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Aviation > G280 Limitations > Flashcards

G280 Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

MACH TRIM INOPERATIVE SPEED

With Mach trim functions inoperative, the maximum operating limit speed is ______.

A

340 KIAS / 0.77 Mi.

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2
Q

MINIMUM HOLDING SPEED IN ICING CONDITIONS

A

185 KIAS

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3
Q

[EMERGENCY LANDING GEAR EXTENSION]

Do not extend the landing gear utilizing the emergency system at speeds in excess of _____ KIAS.

After landing gear is down and locked, speed can be increased up to _____ KIAS.

A

175 KIAS

195 KIAS

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4
Q

FLAPS EXTENDED:
Maximum operating altitude for extending flaps or flying with flaps extended is _____.

A

20,000 ft MSL

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5
Q

LANDING GEAR EXTENDED / OPERATION

Maximum operating altitude for extending landing gear or flying with landing gear extended is _____.

A

20,000 ft MSL

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6
Q

MINIMUM / MAXIMUM OPERATING TEMPERATURE

The operator shall comply with COLD WEATHER OPERATIONS starting on page IV-87 any time the airplane has been exposed to temperatures colder than _____ on the ground for more than _____. Maximum temperature on ground is _____.

A

-20°C
10 hours
ISA+35°C

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7
Q

[HIGH ELEVATION AIRPORT OPERATIONS]

Maximum approved airport pressure altitude for takeoff or landing is _____ field elevation.

A

10,000 ft (Issue 1)

14,000 ft (Issue 2)

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8
Q

WIND CONDITIONS

Maximum tailwind component approved for takeoff and landing is ______.

A

10 knots

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9
Q

MINIMUM FLIGHT WEIGHT

A

23,000 lbs

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10
Q

MAXIMUM ZERO FUEL WEIGHT

A

28,200 lbs

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11
Q

Maximum cabin pressure differential permitted is _____.

A

9.2 psi

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12
Q

Maximum cabin pressure differential permitted for taxi, takeoff or landing is _____.

A

0.2 psi

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13
Q

Post MOD G25-10066
Internal baggage door must be closed during taxi, takeoff and landing. In flight, access to the baggage compartment above _____ is prohibited except by flight crew members for emergency purposes only

A

44,000 ft

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14
Q

AUTOPILOT

Minimum engage height is _____.

A

200 ft

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15
Q

AUTOPILOT

Minimum disengage height is _____ for approaches with vertical guidance (ILS and LPV; LNAV when VNAV is used, Post MOD G25-10074 - LP when VNAV is used.)

A

80 ft

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16
Q

AUTOPILOT

Minimum disengage height is _____ below MDA for approaches with lateral guidance only.

A

50 ft

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17
Q

AUTOPILOT

Maximum demonstrated altitude loss for coupled go-around is _____.

A

61 ft

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18
Q

AUTOPILOT

_____ operation is not approved for single engine operations.

A

CAT II

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19
Q

BATTERY LIMITATIONS

Maximum indicated battery charge current for takeoff:

APU GEN Available:
APU GEN Unavailable:

NOTE: APU Generator available means it is operable, if needed, and not deferred per MEL. The APU does not have to be running to be considered available.

A

20A
8A

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20
Q

If Mach trim is inoperative: MMO is reduced to _____.

A

0.77 Mi

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21
Q

Total usable fuel weight

A

14,620 lb

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22
Q

Total usable fuel weight when gravity refueling is _____.

Note: Gravity refueling only fills the wing and feed tanks and can take a significantly longer time.

A

9,760 lb

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23
Q

Maximum demonstrated crosswind component for takeoff and landing is _____.

A

25 knots

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24
Q

FUEL LOAD IMBALANCE

Takeoff =

Inflight, approach and landing =

A

450 lbs

900 lbs

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25
Q

FUEL TANK TEMPS

JET A:
minimum =
maximum =

JET A-1 & JP 8
minimum =
maximum =

A

JET A:
minimum = -38C
maximum = 57C

JET A-1 & JP 8
minimum = -46C
maximum = 57C

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26
Q

PRIMARY FUEL TYPES

A

Jet A
Jet A-1
JP 8
JP 5

For additional authorized fuel types, see AFM.

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27
Q

Fuel pressure should not exceed _____ from ground refueling carrier. Failure to comply may result in damage to equipment.

A

50 PSI

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28
Q

ENGINE GROUND START

Maximum crosswind component for engine start =

Maximum tailwind component for engine start =

A

20 kt

15 kt

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29
Q

Maximum ITT During Start:

• N2 or at or below 40% =

• N2 above 40% =

A

650°C

950°C

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30
Q

DO NOT EXCEED STARTER DUTY CYCLE:

• _____ consecutive start/crank cycles, followed by cooling period of _____ min prior to additional starts and motoring.

• Engine motoring for a maximum of _____ min, followed by cooling period of _____ min prior to additional starts and motoring.

