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Nurs 220 - Holistic Assessment > (Future) Exam 3 > Flashcards

(Future) Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Eyelids

A

protect eyes from dust, light, injury

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2
Q

Palpebral fissure

A
  • open space between eyelids
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3
Q

Limbus

A

border between cornea and sclera

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4
Q

canthus

A

angle where lids meet (inner, outer)

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5
Q

Caruncle

A

fleshy mass at inner cants contains sebaceous glands

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6
Q

Tarsal plates

A

Connective tissue in upper lid- contain meibomian glands - lubricate lids

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7
Q

Conjuctiva

A

transparent protective covering

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8
Q

Cornea

A

covers/protects iris and pupil

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9
Q

lacrimal gland

A

outer corner of eye - secretes tears

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10
Q

Puncta

A

where tears drain

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11
Q

Outer layer-sclera

A

continuous anteriorly with a smooth, transparent cornea that covers iris and pupil

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12
Q

Cornea

A

cornea: smooth and transparent
- part of refracting media of eye, bending incoming light rays so that they will be focused on inner retina
- very sensitive to touch;

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13
Q

contact with a wisp of cotton stimulates a blink in both eyes, this is called

A

Corneal reflex

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14
Q

middle layer-choroid

A
  • dark pigmentation to prevent light from reflecting internally and is highly vascular to deiver blood to retina
  • anteriorly is coninous with ciliary body and iris
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15
Q

Muscles of _______ body control _________ of lens

A

ciliary; thickness

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16
Q

Pupil size during sympathetic vs parasympathetic

A

sympathetic - dilates

Parasympathetic - constricts

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17
Q

Lens
What are they?
what determines the amount of fluid produced?

A

Refracting medium/ keeps a viewed object in focus on the retina

  • Intraocular pressure is determined by the amount of fluid produced balanced by resistance to outflow
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18
Q

through the ophthalmoscope, we can see

A
  • optic disc
  • Macula
  • retina
    -retina vessels
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19
Q

CN VI: abducens

A

lateral movement

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20
Q

CN IV: trochlear

A

superior oblique, down and in

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21
Q

CN III: Oculomotor

A

All rectus, inferior oblique

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22
Q

what is a normal reaction for the pupils to light?

A

constriction

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23
Q

reflexes: Accommodation

A

eye adaptation for near vision
- converge and constrict

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24
Q

pupillary light reflex

A

dark room, look in the distance, bring light from the side
(note pupil size as well)

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25
Q

pupillary light reflex: Direct light reflex

A
  • constriction of same-sided pupil
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26
Q

pupillary light reflex:
Consensual light reflex

A

Simultaneous constriction of other pupil

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27
Q

what test do you do for Accommodation?
What is a normal response to it?

A
  • focus on distant object, then shift gaze to near
  • Normal response: pupillary constriction and convergence of eyes
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28
Q

Doccumentation: PERRLA

A

pupils equal, round, react to light and accommodate

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29
Q

a confrontation test is a..

A

visual field

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30
Q

Extraocular muscle function: Corneal light reflex
What CN tested?
What do we assess?
How do we assess?

A

CN V and VII
- assess parallel alignment of eyes
- Shine light and note symmetrical reflection on cornea

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31
Q

Extraocular muscle function: Cover test
What does it detect?
What is a normal response?

A
  • detects deviated alignment
  • Note covered and uncovered eye
  • Normal response - steady fixed gaze
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32
Q

Extraocular muscle function: Diagnostic positions test (cardinal positions of gaze)
What do we say for a normal response?

A
  • parallel tracking with both eyes
  • if not, nerve or muscle dysfunction possible
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33
Q

Anisocoria

A

one eye dilated and other is constricted

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34
Q

Isocoria/miosis

A

both eyes extremely constricted

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35
Q

Mydriasis

A

Both eyes extremely dilated

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36
Q

developmental considerations for eye assessment

A
  • Vaginal infections in pregnant person at delivery (herpes, gonorrhea)
  • Developmental milestones of vision noted by parents
  • Routine testing at school
  • Awareness of safety measures to protect eyes
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37
Q

eye function is ________ at the beginning of life but gets _____ as on gets older

A

not good; better

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38
Q

Newborn eye problems: Excessive tearing
What can this indicate?

