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DIT Gastro > Gastro 0 > Flashcards

Gastro 0 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the functions of interleukins 1-5?

A

[Hot T-Bone stEAk]. IL-1= Fever. IL-2= T-cell stimulator. IL-3= Bone marrow stimulator. IL-4= Enhances production of IgE and IgG. IL-5= Increases production of IgA and eosinophils.

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2
Q

After taking a course of amoxicillin, an adult patient develops toxic megacolon and diarrhea. What is the mechanism of diarrhea?

A

Killed normal flora, letting Clostridium difficile grow, causing pseudomembranous colitis.

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3
Q

Which Rickettsial species has properties unique from other Rickettsial organisms? What are those unique properties?

A

Coxiella burnetii. Negative Weil-Felix test, no vector, Transmitted by aerosolized droplets, can spread as endospores. DOES NOT cause rash, instead causes interstitial pneumonia.

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4
Q

On what type of immune cell is the following cell surface protein found: CD4?

A

T helper cells.

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5
Q

On what type of immune cell is the following cell surface protein found: CD14.

A

Macrophages.

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6
Q

On what type of immune cell is the following cell surface protein found: CD16?

A

NK cells and macrophages.

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7
Q

On what type of immune cell is the following cell surface protein found: CD19?

A

B cells.

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8
Q

On what type of immune cell is the following cell surface protein found: CD3?

A

T cells (except NK cells).

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9
Q

On what type of immune cell is the following cell surface protein found: CD8?

A

Cytotoxic T cells.

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10
Q

A child has an immune disorder in which there are repeated Staph abscesses. It is found that neutrophils fail to respond because the chemotactic stimuli are deficient. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Hyperimmunoglobulin E syndrome (Job syndrome).

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11
Q

What cytokine Promotes B cell growth and differentiation?

A

IL4, IL5.

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12
Q

What cytokine produced by Th1 cells?

A

IL-2, IFN-gamma.

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13
Q

What cytokine produced by Th2 cells?

A

Il-4, IL-5, IL-10.

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14
Q

What cytokines are secreted by helper T cells and activates macrophages?

A

IFN-gamma.

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15
Q

What cytokine are pyrogens secreted by monocytes and macrophages?

A

IL-1, IL-6, and TNF-alpha.

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16
Q

What cytokine enhances IgE and IgG?

A

IL-4.

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17
Q

What cytokine enhances synthesis of IgA?

A

IL-5.

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18
Q

What cytokine are released by virally infected cells?

A

IFN-alpha, IFN-beta.

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19
Q

Which autoimmune disorder has Anti-TSH receptor antibodies?

A

Graves disease.

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20
Q

Which autoimmune disorder has antimitochondrial antibodies?

A

Primary biliary cirrhosis.

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21
Q

Which autoimmune disorder has anticentromere antibodies?

A

CREST scleroderma.

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22
Q

Which autoimmune disorder has antihistone antibodies?

A

Drug-induced lupus.

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23
Q

Which autoimmune disorder has anti-smooth muscle antibodies?

A

Autoimmune hepatitis.

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24
Q

Which 2 bacteria are well know for being obligate intracellular bacteria? Why can’t these bacteria replicate extracellularly?

A

Rickettsia. Chlamydia. They both can’t make ATP.

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25
Q

What is the cause of chronic granulomatous disease? What are the consequences of said disease?

A

Lack of NADPH oxidase activity; phagocytes are unable to generate free radicals to kill engulfed bacteria. This causes susceptibility to Opportunistic infections; Staph aureus, Salmonella, Klebsiella, Aspergillus.

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26
Q

Which immunoglobulin isotype is associated w/ eosinophilia? Which cytokine is associated w/ differentiation of eosinophils?

A

Eosinophilia: IgE. Differentiation: IL-5.

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27
Q

A patient has a UTI caused by Proteus vulgaris. What type of renal stone is this patient at risk for?

A

Ammonium magnesium phosphate stone.

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28
Q

What is the mechanism of hyperacute organ transplant rejection? What is the time frame?

A

Pre-formed anti-donor Abs. Within minutes.

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29
Q

What is the mechanism of acute organ transplant rejection? What is the time frame?

A

Host T-cells are attacking foreign MHCs. Happens over weeks.

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30
Q

What is the mechanism of chronic organ transplant rejection? What is the time frame?

A

Ab-mediated vascular damage. Happens months to years.

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31
Q

What enzymes do obligate anaerobes lack?

A

Catalase and superoxide dismutase.

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32
Q

Which Mycobacterium species causes Leprosy?

A

Mycobacterium leprae.

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33
Q

Which Mycobacterium species causes pulmonary TB-like symptoms in COPD patients?