A

Three…15 minutes

5 minutes…15 minutes

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31
Q

Engine Ground Operations

• N1 is limited to _____% if tailwind component is more than 15 kt.

A

50%

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32
Q

Takeoff thrust is limited to _____ minutes with all engines operating (AEO).

APR is limited to _____ minutes with an inoperative engine (OEI).

A

5 minutes

10 minutes

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33
Q

Minimum fuel temperature at the fuel filter is _____.

A

3°C

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34
Q

Abort engine start if light-off does not occur within _____ of start initiation.

A

30 seconds

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35
Q

Cancellation of reverse thrust should be initiated so as to be at the reverse idle position by _____.

Use of thrust reverser(s) for power back is not approved.

A

40 KIAS

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36
Q

Abort engine start if no positive indication of oil pressure by _____.

A

30% N2

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37
Q

Oil Inlet Temperature

• Before engine start:

A

– 40°C minimum

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38
Q

[APU]

Maximum altitude for APU start:

A

35,000 ft

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39
Q

[APU]

Maximum altitude for APU operation:

A

40,000 ft

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40
Q

[APU]

Maximum altitude for APU bleed air use:

A

20,000 ft

41
Q

[APU]

Maximum Altitude for APU assisted Engine Starting:

A

15,000 ft

42
Q

[APU]

Battery voltage required for APU start:

A

22-27 volts

43
Q

[APU]

Do not operate APU if _____ fire extinguisher has been activated.

A

RIGHT

44
Q

[APU]

Allow _____ min cooldown periods between APU starts or between shutdown and next APU start.

Allow _____ min cool down period after 3 consecutive start attempts.

A

2 minutes

30 minutes

45
Q

[APU]

Operate APU only if _____ standby fuel pump is operative or _____ engine is operative.

A

RIGHT

RIGHT

46
Q

Do not operate APU if the _____ fire extinguisher has been activated.

A

No. 2

47
Q

[HYDRAULICS]

Maximum hydraulic temperature is _____.

A

95°C

48
Q

[HYDRAULICS]

Electric Motor Pump (EMP) operation above _____ ft is limited to _____ min.

A

39,000 ft

10 minutes

49
Q

Maximum airspeed for Flaps 10°:

A

250 Knots

50
Q

Maximum airspeed for Flaps 20°:

A

220 Knots

51
Q

Maximum airspeed for Flaps LAND:

A

180 Knots

52
Q

ALTERNATE STABILIZER TRIM

• Maximum speed with the alternate stabilizer armed, autopilot engaged and a jammed elevator is

A

MMO = 0.77 MI

53
Q

YAW DAMPER INOPERATIVE SPEED:

• Below _____ ft the maximum speed is _____. Do not operate with yaw damper off above _____ ft.

A

25,000 ft

250 KIAS

25,000 ft

54
Q

Use of flaps in icing conditions is restricted to _____, _____, and _____ only.
(phase of flight)

A

takeoff

approach

landing

55
Q

Holding in icing conditions is limited to _____ flaps only.

A

0°

56
Q

LANDING GEAR OPERATION SPEEDS (VLO)

• Normal Operation: Do not lower or raise landing gear at speeds in excess of _____.

A

195 KIAS

57
Q

LANDING GEAR EXTENDED SPEED (VLE):

• Do not exceed _____ with landing gear extended (gear doors open or closed).

A

195 KIAS

58
Q

MAXIMUM TIRE SPEED:

•Maximum main landing gear tire ground speed is _____.

•Maximum nose landing gear tire ground speed is _____.

A

195 kt

182 kt

59
Q

[BRAKES]

In cold weather operation – ride the brakes during taxi to warm the brakes to _____. This prevents ice accumulation on the brakes.

A

10°C - 90°C

60
Q

Operation of Wing Anti-Ice System above _____ ft with a single bleed source is prohibited.

A

26,000 ft

61
Q

The use of wing anti-ice above _____ TAT or below _____ SAT is not recommended.

A

10°C

-40°C

62
Q

Engine anti ice is required for taxi and takeoff when Static Air Temperature (SAT) is _____ or below, and in- flight when Total Air Temperature (TAT) is _____ or below, and visible moisture in any form is present such as clouds, fog with visibility of one mile or less, rain, snow, sleet and ice crystals.

A

10°C

10°C

63
Q

Probe Heat operation in OVRD mode on ground for more than _____ is prohibited.

A

30 seconds

64
Q

The minimum holding speed in icing conditions is _____.

A

185 KIAS

65
Q

Crew and passenger oxygen masks are not approved for use above _____ ft cabin altitude.

A

40,000 ft

66
Q

Prolonged operation above _____ ft cabin altitude with passengers on board is not recommended.

A

25,000 ft

67
Q

Cabin Electrical

Galley and Lavatory Outlets are _____ amp.

All other outlets are _____ amp.

Total amp draw should never exceed _____ amp.

