G4 – AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES [5 Exam Questions – 5 groups] Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of the “notch filter” found on many HF transceivers?

A. To restrict the transmitter voice bandwidth
B. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband
C. To eliminate receiver interference from impulse noise sources
D. To enhance the reception of a specific frequency on a crowded band

A

G4A01 (B)

B. To reduce interference from carriers in the receiver passband

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2
Q

What is one advantage of selecting the opposite, or “reverse,” sideband when receiving CW signals on a typical HF transceiver?

A. Interference from impulse noise will be eliminated
B. More stations can be accommodated within a given signal passband
C. It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals
D. Accidental out-of-band operation can be prevented

A

G4A02 (C)

C. It may be possible to reduce or eliminate interference from other signals

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3
Q

What is normally meant by operating a transceiver in “split” mode?

A. The radio is operating at half power
B. The transceiver is operating from an external power source
C. The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies
D. The transmitter is emitting an SSB signal, as opposed to DSB operation

A

G4A03 (C)

C. The transceiver is set to different transmit and receive frequencies

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4
Q

What reading on the plate current meter of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier indicates correct adjustment of the plate tuning control?

A. A pronounced peak
B. A pronounced dip
C. No change will be observed
D. A slow, rhythmic oscillation

A

G4A04 (B)

B. A pronounced dip

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5
Q

What is a reason to use Automatic Level Control (ALC) with an RF power amplifier?

A. To balance the transmitter audio frequency response
B. To reduce harmonic radiation
C. To reduce distortion due to excessive drive
D. To increase overall efficiency

A

G4A05 (C)

C. To reduce distortion due to excessive drive

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6
Q

What type of device is often used to match transmitter output impedance to an impedance not equal to 50 ohms?

A. Balanced modulator
B. SWR bridge
C. Antenna coupler or antenna tuner
D. Q multiplier

A

G4A06 (C)

C. Antenna coupler or antenna tuner

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7
Q

What condition can lead to permanent damage to a solid-state RF power amplifier?

A. Insufficient drive power
B. Low input SWR
C. Shorting the input signal to ground
D. Excessive drive power

A

G4A07 (D)

D. Excessive drive power

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8
Q

What is the correct adjustment for the load or coupling control of a vacuum tube RF power amplifier?

A. Minimum SWR on the antenna
B. Minimum plate current without exceeding maximum allowable grid current
C. Highest plate voltage while minimizing grid current
D. Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

A

G4A08 (D)

D. Maximum power output without exceeding maximum allowable plate current

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9
Q

Why is a time delay sometimes included in a transmitter keying circuit?

A. To prevent stations from interfering with one another
B. To allow the transmitter power regulators to charge properly
C. To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed
D. To allow time for a warning signal to be sent to other stations

A

G4A09 (C)

C. To allow time for transmit-receive changeover operations to complete properly before RF output is allowed

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10
Q

What is the purpose of an electronic keyer?

A. Automatic transmit/receive switching
B. Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation
C. VOX operation
D. Computer interface for PSK and RTTY operation

A

G4A10 (B)

B. Automatic generation of strings of dots and dashes for CW operation

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11
Q

Which of the following is a use for the IF shift control on a receiver?

A. To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency
B. To change frequency rapidly
C. To permit listening on a different frequency from that on which you are transmitting
D. To tune in stations that are slightly off frequency without changing your transmit frequency

A

G4A11 (A)

A. To avoid interference from stations very close to the receive frequency

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12
Q

Which of the following is a common use for the dual-VFO feature on a transceiver?

A. To allow transmitting on two frequencies at once
B. To permit full duplex operation — that is, transmitting and receiving at the same time
C. To permit monitoring of two different frequencies
D. To facilitate computer interface

A

G4A12 (C)

C. To permit monitoring of two different frequencies

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13
Q

What is one reason to use the attenuator function that is present on many HF transceivers?

