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Aviation > G280 Memory Flash Cards Revision 1.9 > Flashcards

G280 Memory Flash Cards Revision 1.9

1
Q

What type of main batteries are installed in the G280?

A

LEAD ACID

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2
Q

WEIGHT LIMITS:

MAX ZERO FUEL
MAX RAMP
MAX TAKEOFF
MAX LANDING

A

MAX ZERO FUEL = 28,200 lbs
MAX RAMP = 39,750 lbs
MAX TAKEOFF = 39,600 lbs
MAX LANDING = 32,700 lbs

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3
Q

When is a runway considered to be wet?

A

Wet Runway - runway is wet with no significant water (less than 3mm)

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4
Q

What is the location of the smoke detector?

A

Aft bulkhead in the baggage compartment.

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5
Q

What is the maximum permitted cabin pressure differential in flight?

A

9.2 PSI

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6
Q

Internal baggage door limitations?

A

Internal Baggage door must be closed during taxi, takeoff and landing. In flight, access to the baggage compartment above 40,000 ft (44,000 if MOD G25-10066 incorporated) is prohibited except by flight crew members for emergency purposes only.

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7
Q

What is the significance of the takeoff trim setting?

A

It is for V2 (takeoff safety speed): it minimizes control forces for an engine failure on takeoff.

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8
Q

What is the total fuel capacity?

A

14,620 lbs (6,632 kg)

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9
Q

How long can we fly with the Standby Battery?

A

60 Minutes if one of the SMCs is depowered.

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10
Q

What does the Standby Battery power?

A

The Standby Battery provides power to the Standby Bus. The Standby bus provides power to the Flight Control Panel, SMCs, Standby Flight Instrument and Magnetometer.

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11
Q

What does the acronym DSP stand for?

A

Display Select Panel

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12
Q

Speed Limitations:
Maneuvering Speeds (VA)

A

S.L. to 20,000 ft = 215-225 KIAS
20,000 ft to 35,000 ft = 225-264 KIAS
35,000 ft to 39,000 ft = 264 KIAS
35,000 ft to 45,000 ft = 0.85 Mi

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13
Q

Can the toilet be flushed on the ground without the Distribution Bus powered?

A

No

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14
Q

During an ECS Off takeoff with the APU air selected, when will the BLEED CONFIGURATION CAS caution message display?

A

1,500 ft AGL

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15
Q

What is the minimum radius for a 180° turn?

A

49.5 ft

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16
Q

What is the maximum tailwind and crosswind for takeoff?

A

25 Knots Demonstrated Crosswind

10 Knots Tailwind

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17
Q

What is the rating of the Main Engine Driven Generators?

A

28 VDC / 400 amps.

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18
Q

What do green wing anti-ice lines indicate on the Bleed / Anti-Ice synoptic page?

A

Normal temperature (130°F +/- 10°).

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19
Q

When is the APU GENERATOR available?

A

4 seconds after APU RPM exceeds 95%.

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20
Q

How are the fire handles normally locked in the stowed position?

A

By an electrical solenoid.

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21
Q

Landing Gear Extended/Operation Speed?
(VLE/MLE) (VLO/MLO)

A

195 KIAS.

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22
Q

What is the Terrain Awareness Warning System (TAWS) Limitation?

A

The terrain awareness display feature shall be selected OFF (TERRAIN INHIBIT switch-ON) when within 15 nm of landing at an airport when:

  1. The airport has no published instrument approach procedure.
  2. The longest runway is less than 3,500 ft in length.
  3. The airport is not in the database.
  4. QFE altimeter setting are used for approach and landing on subsequent takeoff without the availability of geometric altitude.
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23
Q

Maximum Tire Speed?

A

Maximum tire ground speed:
NOSE - 182 KTS
MAIN - 195 KTS

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24
Q

Will the APU shut down automatically upon detection of a fire?

A

Yes, the APU will automatically shut down if the APU Fire Detection circuit detects a fire or overheat condition.

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25
Q

[HYDRAULICS]
How many filters are in each system?

A

3 = Two pressure filters and one return filter (total of 6 filters).

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26
Q

What is the pressure on a fully serviced emergency landing gear extension bottle?

A

3,000 psi at 70° F/21° C; extension of landing gear.

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27
Q

Can the gear be retracted if the emergency gear extension handle was used?

A

No, once extended, the landing gear cannot be retracted.

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28
Q

If armed, when will the EMERGENCY lights come on?

A

When power to the Distribution Buses falls below 20V.

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29
Q

What temperature range is available in the AUTO Mode?

A

AUTO = 60°-90°F (15°-32°C).