A
  • this may indicate blocked tear ducts
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39
Q

Newborn eye problems: Red or encrusted eye lids

A

This could be a sign of an eye infection

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40
Q

Newborn eye problems: constant eye turning
What may this signal?

A

This may signal a problem with eye muscle control

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41
Q

Newborn eye problems: Extreme sensitivity to light
this can indicate what?

A

this may indicate an elevated pressure in the eye

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42
Q

Newborn eye problems: Appearance of a white pupil

A

This may indicate the presence of an eye cancer

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43
Q

Strabismus

A

eyes point in two different directions

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44
Q

developmental considerations: Aging adult

A
  • Visual difficulty with driving, climbing stairs
  • Last glaucoma test - loss of peripheral vision, aching pain
  • History of cataracts - blurring vision
  • Eyes feel dry, burning
  • Decrease in visual activities - sewing, reading
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45
Q

aging adults: Decreased tear production

A

dry eyes

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46
Q

Arcus Senilis

A

Lipid material infiltrates around limbus

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47
Q

aging adult: pupil size will…

A

decrease

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48
Q

Presbyopia
what becomes physically hard?

A

decreased accommodation for near vision, lens hard, cannot change shape

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49
Q

3 main reasons for decreased visual functioning

A

cataract formation - opacity of lens
- glaucoma
- Macular degeneration

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50
Q

glaucoma
Increased what?
Gradual loss of what?

A

increased ocular pressure, gradual loss of peripheral vision

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51
Q

Macular degeneration

A
  • loss of central vision common cause of blindness
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52
Q

Heal promotion for an adult (eye assessment)

A

early screenings for glaucoma - preventable

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53
Q

Risk factors for Cataracts (6 things)

A
  • > 50 age
  • prolong UV-B light
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Cigarette, Heavy alcohol use
  • High BP
  • Diet low in Vit E and B
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54
Q

Risk factors for Glaucoma (5 things)

A

> 40 age
- Family history
- Race ethnicity - African ancestry, Caucasian, E. European
- Arteriosclerosis
- Myopia, Hyperopia

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55
Q

Risk factors for Macular Degeneration (6 things)

A

> 65 age
- Prolong UV-B light
- Female, Early Menopause Caucasians
- Cigarette, heavy alcohol use
- High BP
- High Fat diet

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56
Q

unexpected findings for eye assessment:
type of difficulty?
What is a RED FLAG
What can be a sudden onset?

A
  • vision difficulty
  • Pain (RED FLAG)
  • Sudden onset = floaters, blind spot, loss of peripheral vision
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57
Q

unexpected findings for eye assessment: Strabismus/diplopia

A

crossed eyes, double vision

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58
Q

unexpected findings for eye assessment: Redness/sweling

A

infection

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59
Q

unexpected findings for eye assessment:
Watering/discharge

A

color. when present

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60
Q

common place for nosebleeds are in the

A

Kessel box plexus

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61
Q

Subjective data for the nose

A
  • discharge
  • frequent cold, upper respiratory infections
  • sinus pain
  • trauma
  • epistaxis, nosebleeds
  • allergies
  • altered smell
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62
Q

Objective data for the nose
What is it called to look and touch?
What are we looking for when we look at the nose?

A
  • inspect and palpate
  • Symmetry, latency
  • Nasal cavity
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63
Q

Subjective data: Mouth

A
  • Sores or lesions
  • Sore throat
  • Bleeding gums
  • Toothache
  • Hoarseness
  • Dysphagia
  • Altered taste
  • Health promotion
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64
Q

Risk factors for cancer of the Oral cavity

A
  • use of tobacco products
  • Alcohol use
  • HPV
  • UV radiation
  • Born male
  • > 55 of age
    -poor oral hygiene
  • Poor diet
  • Weak immune system
  • Use of mouthwash with high alcohol content
  • Irritation from dentures
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65
Q

objective data: Mouth
What do we inspect for?

What is the name of the palate and their description?