A. To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signals
B. To reduce the transmitter power when driving a linear amplifier
C. To reduce power consumption when operating from batteries
D. To slow down received CW signals for better copy

A

G4A13 (A)

A. To reduce signal overload due to strong incoming signals

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14
Q

What is likely to happen if a transceiver’s ALC system is not set properly when transmitting AFSK signals with the radio using single sideband mode?

A. ALC will invert the modulation of the AFSK mode
B. Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions
C. When using digital modes, too much ALC activity can cause the transmitter to overheat
D. All these choices are correct

A

G4A14 (B)

B. Improper action of ALC distorts the signal and can cause spurious emissions

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15
Q

Which of the following can be a symptom of transmitted RF being picked up by an audio cable carrying AFSK data signals between a computer and a transceiver?

A. The VOX circuit does not un-key the transmitter
B. The transmitter signal is distorted
C. Frequent connection timeouts
D. All these choices are correct

A

G4A15 (D)

D. All these choices are correct

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16
Q

How does a noise blanker work?

A. By temporarily increasing received bandwidth
B. By redirecting noise pulses into a filter capacitor
C. By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse
D. By clipping noise peaks

A

G4A16 (C)

C. By reducing receiver gain during a noise pulse

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17
Q

What happens as the noise reduction control level in a receiver is increased?

A. Received signals may become distorted
B. Received frequency may become unstable
C. CW signals may become severely attenuated
D. Received frequency may shift several kHz

A

G4A17 (A)

A. Received signals may become distorted

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18
Q

What item of test equipment contains horizontal and vertical channel amplifiers?

A. An ohmmeter
B. A signal generator
C. An ammeter
D. An oscilloscope

A

G4B01 (D)

D. An oscilloscope

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19
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of an oscilloscope versus a digital voltmeter?

A. An oscilloscope uses less power
B. Complex impedances can be easily measured
C. Input impedance is much lower
D. Complex waveforms can be measured

A

G4B02 (D)

D. Complex waveforms can be measured

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20
Q

Which of the following is the best instrument to use when checking the keying waveform of a CW transmitter?

A. An oscilloscope
B. A field strength meter
C. A sidetone monitor
D. A wavemeter

A

G4B03 (A)

A. An oscilloscope

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21
Q

What signal source is connected to the vertical input of an oscilloscope when checking the RF envelope pattern of a transmitted signal?

A. The local oscillator of the transmitter
B. An external RF oscillator
C. The transmitter balanced mixer output
D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

A

G4B04 (D)

D. The attenuated RF output of the transmitter

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22
Q

Why is high input impedance desirable for a voltmeter?

A. It improves the frequency response
B. It decreases battery consumption in the meter
C. It improves the resolution of the readings
D. It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

A

G4B05 (D)

D. It decreases the loading on circuits being measured

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23
Q

What is an advantage of a digital voltmeter as compared to an analog voltmeter?

A. Better for measuring computer circuits
B. Better for RF measurements
C. Better precision for most uses
D. Faster response

A

G4B06 (C)

C. Better precision for most uses

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24
Q

What signals are used to conduct a two-tone test?

A. Two audio signals of the same frequency shifted 90 degrees
B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals
C. Two swept frequency tones
D. Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude

A

G4B07 (B)

B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals

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25
Q

Which of the following instruments may be used to monitor relative RF output when making antenna and transmitter adjustments?

A. A field strength meter
B. An antenna noise bridge
C. A multimeter
D. A Q meter

A

G4B08 (A)

A. A field strength meter

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26
Q

Which of the following can be determined with a field strength meter?

A. The radiation resistance of an antenna
B. The radiation pattern of an antenna
C. The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter
D. The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter

A

G4B09 (B)

B. The radiation pattern of an antenna

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27
Q

Which of the following can be determined with a directional wattmeter?

A. Standing wave ratio
B. Antenna front-to-back ratio
C. RF interference
D. Radio wave propagation

A

G4B10 (A)

A. Standing wave ratio

28
Q

Which of the following must be connected to an antenna analyzer when it is being used for SWR measurements?