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30
Q

What are the sources of DC POWER?

A

Aircraft Batteries
External DC Power
APU Generator
Engine Driven Generators.

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31
Q

Maximum Operating Speed (VMO/MMO)

A

Sea Level to 10,000 ft = 300 KCAS
10,000 ft to 20,000 ft = 300-330 KCAS
20,000 ft to 28,000 ft = 340 KCAS
28,000 ft to 45,000 ft = 0.85 Mi

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32
Q

What happens to the Cowl Anti-Ice Valve with loss of electrical power to hold it closed?

A

It spring loads open.

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33
Q

How many methods are there for maintaining fuel balance?

A
  1. XFLOW
  2. INTERCONNECT
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34
Q

Yaw damper inoperative;
Maximum Speed ________ /
Maximum Altitude _________?

A

Maximum Speed 250 KIAS /
Maximum Altitude 25,000 ft

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35
Q

Minimum Control Speed
(VMCA/VMCG)

A

Minimum Control Speed Air (VMCA) = 98 KIAS

Minimum Control Speed Landing (VMCL) = 98 KIAS

Minimum Control Speed Ground (VMCG) = 95 KIAS

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36
Q

When is the Ice Detected message inhibited?

A

On the ground by WOW logic.

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37
Q

What areas are protected from icing?

A

Wing Leading Edges
Engine Cowl Inlets
Windshields
Probe Sensors

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38
Q

Will the TAT-SAT probes receive heat while on the ground if the PROBES HEAT switch is in AUTO?

A

No, they are off on the ground.

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39
Q

What does the acronym PRAIM stand for?

A

Predictive Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring.

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40
Q

What is the PMA and what is its function?

A

The PMA (Permanent Magnet Alternator) is mounted on the accessory gear box. It provides power to the FADEC when N2 is greater than 45%.

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41
Q

The main aircraft batteries are rated as ____ Vdc and ____ Amp/Hour.

A

The main aircraft batteries are rated as 24Vdc and 38 Amp/Hour unless STC incorporated with 24Vdc and 53 Amp/ Hour batteries.

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42
Q

Speed Limitations:
Maximum Flap Speed
10° Flaps
20° Flaps
Land

A

Maximum Flap Extended Speed - VFE
10° Flaps = 250 KIAS
20° Flaps = 220 KIAS
LAND = 180 KIAS

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43
Q

SPEED LIMITATIONS:
What is the minimum holding speed in icing conditions?

A

185 KIAS.

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44
Q

Use of cowl anti-icing is required for taxi and takeoff when Static Air Temperature (SAT) is _________ or below and visible moisture, precipitation, or wet runway are present.

A

+10° C

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45
Q

MAXIMUM FUEL IMBALANCE:
- ON GROUND?
- INFLIGHT?

A

Takeoff = 450 lbs

In Flight, Approach and Landing = 900 lbs

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46
Q

What does the acronym RNP stand for?

A

Required Navigation Performance

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47
Q

What are the four subsystems of the Pneumatic System?

A
  • Wing Anti-Ice (WAI) System
  • Environmental Control System (ECS)
  • Temperature Control System (TCS)
  • Bleed Air System (BAS).
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48
Q

The APU can be started at or below what altitude?

A

The APU can be started up to 35,000 ft.

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49
Q

Maximum mach trim inoperative speed?

A

340 KIAS / 0.77 Mi

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50
Q

What would the indication be for a partially blocked HYD filter?

A

L-R HYD Filter MAINT

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51
Q

What is the max ALTITUDE operating limit for the APU?

A

FL400

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52
Q

What type of electrical system does the G280 have?

A

28 VDC

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53
Q

How many bearing pointers can be displayed on the HSI?

A

Two bearing pointers can be shown on the HSI.

Using VOR, ADF, or FMS sources.

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54
Q

What happens when the crossflow valve is opened?

A

With the use of a boost pump you can transfer fuel from one feed tank to another.

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55
Q

Maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing.

A

10 Knots

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56
Q

The tiller will turn the nose wheel how many degrees?

A

+/- 60 degrees left and right of center.

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57
Q

Where is cowl anti-ice exhausted overboard?

A

Underside of the engine nacelle.

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58
Q

Pulling the Engine Fire Handle will shut off what items on the associated side?

A

PULLED FIRE HANDLE SHUTS OFF:

  1. ENGINE FUEL SHUTOFF VALVE
  2. ENGINE DRIVEN HYDRAULIC PUMP SHUTOFF VALVE
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59
Q

What are the three sources of air on the ground?

A
  • External
  • APU
  • Engine air
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60
Q

In what order will the fuel deplete if all tanks are full?

A

Forward Tank
Aft Tank
Center Tank
Wing Tanks
Feeder Tanks

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61
Q

What does amber wing anti-ice lines indicate on ECS/PRESS synoptic page?

A

Wing temperature is < 100°F after two minutes from the time it’s commanded to ON or > 180°F.

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62
Q

What is the engine starter duty cycle?

A

Three consecutive start cycles, followed by a cooling period of 15 minutes prior to additional starts and motoring.

Motoring for a maximum of 5 minutes followed by a cooling period of 15 minutes prior to additional starts or motoring.

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63
Q

What cabin altitude will cause the passenger oxygen masks to deploy?

A

Cabin altitude of greater than 13,500 ft if landing field elevation is equal to or lesser than 8000 ft; or 14,750 ft if landing field elevation is greater than 8000 ft.

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64
Q

What happens when the intertank valve is opened?

A

Fuel can gravity flow between the two wing tanks allowing the tanks to balance

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65
Q

Maximum baggage compartment loading weight?

A

Maximum 1980 lbs
Floor Loading 120 lbs / ft2

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66
Q

What is the capacity of the waste tank?

A

7 Gallons

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67
Q

What are the prerequisites for the Automatic Descent Mode (ADM)?

A
  • Cabin Altitude at or above 10,000 ft.
  • Aircraft altitude at or above FL 340
  • Autopilot engaged.
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68
Q

What is the max starting ALTITUDE for the APU?

A

FL350

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69
Q

Can we manually select the APR mode?

A

Yes - by depressing the APR button on the center pedestal and advancing the throttle(s) into the takeoff range.

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70
Q

Turbulence Penetration Speed (VRA)

A

Sea Level to 13,000 ft = 230 KIAS
13,000 ft to 20,000 ft = 250 KIAS
20,000 ft to 35,000 ft = 270 KIAS
35,000 ft to 45,000 ft = 0.80 Mi

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71
Q

What is the difference between oxygen selections of NORMAL and 100% on the mask/regulator?

A

In NORMAL, you get diluted oxygen and with 100% selected, you get undiluted oxygen.

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72
Q

External power supplies 28 Vdc power to the aircraft through _________?

A

the L Tie Bus

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73
Q

At what pressure will the oxygen bottle discharge overboard?

A

When system pressure reaches 2500 to 2775 psi.

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74
Q

What is the capacity of the water system?

A

10 Gallons.

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75
Q

What two components comprise the Standby Multifunction Controller (SMC)?

A
  • Display Select Panel (DSP)
  • Display Control Panel (DCP).
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76
Q

What happens to engine anti-ice if both ENG BLEED AIR switches are selected to OFF?

A

Nothing: cowl anti-ice uses hot air ducted from the compressor.

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77
Q

RUNWAY SLOPE LIMITATIONS:

What is the maximum runway slope approved for takeoff and landing operations?

A

+2% (uphill) and -2% (downhill)

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78
Q

What configurations are available on the HSI Map display?

A

120°, 180° or 240°

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79
Q

How can ADM be cancelled?

A

By disengaging the AutoPilot.

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80
Q

Maximum airport pressure altitude for takeoff and landing.

A

AFM Issue 1 Aircraft: 10,000 ft.

AFM Issue 2 Aircraft: 14,000 ft.

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81
Q

In flight, what will automatically load shed in the event of a main generator failure?

A
  1. Windshield Heat
  2. Baggage Compartment Heat
  3. Water Heaters
  4. 60 Hz Inverter
  5. Galley
  6. Cabin Non-essentials
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82
Q

Which Fire Bottle can be discharged into the APU compartment?

A

The #2 bottle.

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83
Q

What things occur when the jettison switch is pressed?

A

The switch illuminates “FUEL JETT”, the on side STBY PUMP will illuminate ON, and the synoptic page will show the flow path.

84
Q

Maximum operating altitude?

A

45,000 ft.

85
Q

What is Mean Aerodynamic Chord (MAC)?

A

The average distance from the leading edge to the trailing edge of the wing.

86
Q

When selecting APU BLEED AIR switch to ON during ground operations, what valves open?

A

Load Control Valve and Isolation Valve.

87
Q

Where would you find the type of hydraulic fluid(s) approved for use?

A

AOM- Aircraft Operating Manual.

88
Q

Where is the Elapsed Time (ET) display located?

A

It is located on the HSI display upper left and below the wind vector speed display.

89
Q

What is the maximum number of occupants?

A

Maximum number of occupants: 19

Limited by emergency exit requirements. An approved seating arrangement must be installed.

90
Q

Climbing through what altitude will
the landing lights automatically extinguish?

A

18,000 ft.

The landing lights will automatically illuminate on descent through 18,000 ft if the crew has left the switches in the ON position.

The PULSE option remains operable above 18,000 ft.

91
Q

What is the function of the VS/FPA Knob on the Flight Control Panel (FCP)?

A

When the Vertical Speed (VS) mode is selected, the VS/FPA knob sets the reference vertical speed used as the reference for the AFCS altitude select mode. When the Flight Path Angle (FPA) mode is selected, the knob sets the reference flight path angle used as the reference for the AFCS Altitude Select mode. This selected value is shown in the readout and on the DUs along with a VS or FPA indication. The inset VS FPA switch toggles the selection between vertical speed and flight path angle mode.

92
Q

What is the function of the ALTITUDE Knob on the Flight Control Panel (FCP)?

A

The ALTITUDE knob is used to set the preselect altitude used for the FGS altitude select mode reference. The knob changes the preselect altitude in 1000 foot (100 meter) increments. When the knob is pushed and held, the preselect altitude changes in 100 foot (10 meter) increments. This altitude is displayed in 100’s of feet in the readout and on the DUs, along with an FL indication. The inset CNCL button cancels altitude alerts.

93
Q

What is the function of the BARO Knob on the Flight Control Panel (FCP)?

A

The pilot and copilot BARO knobs set the barometric pressure, which is digitally displayed on the ADI and the ISI. The inset SEL button swaps the barometric pressure setting between the manually selected value and the standard atmosphere setting (29.92 inHg). The ISI barometric pressure setting is synchronized with the on-side primary display, but can operate independently if the on-side primary display fails.

94
Q

What is the function of the FD buttons on the Flight Control Panel (FCP)?

A

The left and right FD buttons on the FCP remove or display guidance commands on the associated DU. Guidance commands for the side coupled to the engaged autopilot are always displayed regardless of FD switch selection.

95
Q

What are the different colors that CAS messages can be displayed and what do they indicate?

A

Color Category Chimes

Red Warning 3
Amber Caution 2
Cyan Advisory 1
White Status 0

96
Q

What CAS messages can be scrolled off of the display?

A

The crew can scroll through all caution, advisory and status messages. Warning messages cannot be scrolled. Activation of a new CAS message in that category will cause the respective CAS category message list to be displayed.

97
Q

(C) What does this symbol indicate when displayed next to a CAS message?

A

The message is a Collector CAS message. Collector Messages are a means of decluttering the EICAS message list by annunciating one message instead of multiple related (contributing) messages.

98
Q

(>) What does this symbol indicate when displayed next to a CAS message?

A

“>” The Situational Awareness CAS messages are intended to notify the crew that the collector failure causes a degradation in: environmental control, flight or ground control, and loss of annunciation or alert capabilities.

99
Q

What does the acronym DCP stand for?

A

Display Control Panel.

100
Q

What is the primary purpose of the APR mode?

A

To provide additional thrust on the operating engine during a single engine failure.

101
Q

How many engine igniters are there?

A

There are two ignition plugs under the inner fan duct panels and are mounted at the 4 and 8 o’clock position.

102
Q

How is an engine motored without ignition?

A

Selecting the ENGINE CRANK Pushbutton ON and then selecting the appropriate ENGINE START/CRANK Pushbutton
(L or R ENG) to START.

103
Q

How is an ENGINE START aborted?

A

By moving the Engine Fuel Control switch to OFF.

104
Q

External power is used for ______ and _______.
It cannot be used to ____________.

A

External power is used for ground maintenance and battery charging .

It cannot be used to power the APU Starter/Generator during start. Power for APU Starter/Generator is from the right battery.

105
Q

When will the L BATT or R BATT switches on the overhead panel illuminate ON?

A

The L BATT or R BATT will illuminate “ON” anytime the respective batteries are being discharged.

106
Q

Can we get any of the load shed items back?

A

Yes, may use the OVRD switch for Windshield Anti-Ice.

107
Q

What is the rating of the main aircraft batteries?

A

24VDC 38AH

if STC ST04469AT incorporated 24VDC 53Ah.

108
Q

How is the Standby Battery charged?

A

Left Main Bus when powered by any generator or external D/C supply (28 VDC available on the bus).

109
Q

What is the indication that the Air Inlet Door has opened and the APU is ready to start?

A

READY light illuminates on DCP and advisory message on CAS.

110
Q

After an APU start, when will the APU Load Control Valve allow APU air for engine start and pack operation?

A

APU air is available after the APU has reached an operating speed of 95% rpm or better for at least ninety (90) seconds.

111
Q

Fuel is supplied to the APU from where?

A

Fuel is supplied to the APU from the right feed tank using the right standby pump or jet pump.

112
Q

What are the APU starting limits?

A

A 2-minute cool down period must be observed between APU start attempts or between shutdown and next APU start. After 3 attempts a 30 minute cool down period must be observed.

113
Q

How is the APU oil level checked?

A

GROUND SERVICE Synoptic page or sight gauge on right hand side of APU gearbox.

Note: The APU OIL Level Low CAS would display if oil level was low.

114
Q

What function does the ECU perform if APU limits are exceeded?

A

It automatically shuts down the APU in the Non-Essential Mode and in some cases, in the Essential Mode.

115
Q

What happens when the APU STOP switch is depressed?

A

A false overspeed signal is sent to the ECU which tells the Fuel Control Unit to close the Fuel Control Valve and the APU will shut down.

116
Q

What does an amber APU Essential CAS message indicate?

A

This caution message indicates that the APU is running and a fault is detected which normally causes the APU to shut down if not in Essential Mode.

117
Q

How is the water system pressurized?

A

With one of the two available potable water pumps. The pumps will provide a 4 gpm flow of water at 30 psi.

118
Q

What generates the vacuum for flushing the toilet?

A

Cabin differential pressure above 16,000 ft or a vacuum generator below 16,000 ft.

119
Q

Where does the water come from that is used to transfer waste from the toilet to the waste collection tank?

A

The 10 gal potable water tank.

It uses approximately 0.1 - 0.2 liters per flush.

120
Q

What can be done if the toilet fails to flush, (e.g. flush switch failure)?

A

A separate manual flush handle can momentarily open the flush valve.

121
Q

What would be an indication of a discharged Fire Bottle?

A

Fire BTL 1 / 2 Discharge CAS message.

122
Q

What happens if a fire handle solenoid malfunctions?

A

A manual override button underneath each fire handle allows handle activation.

123
Q

What happens when a fire handle is pulled?

A

Pulling the fire handle sends a fire shutdown signal to the FADEC, closes the Hydraulic Shutoff Valve, closes the Engine Fuel Shutoff Valve.

124
Q

What protection does the Fire Protection Control Unit provide during an APU fire on the ground?

A

The FPCU automatically closes the APU fuel shutoff valve shutting down the APU and sounds an aural horn in the right wheel well.

Note: Fire Bottle must still be fired manually.

125
Q

What happens when the Fire Test Push-Button is pressed?

A

Illumination of:

FIRE TEST push-button,
APU FIRE and APU ARM/EMPTY lights,
L-R Fire Handles,
L-R Fuel Switches,
CAS MSG: “FIRE/BLEED IN TEST”,
Followed by “FIRE/BLEED TEST OK”.

Audible outside bell will sound (on Ground)

126
Q

What are the cockpit indications for an ENGINE FIRE?

A

Warning CAS message
L-R FUEL SWITCH illuminates
L-R FIRE HANDLE illuminates
“FIRE” annunciated on the Engine N1 Gage.
Aural - “Fire, Engine Fire”

127
Q

What are the cockpit indications for an APU FIRE?

A

Warning CAS message
Audible alert (Fire - APU)
APU “FIRE” pushbutton illuminates followed by an automatic shut-down of the APU.
If on the ground a fire warning horn sounds.
Aural - “Fire, APU”

128
Q

What capabilities are lost with a loss of the R Hydraulic System Pressure?

A
  1. L & R Inboard Spoilers
  2. R Thrust Reverser
  3. Nose Wheel Steering
  4. Normal Landing Gear Extension and Retraction
  5. Q-Feel
  6. Inboard Brake accumulators no longer pressurized
129
Q

Under what conditions will the Electric Motor Pump (EMP) operate?

A

Provided EMP overtemperature switch has not reached set-point, the EMP will activate when:

Onside hydraulic pressure is below 1300 psi AND either the left or right generator is operating.
OR
On-side power lever is at max climb AND either main landing gear uplock switch is open AND either the left or right generator is operating.
OR
Rejected Takeoff

130
Q

Alternate hydraulic power for braking operation is provided by __________.

A

Alternate hydraulic power for braking operation is provided by independent outboard and inboard accumulators.

131
Q

Where are the hydraulic reservoirs located?

A

There are two (2) hydraulic reservoirs located in the tail compartment (left hydraulic system reservoir on the left and right hydraulic system reservoir on the right).

132
Q

What are the left and right hydraulic reservoirs maximum fill levels for dispatch?

A

Left: 47 to 60%
Right: 30 to 41%

Note: Depending on temperature, capacities may be above or below specified levels. It is recommended to fill to maximum allowable level.

133
Q

[HYDRAULICS]

If an engine driven pump fails, what is lost on that system?

A

Nothing. The Electric Motor Pumps will provide HYD pressure to the entire system.

134
Q

Of the three Hydraulic Filters, which are able to be bypassed?

A

Only the return filter is a bypass filter.

135
Q

Are hydraulics available after pulling a FIRE HANDLE?

A

Yes, with the EMP (Electric Motor Pump).

136
Q

How can the fluid level of the HYDRAULIC system be determined?

A

A Synoptic page, Secondary EICAS page, Summary page, Ground Service page or the visual level indicator.

137
Q

[HYDRAULICS]

How is the system protected from overpressure?

A

A system relief valve opens at 3750 psi and vents the fluid through the return lines.

138
Q

If the right side hydraulic fluid is lost, how will the landing gear be extended?

A

By pneumatic pressure from the gear bottle.

139
Q

The two outboard panels on each wing are multifunction spoilers, they are used for ______?

A
  1. Roll Assist
  2. Ground Spoilers
  3. Speed (Air) Brake
140
Q

What are the flap limitations for icing conditions?

A

Use of flaps in icing conditions is restricted to takeoff, approach and landing only.

Holding in icing conditions is limited to 0° flaps only.

141
Q

If PRIM STAB trim fails what can be done?

A

Select the ALTN STAB switch on the center pedestal. (ALTN STAB - ARM)

142
Q

If PRIM FLAPS fail what can be done?

A

Select the ALTN FLAP switch on the center pedestal. (ALT FLAPS - ON)

143
Q

What is the function of the TCM switch on the center pedestal?

A

It turns off the thrust compensation module. (TCM - OVRD)

144
Q

How can the auto GROUND SPOILERS be turned off?

A

With the GND SPLRS “INHIB” switch on the center pedestal.

145
Q

How can the Stick Pusher be disabled?

A
  1. Selecting the STICK PUSHER switch on the center pedestal. (STICK PUSHER – OFF)
  2. Placing the AFCS DISCON bar in the OFF position will disable the stick pusher.
146
Q

What happens when the AFCS DISCON bar on the FCP is pulled?

A

It disconnects the Auto Pilot, yaw damper and auto throttles. It also removes power from the elevator and aileron servos which disables the stick pusher.

147
Q

What is the purpose of the ADU (Aileron Disconnect Unit)?

A

Restore roll control with a jammed aileron or yoke. If the ailerons or copilot yoke are physically jammed, the pilot yoke will continue to control roll with spoiler commands from the RVDT’s (with a modified spoiler roll assist logic).

148
Q

What can be done if the Elevator System were to jam?

A

Apply approximately 95 lbs of force to each yoke in the same direction to overcome the “Force Disconnect Unit”.

149
Q

What does the gust lock do?

A

It locks the ailerons and the throttle lever to prevent movement.

150
Q

How are the AILERONS controlled?

A

Through push-pull rods and bell cranks.

151
Q

How are the ELEVATORS controlled?

A

Through push-pull rods, bell cranks and closed loop cables connected to hydraulic actuators.

152
Q

How is the RUDDER controlled?

A

By the rudder pedals sending a signal through the Rudder Feel & Trim Unit (RFTU) Linear Variable Differential Transducers (LVDT’s) to the FCECU.

153
Q

How are the FOWLER FLAPS operated?

A

The #2 FCECU commands a hydraulic Power Drive Unit (PDU) based on flap handle position lever through a Hydraulic Control Module (HCM). The PDU drives torque shafts that drive the linear ball-screw actuators.

154
Q

What is the purpose of the ROLL ASSIST switch on the center pedestal?

A

It allows the ROLL ASSIST to be turned off.

155
Q

What is the purpose of the “TAWS FLAP OVRD” switch on the center pedestal?

A

It cancels the TOO LOW FLAPS voice alert when the gear is down with the flaps not in LND, the RA less than 245 ft and the airspeed less than 159 KIAS.

156
Q

What does the white light indicate in the gear handle?

A

The landing gear is in transit.

157
Q

What is the meaning of a magenta gear indication on the flight control synoptic page?

A

Gear in transit.

158
Q

What is the meaning of an amber gear indication on the flight control synoptic page?

A

Landing gear failed indication.

159
Q

What is the purpose of the landing gear LOCK RELEASE button?

A

It allows the landing gear handle to be placed in UP position regardless of WOW mode.

160
Q

What is the maximum towing angle?

