Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SAM 2 scs RUSVM > Gastro (E2) > Flashcards

Gastro (E2) Flashcards

1
Q

What is the best imaging modality for the oral segment of the GIT?

A

CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which nerves prehend food and form a bolus?

A

CN V (Trigeminal)

CN VII (Facial)

CN XII (Hypoglossal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which nerves propel the bolus along the pharynx, close the larynx, and inhibit breathing when the UES sphincter opens?

A

CN IX (Glossopharyngeal)

CN XI (Accessory)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are 2 congenital diseases that affect the pharynx?

A

Cricopharyngeal-achalasia

Esophageal dysmotility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

T/F: You should sedate your patient to perform an oropharyngeal exam.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What disorder the 2M Antibody Assay for?

A

Masticatory Muscle Myositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How does the esophagus differ in dogs and cats?

A

Dogs have striated muscle throughout

Cats have smooth muscle at the distal aspect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which advanced imaging modality can be used to evaluate esophageal persitalsis and swallowing phases? Is sedation required?

A

Fluroscopy

No to minimal sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which esophageal lesion that can be caused by PRAA can cause impactions, esophagitis, rupture, and pyothorax if the lesion is large?

A

Esophageal Diverticulae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

You have a young GSD showing esophageal issues which do not respond to medical therapy. Otherwise the dog is normal. What disease might be present?

A

Myasthenia gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which endocrine disorders have been associated with megaesophagus?

A

Hypothyroidism

Addision’s Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name one condition where it would be inappropriate to place an esophagostomy tube. What can you place instead?

A

Esophagitis

PEG tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is food that is semi-solid and ‘soapy’ in the area of the duodenum called?

A

Chyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which hormone stimulates the secretion of gastric acid and intrinsic factor, as well as pepsinogen? It also promotes gastric and intestinal motility as well as mucosal growth. From where is it released?

A

Gastrin

Released from gastric antrum, G-cells (duodenum) and the pancreas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which hormone inhibits the secretion or action of various hormones, including secretin, CCK, VIP, and gastrin? From where is it released?

A

Somatostatin

Stomach, small intestines, and D-cells (pancreas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which layer of the stomach provides nutritional support to the mucosa? What is another frunction of this layer?

A

Lamina propria

Immune system cells

17
Q

What substances do neuroendocrine cells release?

A

Enterocromafin (Serotonin, Histamine)

Somatostatin

Gastrin

18
Q

The parietal cells of the stomach release gastric acid as well as intrinsic factor. Where does most intrinsic factor come from in the dog?

A

Pancreas

19
Q

Which enzyme aids in the digestion of protein in the stomach? Fat?

A

Pepsin

Gastric lipase

20
Q

T/F: Fatty meals pass throught the stomach faster that meals low in fat, partly because fat lubricates the stomach.

A

False, super false

Fat slows movement so lipase has time to work

21
Q

T/F: You should start reintroducing food and water slowly but as soon as possible to a patient with acute gastritis.

A

True

22
Q

What is the basic treatment protocol for food bloat?

A

Fluids

Withhold food

Walk frequently

Pain management

+/- Lavage

+/- Surgery

23
Q

BUN elevation without CRE elevation = ______

A

GI bleed

24
Q

What is the treatment protocol (including specific drugs) for Helicobacter Gastritis?

A

Amoxicillin + Metronidazole + Omeprazole (or Pepcid)

Other antibiotics: Tetracycline (broad-spec), Macrolides (better for g+: Erythromycin, Clarithromycin, Azithromycin)

TRIPLE THERAPY

25
Q

What can you use to treat roundworms?

A

Fenbendazole

or

Pyrantel pamoate

26
Q

What drug is used to treat physalloptera?

A

Pyrantel pamoate (2 doses, 2 weeks apart)

27
Q

What drug is used to treat Ollulanus tricuspsi? What species does this parasite affect?

A

Fenbendaszole

Cats

28
Q

What drugs are used to treat Pythiosis?

A

Terbinafine and Intraconazole

29
Q

What is the primary cell infiltrate in inflammatory gastritis?

A

Lymphoplasmacytic

30
Q

What is the typical signalment for a dog with hypertrophic gastropathy?

A

Older small breed dog (Lhasa Apso, Shih Tzu)

31
Q

What neuroendocrine disease causes chronic vomiting, increased gastrin levels, and reflux esophagitis? Where is the primary pathology located?

A

Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome (Gastrinoma)

Tumor in pancreas (usually)

32
Q

What disease of the stomach causes early morning vomiting of bile usually in young dogs?

A

Bilious Vomiting Syndrome

SAM 2 scs RUSVM (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions