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FCC General License Test Pool 2019-2023 > G2 - OPERATING PROCEDURES [5 Exam Questions – 5 Groups] > Flashcards

G2 - OPERATING PROCEDURES [5 Exam Questions – 5 Groups] Flashcards

1
Q

Which sideband is most commonly used for voice communications on frequencies of 14 MHz or higher?

A. Upper sideband
B. Lower sideband
C. Vestigial sideband
D. Double sideband

A

G2A01(A)

A. Upper sideband

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2
Q

Which of the following modes is most commonly used for voice communications on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

A. Upper sideband
B. Lower sideband
C. Vestigial sideband
D. Double sideband

A

G2A02 (B)

A. Upper sideband

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3
Q

Which of the following is most commonly used for SSB voice communications in the VHF and UHF bands?

A. Upper sideband
B. Lower sideband
C. Vestigial sideband
D. Double sideband

A

G2A03 (A)

A. Upper sideband

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4
Q

Which mode is most commonly used for voice communications on the 17-meter and 12-meter bands?

A. Upper sideband
B. Lower sideband
C. Vestigial sideband
D. Double sideband

A

G2A04 (A)

A. Upper sideband

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5
Q

Which mode of voice communication is most commonly used on the HF amateur bands?

A. Frequency modulation
B. Double sideband
C. Single sideband
D. Phase modulation

A

G2A05 (C)

C. Single sideband

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6
Q

Which of the following is an advantage when using single sideband, as compared to other analog voice modes on the HF amateur bands?

A. Very high fidelity voice modulation
B. Less subject to interference from atmospheric static crashes
C. Ease of tuning on receive and immunity to impulse noise
D. Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

A

G2A06 (D)

D. Less bandwidth used and greater power efficiency

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7
Q

Which of the following statements is true of the single sideband voice mode?

A. Only one sideband and the carrier are transmitted; the other sideband is suppressed
B. Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed
C. SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 20-meter, 15-meter, and 10-meter amateur bands
D. SSB is the only voice mode that is authorized on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter amateur bands

A

G2A07 (B)

B. Only one sideband is transmitted; the other sideband and carrier are suppressed

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8
Q

What is the recommended way to break in to a phone contact?

A. Say “QRZ” several times, followed by your call sign
B. Say your call sign once
C. Say “Breaker Breaker”
D. Say “CQ” followed by the call sign of either station

A

G2A08 (B)

B. Say your call sign once

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9
Q

Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-meter, 75-meter, and 40-meter bands?

A. Lower sideband is more efficient than upper sideband at these frequencies
B. Lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands
C. Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector
D. It is good amateur practice

A

G2A09 (D)

D. It is good amateur practice

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10
Q

Which of the following statements is true of voice VOX operation versus PTT operation?

A. The received signal is more natural sounding
B. It allows “hands free” operation
C. It occupies less bandwidth
D. It provides more power output

A

G2A10 (B)

B. It allows “hands free” operation

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11
Q

Generally, who should respond to a station in the contiguous 48 states who calls “CQ DX”?

A. Any caller is welcome to respond
B. Only stations in Germany
C. Any stations outside the lower 48 states
D. Only contest stations

A

G2A11 (C)

C. Any stations outside the lower 48 states

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12
Q

What control is typically adjusted for proper ALC setting on an amateur single sideband transceiver?

A. The RF clipping level
B. Transmit audio or microphone gain
C. Antenna inductance or capacitance
D. Attenuator level

A

G2A12 (B)

B. Transmit audio or microphone gain

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13
Q

Which of the following is true concerning access to frequencies in non-emergency situations?

A. Nets always have priority
B. QSOs in progress always have priority
C. Except during FCC-declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies
D. Contest operations must always yield to non-contest use of frequencies

A

G2B01 (C)

C. Except during FCC-declared emergencies, no one has priority access to frequencies

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14
Q

What is the first thing you should do if you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in distress break in?

A. Continue your communication because you were on the frequency first
B. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed
C. Change to a different frequency
D. Immediately cease all transmissions

A

G2B02 (B)

B. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine what assistance may be needed

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15
Q

What is good amateur practice if propagation changes during a contact and you notice interference from other stations on the frequency?

A. Tell the interfering stations to change frequency
B. Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator
C. Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner
D. Increase power to overcome interference

A

G2B03 (C)

C. Attempt to resolve the interference problem with the other stations in a mutually acceptable manner

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16
Q

When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

A. 5 to 50 Hz
B. 150 to 500 Hz
C. 1 to 3 kHz
D. 3 to 6 kHz

A

G2B04 (B)

B. 150 to 500 Hz

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17
Q

When selecting an SSB transmitting frequency, what minimum separation should be used to minimize interference to stations on adjacent frequencies?

A. 5 to 50 Hz
B. 150 to 500 Hz
C. Approximately 3 kHz
D. Approximately 6 kHz

A

G2B05 (C)

C. Approximately 3 kHz

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18
Q

What is a practical way to avoid harmful interference on an apparently clear frequency before calling CQ on CW or phone?

A. Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign
B. Listen for 2 minutes before calling CQ
C. Send the letter “V” in Morse code several times and listen for a response, or say “test” several times and listen for a response
D. Send “QSY” on CW or if using phone, announce “the frequency is in use,” then give your call sign and listen for a response

A

G2B06 (A)

A. Send “QRL?” on CW, followed by your call sign; or, if using phone, ask if the frequency is in use, followed by your call sign

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19
Q

Which of the following complies with good amateur practice when choosing a frequency on which to initiate a call?

A. Check to see if the channel is assigned to another station
B. Identify your station by transmitting your call sign at least 3 times
C. Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use
D. All these choices are correct

A

G2B07 (C)

C. Follow the voluntary band plan for the operating mode you intend to use

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20
Q

What is the voluntary band plan restriction for U.S. station transmitting within the 48 contiguous states in the 50.1 to 50.125 MHz band segment?

A. Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states
B. Only contacts with other stations within the 48 contiguous states
C. Only digital contacts
D. Only SSTV contacts

A

G2B08 (A)

A. Only contacts with stations not within the 48 contiguous states

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21
Q

Who may be the control operator of an amateur station transmitting in RACES to assist relief operations during a disaster?

A. Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license
B. Only a RACES net control operator
C. A person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license or an appropriate government official
D. Any control operator when normal communication systems are operational

A

G2B09 (A) [97.407(a)]

A. Only a person holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license

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22
Q

When is an amateur station allowed to use any means at its disposal to assist another station in distress?

A. Only when transmitting in RACES
B. At any time when transmitting in an organized net
C. At any time during an actual emergency
D. Only on authorized HF frequencies

A

G2B10 (C) [97.405(b)]

C. At any time during an actual emergency

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23
Q

What frequency should be used to send a distress call?

A. Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message
B. Only frequencies authorized for RACES or ARES stations
C. Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges
D. Only frequencies used by police, fire, or emergency medical services

A

G2B11 (A) [97.405]

A. Whichever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress message

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24
Q

Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)?

A. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign “BK”
B. Automatic keyers, instead of hand keys, are used to send Morse code
C. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after every transmission
D. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

A

G2C01 (D)

D. Transmitting stations can receive between code characters and elements

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25
Q

What should you do if a CW station sends “QRS?”

A. Send slower
B. Change frequency
C. Increase your power
D. Repeat everything twice

A

G2C02 (A)

26
Q

What does it mean when a CW operator sends “KN” at the end of a transmission?

A. Listening for novice stations
B. Operating full break-in
C. Listening only for a specific station or stations
D. Closing station now

A

G2C03 (C)

A. Listening for novice stations
B. Operating full break-in
C. Listening only for a specific station or stations

27
Q

What does the Q signal “QRL?” mean?
A. “Will you keep the frequency clear?”
B. “Are you operating full break-in” or “Can you operate full break-in?”
C. “Are you listening only for a specific station?”
D. “Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”

A

G2C04 (D)

D. “Are you busy?” or “Is this frequency in use?”

28
Q

What is the best speed to use when answering a CQ in Morse code?

A. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no slower than the CQ
B. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ
C. At the standard calling speed of 10 wpm
D. At the standard calling speed of 5 wpm

A

G2C05 (B)

B. The fastest speed at which you are comfortable copying, but no faster than the CQ

29
Q

What does the term “zero beat” mean in CW operation?

A. Matching the speed of the transmitting station
B. Operating split to avoid interference on frequency
C. Sending without error
D. Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

A

G2C06 (D)

D. Matching the transmit frequency to the frequency of a received signal

30
Q

When sending CW, what does a “C” mean when added to the RST report?

