gas notes 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Can Suxamethonium be reversed?

A

No, Suxamethonium cannot be reversed

It is short-acting, which is why reversal is not necessary.

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2
Q

What agents are used to reverse non-depolarising muscle relaxants?

A

A combination of anticholinesterase and anti-muscarinic agents

This combination helps restore muscle function after the use of non-depolarising muscle relaxants.

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3
Q

How do non-depolarising muscle relaxants work?

A

They out-compete acetylcholine (ACh) for binding sites on post-synaptic ACh receptors

This mechanism prevents muscle contraction.

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4
Q

What enzyme breaks down acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft?

A

Acetylcholinesterase (AChE)

AChE is essential for terminating the action of ACh.

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5
Q

What happens when acetylcholinesterase is inhibited?

A

Less ACh is broken down, allowing more ACh to compete with muscle relaxants

This leads to the restoration of muscle function.

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6
Q

Fill in the blank: Non-depolarising muscle relaxants can be reversed using a combination of _______ and anti-muscarinic agents.

A

anticholinesterase

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7
Q

True or False: Suxamethonium is a long-acting muscle relaxant.

A

False

Suxamethonium is short-acting.

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8
Q

What is the result of increased ACh in the synaptic cleft?

A

Muscle function returns

More ACh allows for competition with muscle relaxants at the receptors.

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9
Q

What effect do cholinesterase inhibitors have on ACh in the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

They cause ACh to accumulate.

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10
Q

What are the significant cardiovascular effects of ACh accumulation due to cholinesterase inhibitors?

A

Bradycardia and hypotension.

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11
Q

How can the unwanted effects of cholinesterase inhibitors be counteracted?

A

By co-administering an anti-muscarinic agent.

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12
Q

Name two examples of anti-muscarinic agents used to counteract cholinesterase inhibitors.

A
  • Atropine
  • Glycopyrolate
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13
Q

What is sugammadex?

A

A tubular molecule that traps rocuronium and vecuronium in its core, preventing their action on post-synaptic ACh receptors.

Sugammadex is used to reverse neuromuscular blockade caused by these agents.

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14
Q

What does sugammadex trap?

A

Rocuronium and vecuronium.

These are neuromuscular blocking agents used in anesthesia.

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15
Q

How does sugammadex prevent the action of rocuronium and vecuronium?

A

By trapping them in its core.

This trapping mechanism stops these drugs from binding to ACh receptors.

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16
Q

When should sugammadex be used?

A

For urgent reversal of profoundly paralysed patients.

Its high cost limits its use to critical situations.

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17
Q

True or False: Sugammadex is inexpensive and can be used routinely.

A

False.

Sugammadex is very expensive.

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18
Q

What are the risks associated with extubation?

A

Laryngospasm, aspiration, apnoea

Extubation can lead to sudden airway emergencies.

19
Q

What is the ideal patient condition for extubation? List at least three aspects.

A
  • Adequately fasted
  • Haemodynamically stable
  • Easy to re-intubate
  • Adequately oxygenated
  • No longer paralysed
  • Breathing spontaneously
  • Awake enough to obey commands

These conditions help minimize the risks during extubation.

20
Q

True or False: It is acceptable to extubate a patient who is still paralysed.

A

False

Patients should not be paralysed at the time of extubation.

21
Q

What should you do if the patient tries to pull the tube out themselves?

A

Help them

Assisting the patient is crucial to avoid airway complications.

22
Q

What is the first step to take when preparing for extubation?

A

Pre-oxygenate

This ensures that the patient has adequate oxygen levels before the tube is removed.

23
Q

Fill in the blank: After pre-oxygenating, insert a _______.

A

bite block

A bite block helps prevent damage to the airway during extubation.

24
Q

What should be done to the airway before extubation?

A

Suction the airway with your Yankauer sucker

This helps clear secretions that could obstruct breathing.

25
Q

What position should the bed be in during extubation?

A

Semi-recumbent position

This position aids in airway management and patient comfort.

26
Q

What should be checked before extubation?

A

Double-check that they’re reversed and awake enough

Ensuring the patient is sufficiently awake and reversed from sedation is critical.

27
Q

What should be done to the lungs before pulling out the tube?

A

Inflate the lungs

This allows the patient to cough out secretions effectively.

28
Q

What is the final step in the extubation process?

A

Deflate the cuff and gently pull the tube out

This step must be done carefully to avoid airway trauma.

29
Q

What should be monitored after extubation?

A

Monitor for apnoea

Close monitoring is essential to detect any immediate respiratory issues.

30
Q

What is a common side effect of surgery and anaesthetic medications?

A

Patients wanting to vomit

31
Q

What are the demographic risk factors for post-operative nausea and vomiting (PONV)?

A
  • Young
  • Female
  • Non-smoker
32
Q

Name anaesthetic agent risk factors for PONV.

A
  • Volatile anaesthetics
  • Nitrous oxide
  • Opioids
33
Q

What surgical factors increase the risk of PONV?

A
  • Inner ear surgery
  • Gynaecological surgery
  • Laparoscopic surgery
34
Q

What history factors are associated with a higher risk of PONV?

A
  • Prior PONV
  • Motion sickness
35
Q

What scoring system is used to estimate the risk of PONV?

A

The Apfel score

36
Q

what does the apfel score consider

A

available on MD calc
gender (higher risk for females)
smoking status (higher risk for non-smokers)
history of motion sickness or PONV
use of postoperative opioids

37
Q

What does PACU stand for?

A

Post-Anaesthetic Care Unit

Also known as the recovery ward.

38
Q

What does the ISOBAR system stand for?

A

Identify, Situation, Observations, Background, Assessment, Recommendation

A structured communication tool often used in healthcare.

39
Q

What should be included in the ‘Identify’ section of the handover?

A

Yourself, the patient, surgical situation

It establishes context for the handover.

40
Q

What types of information are included under ‘Surgical situation’?

A

Type of operation, drains, catheters, blood loss, surgeons’ instructions

This information is critical for ongoing patient care.

41
Q

What should be documented about the anaesthetic situation?

A

Type of anaesthetic, amount of opioid given, anti-emetics given, reversal method, problems during anaesthesia

This ensures continuity of care post-surgery.

42
Q

What does the ‘Observations’ section of the handover involve?

A

Waiting for the nurses to do one set of observations, highlighting any persisting physiological issues

It ensures that any ongoing concerns are noted.

43
Q

What is included in the ‘Relevant medical background’?

A

Patient’s medical history and any pertinent information

This helps in understanding the patient’s overall health condition.

44
Q

What should the ‘Plan’ section cover?

A

Analgesia plan, where they’re going after recovery, anything you need done (blood tests), how to contact the anaesthetist

It outlines the next steps for patient care.