A. Receiver
B. Transmitter
C. Antenna and feed line
D. All these choices are correct

A

G4B11 (C)

C. Antenna and feed line

29
Q

What problem can occur when making measurements on an antenna system with an antenna analyzer?

A. Permanent damage to the analyzer may occur if it is operated into a high SWR
B. Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements
C. The analyzer can be damaged if measurements outside the ham bands are attempted
D. Connecting the analyzer to an antenna can cause it to absorb harmonics

A

G4B12 (B)

B. Strong signals from nearby transmitters can affect the accuracy of measurements

30
Q

What is a use for an antenna analyzer other than measuring the SWR of an antenna system?

A. Measuring the front-to-back ratio of an antenna
B. Measuring the turns ratio of a power transformer
C. Determining the impedance of coaxial cable
D. Determining the gain of a directional antenna

A

G4B13 (C)

C. Determining the impedance of coaxial cable

31
Q

What is an instance in which the use of an instrument with analog readout may be preferred over an instrument with a digital readout?

A. When testing logic circuits
B. When high precision is desired
C. When measuring the frequency of an oscillator
D. When adjusting tuned circuits

A

G4B14 (D)

D. When adjusting tuned circuits

32
Q

What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze?

A. Linearity
B. Percentage of suppression of carrier and undesired sideband for SSB
C. Percentage of frequency modulation
D. Percentage of carrier phase shift

A

G4B15 (A)

A. Linearity

33
Q

Which of the following might be useful in reducing RF interference to audio frequency devices?

A. Bypass inductor
B. Bypass capacitor
C. Forward-biased diode
D. Reverse-biased diode

A

G4C01 (B)

B. Bypass capacitor

34
Q

Which of the following could be a cause of interference covering a wide range of frequencies?

A. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas
B. Lack of rectification of the transmitter’s signal in power conductors
C. Arcing at a poor electrical connection
D. Using a balun to feed an unbalanced antenna

A

G4C02 (C)

C. Arcing at a poor electrical connection

35
Q

What sound is heard from an audio device or telephone if there is interference from a nearby single sideband phone transmitter?

A. A steady hum whenever the transmitter is on the air
B. On-and-off humming or clicking
C. Distorted speech
D. Clearly audible speech

A

G4C03 (C)

C. Distorted speech

36
Q

What is the effect on an audio device when there is interference from a nearby CW transmitter?

A. On-and-off humming or clicking
B. A CW signal at a nearly pure audio frequency
C. A chirpy CW signal
D. Severely distorted audio

A

G4C04 (A)

A. On-and-off humming or clicking

37
Q

What might be the problem if you receive an RF burn when touching your equipment while transmitting on an HF band, assuming the equipment is connected to a ground rod?

A. Flat braid rather than round wire has been used for the ground wire
B. Insulated wire has been used for the ground wire
C. The ground rod is resonant
D. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

A

G4C05 (D)

D. The ground wire has high impedance on that frequency

38
Q

What effect can be caused by a resonant ground connection?

A. Overheating of ground straps
B. Corrosion of the ground rod
C. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment
D. A ground loop

A

G4C06 (C)

C. High RF voltages on the enclosures of station equipment

39
Q

Why should soldered joints not be used with the wires that connect the base of a tower to a system of ground rods?

A. The resistance of solder is too high
B. Solder flux will prevent a low conductivity connection
C. Solder has too high a dielectric constant to provide adequate lightning protection
D. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike

A

G4C07 (D)

D. A soldered joint will likely be destroyed by the heat of a lightning strike

40
Q

Which of the following would reduce RF interference caused by common-mode current on an audio cable?

A. Placing a ferrite choke around the cable
B. Adding series capacitors to the conductors
C. Adding shunt inductors to the conductors
D. Adding an additional insulating jacket to the cable

A

G4C08 (A)

A. Placing a ferrite choke around the cable

41
Q

How can a ground loop be avoided?