A

Mycobacterium kansasii.

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34
Q

Which Mycobacterium species causes cervical lymphadenitis in children?

A

Mycobacterium scrofulaceum.

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35
Q

Which Mycobacterium species causes disseminated disease in AIDS patients?

A

Mycobacterium avium intracellulare (MAI).

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36
Q

Which Mycobacterium species causes hand infection in aquarium?

A

Mycobacterium marinum.

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37
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity is responsible for asthma?

A

Type I.

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38
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity is responsible for Tuberculosis skin test?

A

Type IV.

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39
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity is responsible for allergies, anaphylaxis, and hay fever?

A

Type I.

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40
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity is responsible for ABO-blood type incompatibility?

A

Type II.

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41
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity is responsible for Poison ivy?

A

Type IV.

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42
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity is responsible for Eczema?

A

Type I.

43
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity is responsible for Goodpasture syndrome?

A

Type II.

44
Q

What names are given to monocytes in Blood, alveoli, intestines?

A

Macrophages.

45
Q

What names are given to monocytes in connective tissue?

A

Histiocytes.

46
Q

What names are given to monocytes in liver?

A

Kupffer cells.

47
Q

What names are given to monocytes in kidney?

A

Mesangial cells.

48
Q

What names are given to monocytes in Brain?

A

Microglia.

49
Q

What names are given to monocytes in bones?

A

Osteocytes.

50
Q

What are the 4 obligate aerobic bacteria?

A

[Nagging Pests Must Breathe]. Nocardia. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Bacillus.

51
Q

The mother of a patient recently hospitalized for haemophilus meningitis calls the clinic because she noticed blood in her urine. What is the most likely cause of her symptom?

A

Rifampin. Likely they put the mother on rifampin as prophylaxis, the “blood” in urine is most likely red urine caused by said drug.

52
Q

Which immunosuppressant causes Prodrug of 6-mercaptopurine?

A

Azathioprine.

53
Q

Which immunosuppressant causes phocomelia?

A

Thalidomide.

54
Q

Which immunosuppressant causes nephrotoxicity in 75% of patients?

A

Cyclosporine.

55
Q

Which immunosuppressant causes SE: acne, osteoporosis, HTN, hyperglycemia, immunosupression that leads to infection.

A

Glucocorticoids.

56
Q

Which immunosuppressant that inhibits the secretion of IL-2 and other cytokines?

A

Tacrolimus. Cyclosporin.

57
Q

What hematological changes would you expect to see in a patient w/o a functional spleen?

A

Thrombocytosis. Howell-Jolly bodies. Target cells.

58
Q

What heart defect is associated with Chromosome 22q11 deletion?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot. Truncus arteriosus.

59
Q

What heart defect is associated with Down syndrome?

A

Endocardial cushion defect. ASD. VSD. AV septal defect.

60
Q

What heart defect is associated with congenital rubella?

A

PDA. Pulmonary artery stenosis. Septal defect.

61
Q

What heart defect is associated with Turner syndrome?

A

Coarctation of the aorta, aortic root dilation. Bicuspid aortic valve.

62
Q

What heart defect is associated with Marfan syndrome?

A

Aortic insufficiency.

63
Q

What four drug regimen is used to treat TB?

A

[RIPE] Rifampin. Isoniazid. Pyrazinamide. Ethambutol.

64
Q

Where would you expect to find B cells and T cells in the spleen? In the lymph nodes?

A

B cells: Follicles of spleen and lymph nodes. T cells: Spleen: periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS). Lymph nodes: Paracortex.

65
Q

Which cytokines are secreted by the two different types of helper T cells?

A

TH1: Make IL-2 and IF-gamma.
TH2: IL-2,IL-4,IL-5,IL-10.

66
Q

What 5 classes of medications are used to treat glaucoma?

A

Alpha agonists. Beta blockers. Diuretics (acetazolamide, mannitol). Cholinergic agonists. Prostaglandins (prostaglandin F2-alpha).

67
Q

What nerve is damaged when there is Wrist drop?

A

Radial nerve.

68
Q

What nerve is damaged when there is scapular winging?

A

Long thoracic nerve.

69
Q

What nerve is damaged when unable to wipe your bottom?

A

Thoracodorsal nerve.

70
Q

What nerve is damaged when there is loss of forearm pronation?

A

Median nerve.

71
Q

What nerve is damaged when there is weakness external rotation of arm?

A

Suprascapular nerve.

72
Q

What nerve is damaged when there is loss of elbow flexion and forearm supination?

A

Musculocutaneous nerve.

73
Q

What nerve is damaged when there is loss of wrist extension?

A

Radial nerve.