A

inspect for
- color
- moisture
- cracking
- lesions

Buccal mucosa
- palate - hard and soft

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66
Q

objective data: Teeth and gums
what condition are we looking for?

A
  • condition - decay/color
  • Number of teeth (any absent)
  • occlusion - uppers rest on Lower - malocclusion
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67
Q

Objective data: Tongue

A
  • color
  • moist
  • lesions
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68
Q

Objective data: palate
Description
What test do we do for what CN?
What is in the back of the throat and it’s description?

A

Palate
- anterior hard, posterior soft
- Uvula: fleshy pendent - midline
- Say “ah” tests cranial nerve X the vagus nerve

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69
Q

Objective Data: throat

A
  • note color, exudate, lesions
  • Check gag (CN IX, X)
  • Breath odor
  • Tonsils - free of exudate
  • Grade:

1+ visible
2+ halfway between tonsils
3+ touching uvula
4+ touching each other

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70
Q

Newborn mouth assessment

A

No teeth, assess suck reflex, intact lip and palate

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71
Q

Macroglossia

A

enlarged tongue

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72
Q

leukoplakia

A

white spot on tongue

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73
Q

kopliks spot

A

white spots on the bottom lip, measles possibly

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74
Q

mucocele

A

mucus bubble near gums, benign and goes on its own

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75
Q

angular cheilitis

A

cracks on side of lips
- from denture use or too much saliva

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76
Q

furuncle

A

bubble filled with fluid in one of the noses, painful

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77
Q

ankyloglossia

A

a short frenulum (the line under your tongue)

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78
Q

malocclusion

A

top teeth don’t rest comfortable on the bottom teeth

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79
Q

Perforated septum

A

hole in septum

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80
Q

understand face anatomy bones for exam!

A
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81
Q

Face anatomy muscle movement is CN #?

A

CN VII

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82
Q

C7 tells us what
(Not a cranial nerve)

A

where neck ends and thoracic begins

83
Q

need to know lymph nodes

A
84
Q

finding with maxillary/frontal sinuses

A

no pain but pressure

85
Q

SSMMBMBSBBMM (CN I-XII)

A

some say marry money buy my big brother says big brains matter more

86
Q

sternomastoid has lymph nodes including

A

posterior and anterior cervical chain lymph nodes

87
Q

what is an enlarged lymph node called

A

lymphadenopathy

88
Q

pulse we can palpate on the head

A

temporal pulse

89
Q

lymphedema

A

swollen lymph nodes

90
Q

how to assess edema

A

pitting edema, push on the area

91
Q

fontanels should be what?
Other considerations for the fontaneles?

A

flat

if not, dehydration is inward and outward is increased CP or fluid excess

92
Q

pregnant ladies have swollen thymus bc of

A

increase in hormones

93
Q

pregnant people may have chloasma which is

A

fibrous pigmentation that looks like a mask or mustache looking

94
Q

tremors with age are normal or not

A

yes, its normal

95
Q

Balance test is called the

A

rhonberg

96
Q

impacted cerumen is…

A

common but reversible cause of hearing loss in older people

97
Q

The ear is a common sight for what type of cancer?

A

Skin cancer

98
Q

anosmia means

A

altered sense of smell

99
Q

development considerations for infant and children
(Weight and length)

A

weight
- upright scale is 2-3

Length
- measure supine until age 2

100
Q

lifestyle modifications (the 3 typical)

A
  • weight
  • alcohol/smoke use
    -diet
101
Q

CNS: cerebral cortex
Center for what?
2 and 4 of what?

A

center for higher functions
- 2 Hemispheres
- 4 lobes

102
Q

the 6 components of the CNS

A

TBH-CBS

  • Thalamus
  • Basal Ganglia
  • Hypothalamus
  • Cerebellum
  • Brain Stem
  • Spinal Cord
103
Q

CNS Pathways: Sensory. what are the 2 tracts

A

Spinothalamic tract
Posterior Tract

104
Q

CNS Pathways: MOTOR, what are the 2 tracts

A
  • Pyramidal (Corticospinal) tract
  • Extrapyramidal Tract
105
Q

what are the 2 motor neurons?

A

upper and lower motor neurons

106
Q

the PNS consists of nerves, what are the 2 nerves and how many pairs for each

A

Cranial nerve = 12 pairs

Spinal nerves = 31 pairs (dermatomes)

107
Q

Which CN are sensory: contain only Afferent fibers

A

CN I olfactory
CN II Optic
CN VIII Vestibulocochlear

108
Q

Which CN are motor: contain only Efferent fibers

A

CN III (Oculomotor)
CN IV (Trochlear)
CN VI (Abducens)
CN XI (Accessory)
CN XII (Hypoglossal)

109
Q

What involuntary muscles are innervated by the PNS autonomic nervous system

also, what is the function of this?

A
  • Cardiac muscle
  • Smooth muscle
  • Glands

Function: to maintain the body’s homeostasis

110
Q

The reflex arc is part of the function of which nervous system?

A

the Peripheral NS

111
Q

Subjective data for neuro assessment

A
  • headache
  • Head injury
  • Dizziness/vertigo/ syncope
  • seizures
  • tremors
  • weakness
  • difficulty with coordination
  • numbing or tingling
  • difficulty swallowing
  • history
  • environmental hazards
112
Q

Health promotion for Older adults (Neuro system)

A
  • fall prevention
  • understanding cautions wth taking medications
113
Q

Health promotion for patients at risk for impaired intracranial regulation

A
  • wearing a medical alert bracelet
  • discussing care plans at school or workplace
  • helmets for young children in case of seizure
114
Q

health promotion for patients wth history of stroke, seizure disorder, or brain injury

A
  • understand the side effects of prescription and OTC meds
  • avoid alcohol and nicotine
115
Q

3 types of exams for neuro assessment

A

Screening neurological exam - for well persons with no sig. subjective findings

  • Complete neurological exam - for persons with neurologic concerns or findings
  • neurologic recheck- person requiring periodic reassessment
116
Q

for the neurologic screening exam, it is screening for a mental status concerning which CN?
What motor function?
What sensory function?
What reflexes?

A

Mental Status
* CN: II, III, IV, V, VI, VII
* Motor Function: Gait/balance
* Sensory Function: Pain, light touch, vibration
* Reflexes: Biceps, triceps, patellar, achilles

117
Q

for the Complete exam, it is concerning which CN?
What motor function?
What sensory function?
What reflexes?

A

Mental Status
* CN II-XII
* Motor Function: size, strength, tone, gait, balance, RAM
* Sensory: pain, light touch, vibration, position sense, stereognosis,
graphesthesia
* Reflexes: DTR’s, superficial, plantar

118
Q

For the recheck neuro assessment, it is looking for what generally?

A
  • LOC
  • Motor function
  • pupillary response
  • Vital signs
119
Q

A complete Neuro Exam consists of what 5 things?

A
  • Mental Status
  • Cranial Nerves
  • Sensory System
  • Motor System
  • Reflexes
120
Q

For the mental status, at the patient we are looking at what 4 things?

A
  • Appearance
  • Behavior
  • Cognition: attention span, learning, memory
  • Thought process
121
Q

CN I olfactory

A

sense of smell

122
Q

CN II Optic

A

Visual acuity and confrontation

123
Q

CN III oculomotor, IV trochlear, VI abducens

A

EOM’s by six cardinal positions, pupil constriction

124
Q

CN V trigeminal (includes motor and sensory)

A

Motor: strength of temporal and masseter muscles
Sensory: Sensation forehead, cheek, jaw

125
Q

CN VII Facial

A

motor: mobility and facial symmetry, Sensory: taste

126
Q

VIII Acoustic

A

normal conversation, whispered words, weber and rinne

127
Q

CN IX Glossopharyngeal and CN X Vagus

A

uvula and soft palate rise “ahhh”,gag reflex, smooth voice sounds

128
Q

CN XI spinal accessory

A

strength of sternomastoid and trapezius muscle

129
Q

CN XII Hypoglossal

A

tongue midline
“light, tight, dynamite”

130
Q

what is oxygenation

A

the process of providing oxygen to all cells of the body

131
Q

Function of the respiratory system

A
  • obtain O2 from atmosphereic air
  • Transport air through respiratory tract to alveoli
  • Diffuse O2 into blood to be carried to all cells of the body
132
Q

What are the 2 things that the respiratory system function achieves through ventilation?