A. Connect all ground conductors in series
B. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire
C. Avoid using lock washers and star washers when making ground connections
D. Connect all ground conductors to a single point

A

G4C09 (D)

D. Connect all ground conductors to a single point

42
Q

What could be a symptom of a ground loop somewhere in your station?

A. You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal
B. The SWR reading for one or more antennas is suddenly very high
C. An item of station equipment starts to draw excessive amounts of current
D. You receive reports of harmonic interference from your station

A

G4C10 (A)

A. You receive reports of “hum” on your station’s transmitted signal

43
Q

What technique helps to minimize RF “hot spots” in an amateur station?

A. Building all equipment in a metal enclosure
B. Using surge suppressor power outlets
C. Bonding all equipment enclosures together
D. Low-pass filters on all feed lines

A

G4C11 (C)

C. Bonding all equipment enclosures together

44
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of a receiver DSP IF filter as compared to an analog filter?

A. A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created
B. Fewer digital components are required
C. Mixing products are greatly reduced
D. The DSP filter is much more effective at VHF frequencies

A

G4C12 (A)

A. A wide range of filter bandwidths and shapes can be created

45
Q

Why must the metal enclosure of every item of station equipment be grounded?

A. It prevents a blown fuse in the event of an internal short circuit
B. It prevents signal overload
C. It ensures that the neutral wire is grounded
D. It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis

A

G4C13 (D)

D. It ensures that hazardous voltages cannot appear on the chassis

46
Q

What is the purpose of a speech processor as used in a modern transceiver?

A. Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions
B. Increase transmitter bass response for more natural-sounding SSB signals
C. Prevent distortion of voice signals
D. Decrease high-frequency voice output to prevent out-of-band operation

A

G4D01 (A)

A. Increase the intelligibility of transmitted phone signals during poor conditions

47
Q

Which of the following describes how a speech processor affects a transmitted single sideband phone signal?

A. It increases peak power
B. It increases average power
C. It reduces harmonic distortion
D. It reduces intermodulation distortion

A

G4D02 (B)

B. It increases average power

48
Q

Which of the following can be the result of an incorrectly adjusted speech processor?

A. Distorted speech
B. Splatter
C. Excessive background pickup
D. All these choices are correct

A

G4D03 (D)

D. All these choices are correct

49
Q

What does an S meter measure?

A. Conductance
B. Impedance
C. Received signal strength
D. Transmitter power output

A

G4D04 (C)

C. Received signal strength

50
Q

How does a signal that reads 20 dB over S9 compare to one that reads S9 on a receiver, assuming a properly calibrated S meter?

A. It is 10 times less powerful
B. It is 20 times less powerful
C. It is 20 times more powerful
D. It is 100 times more powerful

A

G4D05 (D)

D. It is 100 times more powerful

51
Q

Where is an S meter found?

A. In a receiver
B. In an SWR bridge
C. In a transmitter
D. In a conductance bridge

A

G4D06 (A)

A. In a receiver

52
Q

How much must the power output of a transmitter be raised to change the S meter reading on a distant receiver from S8 to S9?

A. Approximately 1.5 times
B. Approximately 2 times
C. Approximately 4 times
D. Approximately 8 times

A

G4D07 (C)

C. Approximately 4 times

53
Q

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz LSB signal when the displayed carrier frequency is set to 7.178 MHz?

A. 7.178 to 7.181 MHz
B. 7.178 to 7.184 MHz
C. 7.175 to 7.178 MHz
D. 7.1765 to 7.1795 MHz

A

G4D08 (C)

C. 7.175 to 7.178 MHz

54
Q

What frequency range is occupied by a 3 kHz USB signal with the displayed carrier frequency set to 14.347 MHz?