A

80deg.

If greater than 84deg +/3 a warning horn will sound.

161
Q

What is the maximum differential for taxi, takeoff or landing?

A

0.2 psi

162
Q

What causes the following CAS message to illuminate?

Cabin Altitude High (in red color)

A

Cabin altitude above 10,000 ft
(or 14,750 ft when departure or landing field elevation is above 8000 ft).

163
Q

How many power sources does the Outflow Valve have?

A

Two power sources.
Auto: R DISTR Bus
Manual: R EMER Bus

164
Q

What functions does the Cabin Pressure Relief Valve Provide?

A
  1. Positive differential pressure relief at 9.45 +/- .10 psid.
  2. Negative differential pressure relief at .75 psid.
165
Q

When will the Isolation Valve open?

A

Whenever the ISOLATION valve is selected OR
Automatically when APU bleed air is selected.

166
Q

What can external air be used for?

A

An external ground air cart may be used for engine starting or to supply the air conditioning pack.

167
Q

When using external air should the isolation valve be opened? Why?

A

Yes. The connector is plumbed to the supply manifold on the left side of the isolation valve, so the isolation valve must be opened to route ground air to the right engine.

168
Q

What is the primary source of bleed air on the ground?

A

The APU is the primary source of bleed air during ground operation.

169
Q

Where is engine bleed air extracted from?

A

Engine bleed air is extracted from Intermediate Pressure (IP) or High Pressure (HP) ports on the HP compressor, according to bleed air pressure requirements.

170
Q

What is the Pneumatic System responsible for?

A

1.Left and right Bleed Air Systems (BAS)
2.Air conditioning system
3.Wing Anti-ice (WAI) system.

171
Q

Can the G280 take off in the Bleeds Off Takeoff Mode?

A

The aircraft can depart in the bleeds-off takeoff mode. In this case the Manifold Pressure Regulating Shut-off Valves (MPRSOVs) are fully closed and the air is extracted from the APU.

172
Q

Can the APU be used as a source of bleed air in flight?

A

The APU can be used in the air for Alternate Pressurization below 20,000 ft. and to assist in-flight engine starts below 15,000 ft.

173
Q

What is the AMSC responsible for?

A

The AMSC (Air Management System Controller) is responsible for Bleed Air Management.

Basic functions include:
1. Engine port selection;
2. Regulation of pressure, temperature, and flow delivered to the pneumatic manifolds;
3. Bleed air cooling utilizing engine fan air, Wing Anti-ice, and Isolation between the left bleed air source and the right bleed air source.

174
Q

In the event of a failure of the automatic system how is flight deck and cabin temperature controlled?

A

Manual backup temperature control is provided by selecting MAN TEMP CONTROL on the ECS panel, which provides direct position control of each zone Trim Air Valve by the Cold/Hot knobs on the Temp Control Panel.

175
Q

What happens when the operator selects the TEMP CONTROL to MAN (manual)?

A

The temperature control knobs directly control the position of the associated trim air valve.

176
Q

Can the values on the ECS synoptic be displayed in both °F and °C?

A

Yes, by placing the cursor over the appropriate °F or °C toggle (located on the bottom right of the display) and selecting it.

177
Q

What type of air comes from the overhead gaspers?

A

Gasper air is supplied via a cold air duct routed directly from the cold air plenum to the upper cabin pressure bulkhead through a check valve.

178
Q

How is pressurization achieved?

A

The Cabin Pressure Control System (CPCS) regulates the outflow of air from the cabin at rates required to maintain the cabin altitude according to preset schedules.

179
Q

What is the meaning of the amber FAULT light on the CPCS (CABIN PRESSURE CONTROL SYSTEM) MODE Switch?

A

Indication of AUTO mode failure (FAULT) and indicates system fault during system BIT.

180
Q

When in MAN mode how is cabin pressure controlled?

A

The CABIN ALT rotary switch is used to increase or decrease cabin altitude during manual mode.

181
Q

What is the function of the DUMP Switch on the CPCS?

A

Depressing the DUMP switch provides an open command to the OFV that is rate-limited to 8,000 fpm and altitude limited to 14,900 ft (if above 14,500 ft) or ambient pressure (if below 14,500 ft).

182
Q

What is the function of the DITCH Switch on the CPCS?

A

DITCH selection is incorporated to close the OFV in case of aircraft ditching.

183
Q

Describe aircraft operation when ADM is activated.