A. Chirpy or unstable signal
B. Report was read from an S meter rather than estimated
C. 100 percent copy
D. Key clicks

A

G2C07 (A)

A. Chirpy or unstable signal

31
Q

What prosign is sent to indicate the end of a formal message when using CW?

A. SK
B. BK
C. AR
D. KN

A

G2C08 (C)

C. AR

32
Q

What does the Q signal “QSL” mean?

A. Send slower
B. We have already confirmed by card
C. I acknowledge receipt
D. We have worked before

A

G2C09 (C)

C. I acknowledge receipt

33
Q

What does the Q signal “QRN” mean?

A. Send more slowly
B. Stop sending
C. Zero beat my signal
D. I am troubled by static

A

G2C10 (D)

34
Q

What does the Q signal “QRV” mean?

A. You are sending too fast
B. There is interference on the frequency
C. I am quitting for the day
D. I am ready to receive messages

A

G2C11 (D)

D. I am ready to receive messages

35
Q

What is the Volunteer Monitoring Program?

A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations
B. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations
C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF repeaters
D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense organizations in times of emergency

A

G2D01 (A)

A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for rules violations

36
Q

Which of the following are objectives of the Volunteer Monitoring Program?

A. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations
B. To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules
C. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage
D. To provide emergency and public safety communications

A

G2D02 (B)

B. To encourage amateur radio operators to self-regulate and comply with the rules

37
Q

What skills learned during hidden transmitter hunts are of help to the Volunteer Monitoring Program?

A. Identification of out-of-band operation
B. Direction finding used to locate stations violating FCC rules
C. Identification of different call signs
D. Hunters have an opportunity to transmit on non-amateur frequencies

A

G2D03 (B)

38
Q

Which of the following describes an azimuthal projection map?

A. A map that shows accurate land masses
B. A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location
C. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the equator
D. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit

A

G2D04 (B)

B. A map that shows true bearings and distances from a particular location

39
Q

Which of the following is a good way to indicate on a clear frequency in the HF phone bands that you are looking for a contact with any station?

A. Sign your call sign once, followed by the words “listening for a call” – if no answer, change frequency and repeat
B. Say “QTC” followed by “this is” and your call sign – if no answer, change frequency and repeat
C. Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary
D. Transmit an unmodulated carried for approximately 10 seconds, followed by “this is” and your call sign, and pause to listen – repeat as necessary

A

G2D05 (C)

C. Repeat “CQ” a few times, followed by “this is,” then your call sign a few times, then pause to listen, repeat as necessary

40
Q

How is a directional antenna pointed when making a “long-path” contact with another station?

A. Toward the rising sun
B. Along the grayline
C. 180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading
D. Toward the north

A

G2D06 (C)

C. 180 degrees from the station’s short-path heading

41
Q

Which of the following are examples of the NATO Phonetic Alphabet?

A. Able, Baker, Charlie, Dog
B. Adam, Boy, Charles, David
C. America, Boston, Canada, Denmark
D. Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta

A

G2D07 (D)

D. Alpha, Bravo, Charlie, Delta

42
Q

What is a reason why many amateurs keep a station log?

A. The ITU requires a log of all international contacts
B. The ITU requires a log of all international third-party traffic
C. The log provides evidence of operation needed to renew a license without retest
D. To help with a reply if the FCC requests information

A

G2D08 (D)

D. To help with a reply if the FCC requests information

43
Q

Which of the following is required when participating in a contest on HF frequencies?

A. Submit a log to the contest sponsor
B. Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World
C. Identify your station per normal FCC regulations
D. All these choices are correct

A

G2D09 (C)

B. Send a QSL card to the stations worked, or QSL via Logbook of The World

44
Q

What is QRP operation?

A. Remote piloted model control
B. Low-power transmit operation
C. Transmission using Quick Response Protocol
D. Traffic relay procedure net operation

A

G2D10 (B)

B. Low-power transmit operation

45
Q

Which of the following is typical of the lower HF frequencies during the summer?