A. 14.347 to 14.647 MHz
B. 14.347 to 14.350 MHz
C. 14.344 to 14.347 MHz
D. 14.3455 to 14.3485 MHz

A

G4D09 (B)

B. 14.347 to 14.350 MHz

55
Q

How close to the lower edge of the phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide LSB?

A. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment
B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the segment
C. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment
D. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment

A

G4D10 (A)

A. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the segment

56
Q

How close to the upper edge of the phone segment should your displayed carrier frequency be when using 3 kHz wide USB?

A. At least 3 kHz above the edge of the band
B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band
C. At least 1 kHz above the edge of the segment
D. At least 1 kHz below the edge of the segment

A

G4D11 (B)

B. At least 3 kHz below the edge of the band

57
Q

What is the purpose of a capacitance hat on a mobile antenna?

A. To increase the power handling capacity of a whip antenna
B. To allow automatic band changing
C. To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna
D. To allow remote tuning

A

G4E01 (C)

C. To electrically lengthen a physically short antenna

58
Q

What is the purpose of a corona ball on an HF mobile antenna?

A. To narrow the operating bandwidth of the antenna
B. To increase the “Q” of the antenna
C. To reduce the chance of damage if the antenna should strike an object
D. To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting

A

G4E02 (D)

D. To reduce RF voltage discharge from the tip of the antenna while transmitting

59
Q

Which of the following direct, fused power connections would be the best for a 100 watt HF mobile installation?

A. To the battery using heavy-gauge wire
B. To the alternator or generator using heavy-gauge wire
C. To the battery using resistor wire
D. To the alternator or generator using resistor wire

A

G4E03 (A)

A. To the battery using heavy-gauge wire

60
Q

Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100 watt HF transceiver from a vehicle’s auxiliary power socket?

A. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable
B. The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver
C. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF transceivers
D. Drawing more than 50 watts from this socket could cause the engine to overheat

A

G4E04 (B)

B. The socket’s wiring may be inadequate for the current drawn by the transceiver

61
Q

Which of the following most limits an HF mobile installation?

A. “Picket fencing”
B. The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver
C. Efficiency of the electrically short antenna
D. FCC rules limiting mobile output power on the 75-meter band

A

G4E05 (C)

C. Efficiency of the electrically short antenna

62
Q

What is one disadvantage of using a shortened mobile antenna as opposed to a full-size antenna?

A. Short antennas are more likely to cause distortion of transmitted signals
B. Short antennas can only receive circularly polarized signals
C. Operating bandwidth may be very limited
D. Harmonic radiation may increase

A

G4E06 (C)

C. Operating bandwidth may be very limited

63
Q

Which of the following may cause receive interference in a radio installed in a vehicle?

A. The battery charging system
B. The fuel delivery system
C. The vehicle control computer
D. All these choices are correct

A

G4E07 (D)

D. All these choices are correct

64
Q

What is the name of the process by which sunlight is changed directly into electricity?

A. Photovoltaic conversion
B. Photon emission
C. Photosynthesis
D. Photon decomposition

A

G4E08 (A)

A. Photovoltaic conversion

65
Q

What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a fully illuminated silicon photovoltaic cell?

A. 0.02 VDC
B. 0.5 VDC
C. 0.2 VDC
D. 1.38 VDC

A

G4E09 (B)

B. 0.5 VDC

66
Q

What is the reason that a series diode is connected between a solar panel and a storage battery that is being charged by the panel?

A. The diode serves to regulate the charging voltage to prevent overcharge
B. The diode prevents self-discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination
C. The diode limits the current flowing from the panel to a safe value
D. The diode greatly increases the efficiency during times of high illumination

A

G4E10 (B)

B. The diode prevents self-discharge of the battery though the panel during times of low or no illumination

67
Q

Which of the following is a disadvantage of using wind as the primary source of power for an emergency station?

A. The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is less than 2 percent
B. The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment
C. A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing
D. All these choices are correct

A

G4E11 (C)

C. A large energy storage system is needed to supply power when the wind is not blowing