A

11 things happen when ADM is activated

• Red ADM on PFD’s
• Cabin Altitude High Warning message
• Lateral mode changes to HDG
• Airplane turns 90° LEFT of course
• Autothrottles to idle (automatically engage)
• ALT selector resets to 15,000
• Airspeed to MMO/VMO
• HDG capture after 90 ̊ turn
• 5 secs into ADM – Transponder to 7700
• 15,000 Altitude capture
• Aircraft enters left orbit at 225 KIAS

184
Q

With a rapid loss of cabin pressure what is the first thing the crew should accomplish?

A

Don personal oxygen mask and ensure mask is set to 100% oxygen.

185
Q

When is wing anti-ice prohibited?

A

Wing Anti-Ice is not recommended above 10°C TAT or below -40°C TAT to prevent ITT exceedance.

Operation of the WAI system above 26,000 ft with a single bleed air source is prohibited.

186
Q

If the Anti-Ice switches are set to AUTO, when will the Anti-Ice come on?

A

Anytime ice is detected while climbing 1500 ft AGL to FL350 and descending FL350 to ground.

187
Q

When does the amber Ice Detected CAS message extinguish?

A

If ice accumulation is < .020” for one minute, the amber Ice Detected CAS message extinguishes.

188
Q

Where is wing anti-ice exhausted overboard?

A

Hot air flows through the leading edges of each wing, passes through the main wheel well, and then exit out of center vent underneath and between main wheels.

189
Q

What happens when the Wing Anti-Ice is selected to ON?

A

The WAI operates regardless of altitude, ice detection or whether the aircraft is in-flight or on the ground.

190
Q

What do blue (cyan) wing anti-ice lines indicate on the Bleed / Anti-Ice synoptic page?

A

Wing anti-ice temperature ≤ 100°F for two (2) minutes of system activation.

191
Q

What is the purpose of the probe heat OVRD position on the PROBES HEAT switch?

A

It allows the heating of all probes while on the ground as well as in flight.

192
Q

What is the difference between selections of NORMAL and EMERGENCY?

A

In NORMAL, it allows regulator to provide diluter-demand flow, and in EMERGENCY position, it sets regulator to provide constant positive pressure flow.

193
Q

How can the tension in the mask harness be adjusted to make it more comfortable?

A

Using a comfort toggle on the front of the mask.

194
Q

What action must passengers perform to get oxygen to flow into the passenger mask retaining bag?

A

Pull on the lanyard to remove the flow pin.

195
Q

How is the aircraft normally refueled?

A

Through the single point connection located on the right front side fuselage.

196
Q

Is there an alternate method to fill tanks and are there any limitations?

A

Yes, the wing tanks and feed tanks can be filled by a single gravity refuel point on each wing.

197
Q

What will stop the jettison process?

A

Fuel jettison will stop manually by pilot inputs by selecting the “FUEL JETT” switch off, or AUTOMATICALLY at 800 lbs of fuel remaining per side.

198
Q

Can the airplane be fueled using the external Refuel/Defuel panel without turning on main aircraft power?

A

Yes. The RDP is powered by the Right Hot Bus and only needs to have its power switched on at the panel (the red master switch).

199
Q

What defines a balanced field?

A

It is where the accelerate-go distance equals the accelerate-stop distance (i.e. shortest takeoff field length).

200
Q

When is a runway considered to be contaminated?

A

When more than 25% of the runway surface area (whether in isolated areas or not), within the required length and width being used, is covered by surface water more than 0.125 inch (3 mm) deep, or by slush or loose snow equivalent to more than 0.125 inch (3 mm) of water.

201
Q

What is the definition of stopway?

A

An area beyond the actual runway length capable of supporting the airplane in an aborted takeoff, which can be used as part of the available accelerate-stop distance.

202
Q

What is the definition of clearway?

A

An obstacle-free area beyond the actual runway length which can be used as part of the accelerate-go distance available on a dry runway. No clearway credit is allowed on a wet runway.

203
Q

What is the definition of V2?

A

Takeoff Safety Speed. The target speed to be attained at or before reaching 35 ft above the take off surface following an engine failure.

204
Q

What is the definition of VSE?

A

The recommended airspeed for single-engine climb in the enroute (clean) configuration.

205
Q

What is the benefit of taking off with 10° flaps?

A

Results in higher climb gradients, and will permit higher takeoff weights when climb limited or obstacle clearance limited.

206
Q

What is the definition of Basic Operating Weight (BOW)?

A

It is the weight of the aircraft excluding payload, passengers and usable fuel. It includes fixed equipment, unusable fuel, oil, hydraulic fluid, crew and operating items (equipment and supplies) necessary for aircraft operations. When a jump seat is installed, the BOW includes the weight
of a third crewmember.

Aviation (6 decks)

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