A. Poor propagation at any time of day
B. World-wide propagation during the daylight hours
C. Heavy distortion on signals due to photon absorption
D. High levels of atmospheric noise or “static”

A

G2D11 (D)

D. High levels of atmospheric noise or “static”

46
Q

Which mode is normally used when sending RTTY signals via AFSK with an SSB transmitter?

A. USB
B. DSB
C. CW
D. LSB

A

G2E01 (D)

D. LSB

47
Q

How can a PACTOR modem or controller be used to determine if the channel is in use by other PACTOR stations?

A. Unplug the data connector temporarily and see if the channel-busy indication is turned off
B. Put the modem or controller in a mode which allows monitoring communications without a connection
C. Transmit UI packets several times and wait to see if there is a response from another PACTOR station
D. Send the message, ”Is this frequency in use?”

A

G2E02 (B)

B. Put the modem or controller in a mode which allows monitoring communications without a connection

48
Q

What symptoms may result from other signals interfering with a PACTOR or WINMOR transmission?

A. Frequent retries or timeouts
B. Long pauses in message transmission
C. Failure to establish a connection between stations
D. All these choices are correct

A

G2E03 (D)

D. All these choices are correct

49
Q

What segment of the 20-meter band is most often used for digital transmissions (avoiding the DX propagation beacons)?

A. 14.000 - 14.050 MHz
B. 14.070 - 14.112 MHz
C. 14.150 - 14.225 MHz
D. 14.275 - 14.350 MHz

A

G2E04 (B)

B. 14.070 - 14.112 MHz

50
Q

What is the standard sideband used to generate a JT65, JT9, or FT8 digital signal when using AFSK in any amateur band?

A. LSB
B. USB
C. DSB
D. SSB

A

G2E05 (B)

B. USB

51
Q

What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF bands?

A. 85 Hz
B. 170 Hz
C. 425 Hz
D. 850 Hz

A

G2E06 (B)

B. 170 Hz

52
Q

What segment of the 80-meter band is most commonly used for digital transmissions?

A. 3570 – 3600 kHz
B. 3500 – 3525 kHz
C. 3700 – 3750 kHz
D. 3775 – 3825 kHz

A

G2E07 (A)

A. 3570 – 3600 kHz

53
Q

In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations commonly found?

A. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz
B. At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz
C. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz
D. Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz

A

G2E08 (D)

D. Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz

54
Q

How do you join a contact between two stations using the PACTOR protocol?

A. Send broadcast packets containing your call sign while in MONITOR mode
B. Transmit a steady carrier until the PACTOR protocol times out and disconnects
C. Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations
D. Send a NAK response continuously so that the sending station must stand by

A

G2E09 (C)

C. Joining an existing contact is not possible, PACTOR connections are limited to two stations

55
Q

Which of the following is a way to establish contact with a digital messaging system gateway station?

A. Send an email to the system control operator
B. Send QRL in Morse code
C. Respond when the station broadcasts its SSID
D. Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency

A

G2E10 (D)

D. Transmit a connect message on the station’s published frequency

56
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of the FT8 mode of the WSJT-X family?

A. It is a keyboard-to-keyboard chat mode
B. Each transmission takes exactly 60 seconds
C. It is limited to use on VHF
D. Typical exchanges are limited to call signs, grid locators, and signal reports

A

G2E11 (D)

D. Typical exchanges are limited to call signs, grid locators, and signal reports

57
Q

Which of the following connectors would be a good choice for a serial data port?

A. PL-259
B. Type N
C. Type SMA
D. DE-9

A

G2E12 (D)

D. DE-9

58
Q

Which communication system sometimes uses the internet to transfer messages?

A. Winlink
B. RTTY
C. ARES
D. SKYWARN

A

G2E13 (A)

A. Winlink

59
Q

What could be wrong if you cannot decode an RTTY or other FSK signal even though it is apparently tuned in properly?

A. The mark and space frequencies may be reversed
B. You may have selected the wrong baud rate
C. You may be listening on the wrong sideband
D. All these choices are correct

A

G2E14 (D)

D. All these choices are correct

60
Q

Which of the following is a requirement when using the FT8 digital mode?

A. A special hardware modem
B. Computer time accurate within approximately 1 second
C. Receiver attenuator set to -12 dB
D. A vertically polarized antenna

A

G2E15 (B)

B. Computer time accurate within approximately 1 second

FCC General License Test Pool 2019-2023 (10 decks)

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