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16
Q

How does bulbar palsy present

A

LMN lesion of tongue and muscles of talking and swallowing

  • flaccid, fasciculating tongue
  • quit, hoarse and nasal speech
  • normal or absent jaw jerk
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17
Q

What is Paterson-Kelly syndrome

A

Iron-deficiency anaemia occurring in females which presents with glossitis due to low iron and post-cricoid web causing dysphagia

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18
Q

What dies Paterson-Kelly syndrome increase the incidence of

A

Pharyngeal and oral carcinoma

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19
Q

What is achalasia

A

When the lower oesophageal sphincter fails to relax due to degeneration of myenteric plexus causing food to collect; this is a risk factor for oesophageal cancer

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20
Q

What are the clinical presentations of achalasia

A
  • dysphagia
  • regurgitation
  • substernal cramps
  • weight loss due to less food absorption
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21
Q

What is GORD

A

Gastro-oesophageal reflux = reflux of stomach contents causing symptoms with at least two heartburn episodes per week - it is associated with dysfunction of lower oesophageal sphincter

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22
Q

What can prolonged GORD cause

A
  1. Oesophagitis
  2. Benign oesophageal strictures
  3. Barrett’s oesophagus which is pre-cancerous
  4. Ulcers
  5. Oesophageal adenocarcinoma
  6. Iron deficiency anaemia
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23
Q

Describe the oesophageal symptoms of GORD

A
  • heartburn
  • belching
  • acid brash
  • water brash (XS salivation)
  • odynophagia (painful swallowing)
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24
Q

Describe the extra-oesophageal symptoms of GORM

A
  • nocturnal asthma
  • chronic cough
  • laryngitis (hoarseness, throat clearing)
  • sinusitis
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25
Q

How can GORD be treated through lifestyle changes

A
  1. weightloss
  2. smoking cessation
  3. raising bedhead (preventing reflux)
  4. small regular meals
  5. avoidance of caffeine, alcohol, acidic fruit, spicy food
  6. not eating 3 hours before bed
  7. avoiding the following drugs
    - nitrates, anticholinergics, tricyclic antidepressants
    - NSAIDs, bisphosphonates
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26
Q

How can GORD be treated through medication

A
  1. Antacids; alginates such as gaviscon
  2. Proton pump inhibitors such as omeprazole, lansoprazole
  3. Surgery when severe symptoms (Nissen fundoplication)
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27
Q

What is Nissen fundoplication

A

Treatment for GORD where

  1. Fundus (top of stomach) is wrapped around back side of oesophagus
  2. Wrap is secured with sutures to anchor lower oesophagus below diaphragm
28
Q

What is the dental relevance of GORD

A
  • unpleasant taste due to acids in mouth
  • enamel erosion especially on palatal aspect of upper teeth
  • may be exacerbated by treatment with NSAIDs
29
Q

What is sliding hiatus hernia

A

More common; Where the gastro-oesophageal junction slides into the chest and is associated with reflux - the lower oesophageal sphincter is less competent

30
Q

What is rolling hiatus hernia

A

Less common; Where the gastro-oesophageal junction remains in abdomen but a bulge of the stomach herniates into chest alongside the oesophagus and acid reflux is rare - this can cause strangulation and so is a medical emergency

31
Q

What is Barrett’s oesophagus

A

When there is chronic reflux oesophagitis, the normal squamous epithelium is replaced by columnar gastric epithelium and this is a premalignant lesion where metaplasia may occur

32
Q

What are the clinical features of oesophageal carcinoma

A
  • hoarseness, cough
  • dysphagia
  • loss of weight
  • retrosternal chest pain
  • lymphadenopathy
33
Q

Which type of cancer occurs in each third of the oesophagus most commonly

A

Upper third = squamous cell carcinoma
Middle third = squamous cell carcinoma
Lower third = adenocarcinoma

34
Q

What is tylosis

A

Genetic disorder characterised by thickening (hyperkeratosis) of palms and soles and oral leukoplakia (white patches in the mouth) which increases risk of oesophageal cancer

35
Q

What are patients with tylosis predisposed to

A

Genetic syndrome predisposes patients to squamous cell carcinoma of oesophagus; this is autosomal dominant and mapped to chromosome 17q25

= nonepidermolytic palmoplantar keratoderma

36
Q

Outline the typical signs and symptoms of pharyngeal pouches

A
  • > 70yrs
  • Dysphagia
  • Regurgitation
  • Aspiration
  • Cough
  • Borborygmi (stomach growling)
  • Chocking
  • Halitosis (bad breath)
  • Weight loss
  • Hoarseness
37
Q

What is dyspepsia

A

A nonspecific group of symptoms related to upper GIT

38
Q

What nonspecific symptoms are related to dyspepsia

A

ALARMS

  1. Anaemia (iron deficiency related)
  2. Loss of weight
  3. Anorexia
  4. Recent onset with progressive symptoms
  5. Melanea (blood stools) or haematemesis (blood in vomit)
  6. Swallowing difficulty
39
Q

What is epigastric pain associated with

A
  • related to eating specific foods, hunger or time of day
  • associated with bloating and fullness after meals
  • heartburn (retrosternal pain with acid reflux)
40
Q

What are the risk factors for peptic ulcers

A
  1. Helicobacter pylori infection
  2. Aspirin
  3. NSAIDs
  4. Corticosteroids
  5. Smoking
  6. Stress
41
Q

