Gastroenterology Flashcards

1
Q

What are used in the management of severe alcoholic hepatitis?

A

Corticosteriods

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2
Q

What is a common diabetic drug which can cause cholestasis?

A

Gliclazide

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3
Q

What drugs can cause a liver injury?

A

Paracetomal
Sodium valproate, phenytoin
MAIOs
Anti-TB drugs (isonizaid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide)
Statins
Alcohol
Amiodarone
Methyldopa
Nitrofurantoin

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4
Q

Drugs that can cause liver cirrhosis

A

Methotrexate
Methyldopa
Amiodarone

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5
Q

Diagnostic test of choice for pancreatic ca

A

CT

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6
Q

Risk factors for pancreatic cancer

A

Older age
Smoking
Diabetes
Chronic pancreatitis
HNPCRC
Multiple endocrine neoplasia
BRCA2 gene
KRAS gene mutation

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7
Q

Presentation of pancreatic cancer

A

Painless jaundice
- Pale stools
- Dark urine
- itchy
Cholestatic LFTs
Anorexia
Epigastric pain
Loss of exocrine function (steatorrhoea)
Loss of endocrine function (DM)
Possible atypical back pain

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8
Q

What is courvoisiers law?

A

The prescence of painless obstructive jaundice and a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to be due to gallstones

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9
Q

Investigations of pancreatic cancer

A

USS
CT

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10
Q

What may imaging show classically in pancreatic cancer?

A

The “double duct” sign -> the presence of similtaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts

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11
Q

Treatment of pancreatic cancer

A

Whipples resection
Adjuvant chemotherapy
ERCP + stenting usually used for palliation

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12
Q

What is a whipples resection?

A

Pancreaticoduodenectomy

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13
Q

What genes are most strongly associated with coeliac disease?

A

HLA-DQ2 + HLA-DQ8

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14
Q

What is coeliac disease?

A

Autoimmune disease which causes a sensitivity to the protein gluten

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15
Q

Conditions that are associated with coeliac disease

A

Dermatitis herpatiformis (vesicular puritic skin eruption)
T1DM
Autoimmune hepatitis
IBS
Autoimmune thyroid disease

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16
Q

Signs/symptoms of coeliac disease

A

Chronic or intermittent diarrhoea
Failure to thrive or faltering growth in children
Persistent or unexplained GI symptoms including N+V
Prolonged fatigue
Recurrent abdo pain / cramping / distension
Sudden / unexpected weight loss
Unexplained IDA or other anaemia

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17
Q

Complications of coeliac disease

A

Anaemia
Hyposplenism
Osteoporosis
Osteomalacia
Lactose intolerance
Enteropathy-assosiated T cell lymphoma of the small intestine
Subfertility
Rarely oesophageal cancer or other malignancies

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18
Q

What electrolyte abnormalities are most commonly seen in refeeding syndrome

A

Hypophosphataemia
Hypomagnesia
Hypokalaemia

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19
Q

Where is the mutation if you have familial adenomatous polyposis?

A

A tumour supressor gene called adenomatous polyposis coli gene (APC)

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20
Q

What are the 3 types of colon cancers?

A

Sporadic (95%)
HNPCC (5%)
FAP (<1%)

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21
Q

Inheritance of HNPCC

A

Autosomal dominant

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22
Q

Another name for HNPCC

A

Lynch syndrome

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23
Q

Most common genes in HNPCC

A

MSH2
MLH1

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24
Q

What other cancer except CRC are patients with HNPCC at risk of?