A

15 amp

3 amp

17.5 amp

68
Q

When ground aircraft de-icing is in progress, APU must be _____ with door closed.

A

OFF

69
Q

[HYDRAULICS]

Normal operation pressure is _____ psi to _____ psi with _____ psi maximum

A

2700 psi to 3250 psi

3500 psi max

70
Q

[HYDRAULICS]

Emergency gear bottle pre-charge pressure

A

2600 psi to 3000 psi

71
Q

[BRAKES]

Do not takeoff with temperatures below _____ on contaminated runways.

A

10°C

72
Q

[BRAKES]

Brake Overheat CAS displays at _____ °C

A

450°C

73
Q

[TOWING]

Normal towing range from center

A

80°

74
Q

[TOWING]

Towing horn sounds at

A

84°

75
Q

[TOWING]

NWS Oversteer CAS triggers at

A

94°

76
Q

[TOWING]

Nose Gear damage will occur at angles greater than

A

100°

77
Q

[ENGINE DRY MOTORING]

Dry motoring required if engine restarts are required between _____ and _____ minutes following an engine shutdown.

A

15 and 180 minutes

78
Q

[ENGINE DRY MOTORING]

Crank each engine to _____ % or _____ seconds whichever comes first. Wait _____ minutes before starting the engine to allow engine to thermally normalize.

A

21% or 15 seconds

3 minutes

79
Q

[ENGINE DRY MOTORING]

Procedure must be repeated if more than _____ minutes has elapsed since the dry crank was performed if still under the _____ minute timeframe.

A

40 minutes

180-minute

80
Q

Verify WING ANTI-ICE temperatures are _____ °F +/- 10 and both wings are green prior to takeoff using the synoptic, if wing anti-ice is required.

A

130 °F

81
Q

What are the prerequisites for the Automatic Descent Mode (ADM)?

A

• Cabin Altitude at or above 10,000 ft.
• Aircraft altitude at or above FL 340
• Autopilot engaged.

82
Q

How long can we fly with the Standby Battery?

A

60 Minutes if one of the SMCs is depowered.

83
Q

What happens when a fire handle is pulled?

A

Pulling the fire handle sends a fire shutdown signal to the FADEC, closes the Engine Hydraulic Shutoff Valve, closes the Engine Fuel Shutoff Valve.

84
Q

The tiller will turn the nose wheel how many degrees?

A

+/- 60 degrees left and right of center.

85
Q

What is the PMA and what is its function?

A

The PMA (Permanent Magnet Alternator) is mounted on the accessory gear box. It provides power to the FADEC when N2 is greater than 45%.

86
Q

What hydraulic system operates the flaps?

A

LEFT

87
Q

What spoiler will still operate with a loss of the left hydraulic system fluid?

A
  • Inboard Spoilers (Multifunction Spoilers - MFS)
88
Q

Which hydraulic system operates the ailerons?

A

None.

Ailerons are manually actuated (conventional mechanical)

89
Q

What control surfaces are locked with the gust lock engaged?

A

Ailerons while on the ground.

In addition to locking the aileron surfaces, the locking mechanism prevents activating the engine thrust levers to prevent takeoff with locked aileron surfaces.

90
Q

If the stall warning (stick shaker) activates, what will be disengaged and what will be enabled?

A
  • Autopilot and autothrottles will be disengaged
  • Auto-ignition and stick shakers will be enabled
91
Q

When will the taxi lights turn off automatically?

A

Landing gear retraction

92
Q

During a climb, at what altitude will the landing lights automatically turn off?

A

18,000 ft

93
Q

Which hydraulic system components are powered by both the left and right system?

A

Elevator
Rudder
Park Brake

94
Q

What modes will automatically engage the autothrottles?

A

Automatic Descent Mode

95
Q

What cabin altitude will cause the passenger oxygen masks to deploy?

A

Cabin altitude of greater than 13,500 ft if landing field elevation is equal to or lesser than 8000 ft; or 14,750 ft if landing field elevation is greater than 8000 ft.

96
Q

What happens when the AFCS DISCON bar on the FCP is pulled?

A

It disconnects the Auto Pilot, yaw damper and auto throttles. It also removes power from the elevator and aileron servos which disables the stick pusher.

97
Q

What is the primary purpose of the APR mode?

A

To provide additional thrust on the operating engine during a single engine failure.

98
Q

What are the four subsystems of the Pneumatic System?

A

• Wing Anti-Ice (WAI) System
• Environmental Control System (ECS)
• Temperature Control System (TCS)
• Bleed Air System (BAS).

99
Q

What is the AMSC responsible for?

A

The AMSC (Air Management System
Controller) is responsible for Bleed Air
Management.
Basic functions include:
1. Engine port selection;
2. Regulation of pressure, temperature, and flow delivered to the pneumatic manifolds;
3. Bleed air cooling utilizing engine fan air, Wing Anti-ice, and Isolation between the left bleed air source and the right bleed air source.

Aviation (6 decks)

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