Why does corticosteroid usage increase the risk of peptic ulceration

A

Because it decreases prostaglandin production and this has a protector effect from stomach acid

42
Q

Outline the clinical presentation of gastric ulceration

A
  • Elderly
  • Less curve
  • Asymptomatic
  • Epigastric pain related to meals and relieved by antacids
  • Weightloss due to less break down of food and thus less absorption
43
Q

Outline the clinical presentation of duodenal ulceration

A
  • More common
  • Asymptomatic
  • Epigastric pain before eating or at night
  • Relieved by drinking milk
44
Q

Describe the incidence of gastric cancer

A

More common in males, peak indigence at 60-84yrs

  • highest in Eastern Asia, Eastern Europe and South America
  • early diagnosis is important as quickly metastases
  • polypoid, ulcerative, diffuse infiltrative

Poor prognosis (<5years)

45
Q

Outline the risk factors for gastric cancer

A
  1. H pylori infection
  2. Cigarettes
  3. Alcohol
  4. Dietary salt and food preservation
  5. Dietary fruit and vegetable
  6. Pernicious anaemia = autoimmune and no B12 absorption
46
Q

Outline the clinical presentation of gastric cancer

A
  1. nausea
  2. dysphagia
  3. melaena
  4. anaemia
  5. virchow’s node
  6. sister Mary Joseph’s nodule
47
Q

What is Virchow’s node

A

The supraclavicular lymph nodes on the left side are called Virchow’s nodes

48
Q

What is Sister Mary Joseph nodule

A
  • palpable nodule protruding into umbilicus
  • resulting from metastasis of a malignant cancer in pelvis or abdomen
  • gastric, colonic or pancreatic cancer
49
Q

What is haematemesis

A

Vomitting of blood; may be red or like coffee grounds (broken down blood)

50
Q

What is melaena

A

Black motions with a tarry appearance and smell

51
Q

What do haematemesis and melaena indicate

A

Upper GI bleeding

52
Q

What are the common causes of upper GI bleeding

A
  • gastritis or gastric erosions
  • duodenitis
  • oesophagitis
  • peptic ulcers
  • NSAIDs, aspirin, corticosteroids, warfarin, thrombolytics
  • Mallory-Weiss tear
  • oesophageal varices
  • malignancy
53
Q

What are the rare causes of upper GI bleeding

A
  • bleeding disorders
  • hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia
  • peutz-jeghers syndrome
  • portal hypertensive gastropathy (in patients with cirrhosis)
54
Q

What are varicies

A

Dilated collateral veins at sites of portosystemic anastomosis caused by portal hypertension - most common in lower oesophagus but also stomach
- it is associated with liver cirrhosis

55
Q

What is Mallory-Weiss tear caused by

A

Forceful/long-term vomitting or coughing resulting in bleeding via oesophageal tear involving mucosa and submucosa (not muscular layer) which is more common in men over 60 and can leat to haematemesis and melaena

56
Q

What is associated with Mallory-Weiss tear

A
  • alcoholism
  • eating disorders
  • hyperemesis gravidarum (in long pregnancies)
  • epileptic convulsions
  • NSAID abuse
57
Q

How is Mallory-Weiss tear treated

A

Usually self-healing but can be supported with PPI or H2 antagonists; bleeding stops after 24-48 hours

  • endoscopic cauterisation, injection of adrenaline or surgical management may be required
58
Q

Outline the initial management procedure for upper GI bleeds

A
  1. Protect airway and give high flow O2
  2. Resuscitate ABC
  3. 2 large born cannulae
  4. FBC, U&E, LFT, crossmatch, clotting
  5. IV fluids and omeprazole
  6. Urinary catheter
  7. Transfuse
  8. Urgent endoscopy
59
Q

What are the classic indications of myasthenia gravis

A

Ptosis = classic early sign
Myasthenic snarl on smiling
Voice deteriorates whilst counting to 50

60
Q

How can achalasia be diagnosed

A

Give patient barium swallow and this will show a tapered dilated lower oesophagus

61
Q

How are hiatus hernias treated

A

Weight loss

Treat reflux symptoms - alginates and PPIs

Surgical repair with complications and always with rolling hiatus hernias

62
Q

How are hiatus hernias investigated

A

Barium swallows

Upper GI endoscopy

63
Q

What is the dental relevance of tylosis

A

Increases chance of developing second cancer in H+N

May occur secondary to Patterson-Kelly syndrome

Patients may have tylosis and oral leukoplakia (tylosis with oesophageal cancer = TOC or Howel-Evans syndrome)

64
Q

Where does swelling occur in patients with pharyngeal pouches

A

Lateral pharynx in the Killian’s dehiscence area

65
Q

Outline general features of pharyngeal pouches

A 
M>F
Emaciation (weight loss)
Swelling may be felt in neck 
Swelling ma gurgle on palpitation = Boyce's sign 
Diagnosed on barium swallow
66
Q

What are alarming features suggestive of gastric cancer

A 
New onset dyspepsia in patients >55
FH of upper GIT cancers 
Unintended weight loss
Upper/lower GI bleeding 
Progressive dysphagia and odynophagia 
Persistent vomitting 
Palpable mass or lymphadenopathy 
Jaundice (metastasise to liver)
67
Q

How is gastric cancer investigated

A

Endoscopy and biopsy of primary tumour
6 biopsy samples
Staging involving endoscopic ultrasonography, CT abdomen, PET

BDS2; CHHD (32 decks)

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