A

Endometrial

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25
What criteria is used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC?
Amsterdam criteria
26
Amsterdam criteria of HNPCC
At least 3 family members with colon cancer The cases span at least 2 generations At least one case diagnosed before 50 y/o
27
Patients with FAP, alongside CRC are also at risk of what?
Duodenal tumours
28
What test is recommended for post eradication H pylori treatment?
Urea breath test
29
HbsAg implies what?
Acute Hep B disease (1-6months) Surface antigen first marker to be produced in infection
30
If HbsAg present > 6 months, what does this imply?
Chronic disease i.e. infective
31
What does anti-Hbs imply?
Immunity (exposure or immunisation) It is negative in chronic disease
32
What does anti-HbC imply?
Previous or current infection
33
What is HbeAg a marker of?
HBV replication and infectivity
34
What may trigger an UC flare?
Stopping smoking Stress NSAIDs Abx
35
What is classed as mild UC?
<4 stools per day +/- blood Nil systemic disturbance Normal ESR + CRP
36
What is classed as moderate UC?
4-6 stools per day Minimal systemic disturbance
37
What is classed as severe UC?
> 6 Stools / day -> containing blood Evidence of systemic disturbance e.g. - fever - tachycardia - abdo pain / distension / reduced bowel sounds - anaemia - hypoalbuminaemia
38
What is the most common cause of HCC worldwide?
Chronic hep B
39
What is the most common cause of HCC in europe?
Chronic hep C
40
Main risk factor for HCC
Liver cirrhosis
41
Risk factors for HCC
Liver cirrhosis - hepatitis - alcohol - haemachromatosis - PBC alpha-1-antitrypsin defieicny hereditary tyrosinosis glycogen storage disease aflatoxin OCP Anabolic steriods Male Diabetes Metabolic syndromes
42
When does HCC tend to present?
Late
43
Presentation of liver disease
Jaundice Ascites RUQ pain Hepatomegaly Itchy Splenomegaly
44
What tumour marker is looked at in HCC?
AFP
45
What is the screening is used for HCC?
USS
46
Who often gets screening for HCC?
Patients with liver cirrhosis 2ndry to hep B, C or haemachromatosis Men with liver cirrhosis secondary to alcohol
47
Treatment of HCC
Early disease; surgical resection Liver transplant Radiofrequency ablation Transaterial chemoembolisation Sorafenib
48
What is whipples disease caused by?
Tropheryma whippelii infection
49
Who is whipples disease more common in?
HLA-B27 positive Middle aged men
50
Presentation of whipples disease
Malabsorption; diarrhoea, weight loss Large joint arthralgia Lymphadenopathy Hyperpigmentation and photosensitvity Pleurisy Pericarditis Neurological sx; rare
51
Investigatin of whipples disease
Jejunal biopsy
52
Finding of biopsy in whipples disease
Deposition of macrophages containing PAS granules
53
Treatment of whipples disease
Oral co-trimox for a year Sometimes followed by a course of IV penicillin
54
What is the strongest risk factor for anal cancer?
HPV infection
55
Increasing risk factors for HPV infection
Anal intercourse High lifetime number of sexual partners
56
Risk factors for anal cancer
HPV MSM HIV Immunosuppressive medications Cervical cancer / CIN Smoking
57
Presentation of anal cancer
Perianal pain Perianal bleeding Palpable lesion Faecal incontinence Fistulas
58
Investigations of anal cancer
CT/MRI/PET Biopsy
59
What is Budd-Chiari syndrome?
Hepatic vein thrombosis
60
Causes of budd chiari syndrome
Polycythaemia rubra vera Thrombophilia Pregnancy COCP
61
Triad of budd chairi syndrome
Abdominal pain, severe, sudden onset Ascites Tender hepatomegaly
62
Initial Ix for budd chairi syndrome
USS with doppler flow studies
63
What is the main risk factor for cholangiocarcinoma?
PSC
64
Presentation of cholangiocarcinoma
Persistent biliary colic symptoms Anorexia Jaundice Weight loss Palpable mass RUQ Periumbilical lymphadenopathy and left supraclavicular adenopathy
65
What tumour marker may be raised in cholangiocarcinoma?
CA 19-9
66
Most appropriate treatment for variceal haemorrhage whilst waiting for endoscopy?
Terlipressin
67
Prophylaxis of variceal haemorrhage
Propranolol Endoscopic band ligation TIPSS
68
What can happen if H pylori is left untreated?
PUD Gastric cancer B cell lymphoma of malt tissue Atrophic gastritis
69
Treatment of H pylori
7 day eradication therapy of - PPI + amoxicillin + (clarithromycin or metronidazole) - PPI + Clari + metronidazole if pen allergic
70
Most common causes of acute upper GI bleed
Oesophageal varices Peptic ulcer disease
71
Presentation of upper GI bleeding
Haematemesis Melena Raised urea
72
What is the screening test for haemachromatosis?
Transferrrin saturation > ferritin
73
What gene are family members tested for in haemachromatosis?
HFE genetic testing
74
What is haemachromatosis?
Autosomal recessive disorder of iron absorption and metabolism resulting in iron accumulation
75
What is the typical iron study in a patient with haemachromatosis?
Transferrin saturation > 55% in men or >50% in women Raised ferritin and iron Low TIBC
76
Management of haemachromatosis
1. Venesection 2. Desferrioxamine
77
If C diff does not respond to first line treatment, in the abscence of life threatning features, what should be used next?
Oral fidaxomicin
78
Risk factors for C diff
C antibiotics PPIs
79
Presentation of C diff
Abdo pain Diarrhoea Raised WCC
80
Complication of C diff
Toxic Megacolon
81
Diagnostic testing of C diff
C diff toxin in stool
82
1st line treatment of C diff
Oral vancomycin for 10 days
83
Second line treatment of C diff
Oral fidaxomicin
84
Third line treatment for C diff
Oral vanc +/- IV metronidazole
85