74
Q

What mechanism and time-frame of chronic transplant rejection?

A

Done by Ab and T-cells causing vascular damage. Takes months to years.

75
Q

What reflex might you check for in a newborn exam to assess an infant for healthy neurological function?

A

Babinski. Moro. Palmar. Rooting. Sucking reflexes.

76
Q

What makes Lewy body dementia unique?

A

Visual hallucinations. Repeated falls and syncopal episodes.

77
Q

What gene complex gives rise to a protein that initiates V(D)J recombination in B and T cell development?

A

RAG-1. RAG-2.

78
Q

What infections are caused by Chlamydia and Chlamydophila species?

A

Chlamydophila psittaci: Pneumonia (exposure to birds). Chlamydophila pneumoniae: Interstitial pneumonia (walking pneumonia). Chlamydia trachomatis Types A, B, C: trachoma eye infection (in Africa). Types D thru K: STDs and PID. Types L1, L2, L3: lymphogranuloma venereum.

79
Q

What is the treatment for most Chlamydia and Chlamydophila species infection?

A

Macrolides (or Tetracyclines).

80
Q

A young child has recurrent lung infections and granulomatous lesions. Whats is the defect in neutrophils?

A

Deficiency of NADPH oxidase (Disease is Chronic granulomatous disease).

81
Q

Which bacteria are known for forming spores?

A

Bacillus anthracis and Bacillus cereus. Clostridium species: C.perfringens, C.tetani, C.botulinum, C.difficile. Coxiella burnetii.

82
Q

A 6m.o child is give honey for symptomatic tx of a cold and becomes flaccid. What G(+) rod is implicated? What is the mechanism of action?

A

Clostridium botulinum; causes inhibition of the release of ACh. The spores maturing in the gut.

83
Q

After bone marrow transplantation, a patient suffers from dermatitis, enteritis, and hepatitis. What disease process is occurring?

A

Graft-versus-host disease; new immune system that came with the host are attacking different tissues.

84
Q

What are 8 examples of encapsulated bacteria? What test can be used to detect encapsulated bacteria?

A

[Even Some Pretty Nasty Killers Have Shiny Bodies] E.coli. S.pneumoniae. Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Neisseria meningitidis. Klebsiella pneumoniae. Haemophilus influenzae. Salmonella typhi. Grop B ste. Use Quellung reaction.

85
Q

What should you immediately think about in a patient w/ bilateral Bell’s palsy?

A

Lyme disease. Possibly Guillian-Barre syndrome.

86
Q

To which lymph node does the Rectum drain?

A

Internal iliac nodes.

87
Q

To which lymph node does the external anus?

A

Superficial inguinal nodes.

88
Q

To which lymph node does the Testes?

A

Para-aortic nodes.

89
Q

To which lymph node does the scrotum?

A

Superficial inguinal nodes.

90
Q

What is the function of MacConkey’s agar?

A

Isolates G(-) bacteria. To distinguish lactose fermenters (pink) vs non-lactose fermenters (white).

91
Q

Which portion of the eye is opacified in a cataract?

A

Lens.

92
Q

Which cytokines are produced by Th1 cells? Which cytokines are produced by Th2 cells?

A

Th1: IL-2, IFN-gamma. Th2: IL-2, IL-4, IL-5, IL-10.

93
Q

A 20 yo dancer reports decreased plantar flexion and decreased sensation over the back of her tight, calf, and lateral half of her foot. What nerve is involved?

A

Tibial nerve.

94
Q

Which substances serve as chemotactic agents for leukocytes?

A

IL-8. Leukotriene B4. C5a. Kallikrein.

95
Q

What excitatory neurotransmitter is involved in pain?

A

Substance P.

96
Q

Which immune deficiency causes Anaphylaxis on exposure to blood products w/ IgA?

A

Selective IgA deficiency.

97
Q

Which immune deficiency causes coarse facial features, abscesses, eczema?

A

Hyper-IgE syndrome (Job syndrome). T cell disorder.

98
Q

Which immune deficiency causes thrombocytopenia, purpura, infections, eczema?

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome. B and T cell disorder.

99
Q

Which immune deficiency causes delayed separation of the umbilicus?

A

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency (type 1).

100
Q

Which immune deficiency causes Neuro defects, partial albinism, recurrent infections?

A

Chediak-Higashi syndrome. A phagocyte disfunction disorder.

101
Q

What disorder is associated with Anti-endomysial Ab?

A

Celiac disease.

102
Q

What disorder is associated with anti-thyroglobulin Ab?

A

Hashimoto thyroiditis.

103
Q

What disorder is associated with Anti-smooth muscle Ab?

A

Autoimmune hepatitis.

DIT Gastro (17 decks)

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