gas notes 1 Flashcards

1
Q

dantrolene

A

the only drug that treats malignant hyperthermia

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2
Q

mallampati score

A
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3
Q

ASA classification for patient fitness for surgery

A

six classes:

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4
Q

What does the American Society of Anesthesiologists Classification (ASA) describe?

A

A patient’s fitness for surgery

The ASA classification helps in assessing surgical risk.

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5
Q

What is the definition of ASA Class I?

A

A normal healthy patient

Healthy, non-smoking, fit patient.

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6
Q

What characterizes ASA Class II?

A

A patient with mild systemic disease

BMI 30-40, smoking, perhaps a well-controlled ‘lifestyle’ disease with no functional impact.

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7
Q

What defines ASA Class III?

A

A patient with severe systemic disease

BMI > 40, severe functional limitation from poorly-controlled disease.

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8
Q

What is the definition of ASA Class IV?

A

A patient with severe disease that is a constant threat to life

Currently failing organs (heart, lungs, kidneys) but doesn’t need this surgery to survive.

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9
Q

What does ASA Class V refer to?

A

A moribund patient who would not survive without surgery

This class indicates critical condition requiring immediate intervention.

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10
Q

What is the definition of ASA Class VI?

A

A brain-dead patient who is an organ donor

This classification is used for patients who have lost all brain function.

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11
Q

Fill in the blank: ASA Class I is for a _______.

A

normal healthy patient

This class represents the lowest surgical risk.

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12
Q

True or False: ASA Class IV patients require surgery to survive.

A

False

ASA Class IV patients do not need the surgery to survive.

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13
Q

common risks of anaesthesia

A

sore throat
drowsiness
headache
nausea and vomiting

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14
Q

rare risks of anaesthesia

A

dental injury
emergence delirium
aspiration pneumonia
awareness

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15
Q

life threatening risks of anaesthesia

A

anaphylaxis
death

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16
Q

how long do patients have to fast

A

eight hours for solids and two hours for clear fluids

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17
Q

triad of anaesthesia

A

amnesia, analgesia and muscle relaxation

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18
Q

pre oxygenation

A

After induction, patients will have a period of apnoea. To extend the safe apnoeic time, we pre-oxygenate patients with 100% O2 to replace the nitrogen-rich air in their lungs.

Once apnoeic, that extra oxygen continues to diffuse across the alveolar membrane and maintains oxygenation for about four times longer than normal air.

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19
Q

A patient is sufficiently pre-oxygenated when

A

the expired concentration of oxygen is greater than 80% (i.e. FetO2 ≥ 0.8).

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20
Q

What is the purpose of paralysis in intubation?

A

To facilitate intubation and to avoid awareness during surgery

Awareness refers to the experience of being awake but unable to move or breathe.

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21
Q

When should paralysis occur in relation to anesthesia?

A

After patients have fallen asleep

This timing is crucial to prevent awareness.

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22
Q

What is the onset time for Rocuronium?

A

90 s

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23
Q

What is the duration of action for Vecuronium?

24
Q

What is the onset time for Suxamethonium?

25
Q

What is the duration of action for Cisatracurium?

26
Q

True or False: Vecuronium has a longer onset time than Rocuronium.

27
Q

What is the onset time for Vecuronium?

28
Q

List the four muscle relaxants routinely used in Australia.

A
  • Suxamethonium
  • Rocuronium
  • Vecuronium
  • Cisatracurium
29
Q

How is bronchospasm managed during anaesthesia?

A

Inhaled bronchodilators

Inhaled bronchodilators are used similarly to how they are used in awake patients.

30
Q

Name three inhaled bronchodilators used to manage bronchospasm.

A
  • Salbutamol
  • Terbutaline
  • Ipratropium

These medications help to relax and open the airways.

31
Q

What should be done if inhaled therapy for bronchospasm is not effective?

A

Switch to IV therapy

IV therapy is indicated when inhaled medications do not relieve bronchospasm.

32
Q

Name two intravenous therapies that can be used for bronchospasm management.

A
  • Aminophylline
  • MgSO4
  • Ketamine

These medications can be administered intravenously if inhaled therapies fail.

33
Q

True or False: Wheeze should be treated without considering its trigger.

A

False

It is important to identify the trigger of wheeze before treatment.

34
Q

What are common triggers of bronchospasm during anaesthesia?

A
  • Volatile agents
  • Anaphylaxis
  • Asthma
  • Respiratory infections

These factors can provoke bronchospasm, especially in sensitive individuals.

35
Q

Fill in the blank: Kids with _______ infections are known to bronchospasm with minimal provocation.

A

respiratory

This highlights the sensitivity of children to bronchospasm when they have respiratory infections.

36
Q

what causes hypotension and bradycardia?

A

Hypotension with bradycardia is usually related to an oversized discharge of acetylcholine from the parasympathetic nervous system.

37
Q

Which types of surgery are especially likely to trigger acetylcholine discharge?

A

Surgery of the abdomen and cervix are especially likely to trigger such a discharge.

38
Q

What is the solution for hypotension with bradycardia?

A

The solution is to give atropine or glycopyrrolate.

39
Q

What do atropine and glycopyrrolate do?

A

They antagonise the muscarinic acetylcholine receptor.

40
Q

Fill in the blank: Hypotension with bradycardia is usually related to an oversized discharge of _______ from the parasympathetic nervous system.

A

acetylcholine

41
Q

True or False: Surgery of the abdomen and cervix can trigger bradycardia.

42
Q

name three volatile agents

A

sevoflurane
desflurane
nitrous oxide

43
Q

What does MAC stand for?

A

Minimum alveolar concentration

MAC is pronounced “mack” and refers to the concentration of anaesthetic agent needed to produce immobility in 50% of subjects.

44
Q

What is the definition of MAC?

A

The end-tidal concentration of anaesthetic agent (in %) that produces immobility in 50% of healthy middle-aged men when a one centimetre incision is made in their forearm.

45
Q

What does a higher MAC indicate about an anaesthetic agent’s potency?

A

Less potent anaesthetic

More is needed for the same effect.

46
Q

What does a lower MAC indicate about an anaesthetic agent’s potency?

A

More potent anaesthetic

Less is needed for the same effect.

47
Q

What is the MAC of Sevoflurane?

48
Q

What is the MAC of Desflurane?

49
Q

What is the MAC of Nitrous oxide?

A

105%

Indicates that a very high concentration is required for immobility.

50
Q

What does MAC technically represent?

A

Blunting of the spinal cord reflexes

It does not indicate a lack of awareness.

51
Q

At what percentage of an agent’s MAC is awareness virtually unheard-of?

A

More than 70%

52
Q

If you run half a MAC of nitrous oxide and half a MAC of sevoflurane, what will be the result?

A

Achieve the same depth of anaesthesia as the full MAC of either agent.

53
Q

What is total intravenous anaesthesia commonly abbreviated as?

54
Q

What type of infusion is primarily used in TIVA?

A

Propofol target-controlled infusion (TCI)

55
Q

List three pros of using propofol in TIVA.

A
  • Anti-emetic effects
  • Smoother emergence
  • No direct greenhouse gas emissions
56
Q

List two cons of TIVA.

A
  • Patient wakes up (paralysed) if the cannula breaks
  • No way to measure blood concentration
57
Q

What is a significant environmental benefit of TIVA?

A

Less occupational exposure to fluranes