What is seen on a CXR characteristically with achalasia?
Retro-cardiac air fluid level Wide mediastinum
86
What is achalasia?
Failure of oesophageal peristalsis and relaxation of the LOS due to generative loss of ganglia from Aucherbachs plexus i.e. LOS contracted, oesophagus above dilatated
87
Presentation of achalasia
Dysphagia of both SOLIDS AND LIQUIDS Variation in severity of symptoms Heartburn Regurgitation of food (may lead to cough, aspiration pneumonia etc)
88
Definition of dysphagia
Difficulty swallowing
89
Investigations of achalasia
Oesophageal mamometry Barium swallow CXR
90
Treatment of achalasia
Pneumatic ballon dilatation Surgical intervention with Heller cardiomyotomy if recurrent or persistent symptoms Intra-sphincteric injection of botulinium toxin in patients high surgical risk
91
What inheritance is haemachromatosis?
Autosomal recessive
92
Presentation of haemachromatosis
Fatigue Erectile dysfunction Arthralgia (often in hands) Bronze skin pigmentation DM Sigmata of chronic liver disease Cardiac failure 2ndrly to dilated cardiomyopathy Hypogonadism 2ndry to cirrhosis and pituitary dysfunction Arthritis (particularly of hands)
93
1st line test for coeliac disease
Tissue transglutaminase antibodies
94
First line investigations for coeliac disease
1. TTG antibodies 2. Endoscopic intestinal biopsy
95
Biopsy Findings supportive of coeliac disease
Villous atrophy Crypt hyperplasia Increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes Lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes
96
Sulphazalazines such as mesalazine can cause what in men?
Oligospermia and infertility
97
Complications of acute pancreatitis
Peripancreatic fluid collections Pseudocysts Pancreatic necrosis Pancreatic abscess Pancreatic haemorrhage Acute respiratory distress syndrome
98
What antibiotic is a well recognised cause of cholestasis?
co-amoxiclav
99
How does gastrin work?
Increases H+ secretion by gastric parietal cells
100
If a patient who had severe UC has had a severe relapse or >2 exacerbations in the past year, what should they be given?
Oral azathioprine or oral mercaptopurine
101
Treatment for proctitis in UC
Topical rectal aminosalicylate If remission is not achieved within 4 weeks, add oral aminosalicylate If remission still not achieved, add topical or oral corticosteriod
102
Treatment for proctosigmoiditis and left sided colitis
Topical rectal aminosalicylate If remission not achieved within 4 weeks, add high dose oral aminosalicylate or switch to high dose oral aminosalicylate and a topic corticosteriod If remission still not achieved stop topical treatments and offer oral aminosalicylate and oral corticosteriods
103
Treatment for extensive UC disease
Topical rectal aminosalicylate and high dose oral aminosalicylate If remission not achieved in 4 weeks, stop topical treatments and offer high dose aminosalicylates and oral corticosteriods
104
Treatment of severe colitis
IV steriods If no improvement by 72 hrs, consider adding IV ciclosporin or consider steriods
105
What hormone is released in response to a fatty meal and what cells release this?
CCK Released by I cells
106
What is a recognised complication of cholecystectomies?
Post cholycystectomy syndrome
107
Incidence of post cholycystectomy syndrome
up to 40%
108
Presentation of post cholycystecotmy syndrome
Dyspepsia Vomiting Pain Flatulence Diarrhoea
109
Management of post cholycystectomy syndrome
Low fat diet Bile acid sequestrants e.g. cholystyramine PPIs symptomatically
110
Where is somastatin released from?
D cells in the pancreas and stomach
111
Presentation of oesophageal cancer
Anorexia / weight loss Dysphagia - progressive Vomiting during eating
112
Assosiations of oesophageal cancer
Barretts oesophagus GORD Smoking Alcohol XS
113
Risk factors for oesophageal candidiasis
HIV Steriod inhaler use
114
Who is a pharyngeal pouch common in?
Older men
115
Presentation of pharyngeal pouch
Dysphagia Regurgitation Aspiration Chronic cough Halitosis
116
What is a pharyngeal pouch?
A posteriomedial herniation between thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus muscles
117
Presentation of myasthenia gravis
Progressive fatigue Dysphagia with both liquids and solids Extraocular muscle weakness / ptosis
118
Extrinsic causes of dysphagia
Mediastinal masses Cervical spondylosis
119
Oesophageal wall causes of dysphagia
Achalasia Diffuse oesophageal spasm Hypertensive lower oesophageal spasm
120
Intrinsic causes of dysphagia
Malignancy Strictures Oesophageal web Schtazi webs
121
Neurological causes of dysphagia
CVA Parkinsons disease MS Brainstem pathology Myasthenia gravis
122
Treatment of wilsons disease
Penicillamine
123
Inheritance of wilsons disease
Autosomal Recessive
124
What is wilsons disease?
Autosomal recessive disorder characterised by exessive copper deposition in tissues
125
What genetic abnormality causes wilson disease?
Defect in ATP7B gene located on chromosome 13
126
Presentation of wilsons disease
Hepatitis Liver cirrhosis Basal ganglia degeneration Speech, behavioural and psychiatric problems Aterixis Chorea Dementia Parkinsonism Kayser FIscher rings Renal tubular acidosis Haemolysis Blue nails
127
What are katser fischer rings?
Green brown rings in the periphery of the iris
128
Investigations for wilsons disease
Slit lamp examination Low serum careoplasmin Reduced total serum copper Free serum coppler is increased Increased 24hr urinary copper excretion
129
How is the diagnosis of wilsons disease confirmed?
Genetic analysis of the ATP7B gene
130
How does penicillamine work in wilsons disease?
Chellates copper