A

inspiration and expiration

133
Q

what is respiration?
What is the term commonly used with?

A

Exchange of O2 and CO2 at the cellular level
- Ventilation

134
Q

What process is breathing typically associated with?

A

Autonomic process

135
Q

What should be immediately addressed when talking about breathing?

A

Alterations in breath patterns

136
Q

when doing inspiration, what happens to the torso/lung anatomy?

A

chest size increases, diaphragm contracts (drops lower) - creates a slightly negative pressure (air flows in)

137
Q

What happens to the torso, lung anatomy during expiration?

A

the action is passive (easier) so the:
- Diaphragm relaxes (air flows out)

138
Q

eupnea means what

A

normal breathing

139
Q

disorders/diseases related to dyspnea

A
  • heart issue
  • pulmonary issue
  • viral/bacterial infection
  • chronic condition: Emphysema, lung cancer, COPD, Asthma
  • Note orthopnea
  • upper/lower respiratory infection
140
Q

COLDSPA related to Chest Pain

A
  • Can be caused by musculoskeletal
  • a dull achiness - more respiratory in nature
  • middle of the chest can be related to digestive issue

ONSET
- respiratory in nature probably started sooner than later
if pulmonary in nature, thoracic muscles in the rib cage might get inflamed or irritated
- can be a more chronic respiratory disorder

LOCATION
- is it in the center of chest or all over? does it extend to the back of the thorax?

DURATION

Is it continuous or intermittent

SEVERITY

if pain is severe, can be cardiovascular musculoskeletal, respiratory, or digestive.

PATTERN

Relieved by rest, meds, activity??

141
Q

COLDSPA for Cough

A

CHARACTER

  • Is it productive or not? if so, does anything cough up?
  • white cough-up is an infection with bronchitis
  • yellow/green is a bacterial infection
  • black is dried blood
  • Rust-colored = tuberculosis
  • pink-frothy sputum = pulmonary edema

SEVERITY

Need to assess how bad the cough is, not necessarily pain
Does cough happen at certain times of the day? (maybe bronchitis)
If morning = smokers cough
overnight = drainage from upper resp. going down

142
Q

Why is GERD (gastroesophageal reflux disease) included in the respiratory system assessment?

A
  • Can feel burning in the throat in nature and affect the respiratory system
  • People who have Asthma have an increased likelihood of getting GERD
143
Q

Personal health history questions for thorax lungs assessment? (6)

A
  • Prior respiratory problems
  • Thoracic surgery, biopsy, trauma
  • Tested for or diagnosed with allergies?
  • Taking any medications?
  • Chest X-ray, TB skin test, Influenza immunization? any pulmonary studies?
  • Have you traveled outside of the U.S.?
144
Q

Thorax & lungs: Family history questions to ask?

A
  • history of lung disease? Pulmonary disorders in the family?
  • Did any family members smoke when you were growing up
145
Q

Thorax and lungs: Lifestyle and health practices questions to ask

A
  • Describe your usual dietary intake
  • Do you smoke or use tobacco products?
    If yes,
  • when start?
  • how much?
  • When do you smoke?
  • Tried quitting?
    Environmental exposure?
    ADLs?
  • experiencing stress? does it affect breathing?
  • Taking herbal medicines? Alternative therapies?
146
Q

Thorax and lungs: Health Promotion Opportunities? (3)

A
  • Immunizations?
  • Smoking Cessation?
  • Weight Maintenance?
    Exercise?
147
Q

thorax and lungs: what would you look for during inspection? (4)

A

facial expression: pursed lips, nasal flaring
LOC: drowsiness, restlessness
Skin color and condition: lips, nail beds, clubbing
Respirations: quality, effort, even
- uses of accessory muscles

148
Q

thorax and lungs: what would you do for inspection? (shape and configuration)

A

shape and configuration

  • spinous process straight
  • Downward sloping of ribs
  • 90 degrees costal angle
  • AP < Transverse
  • Note position to breath - tripod? Do they look comfortable?
149
Q

Thorax and lungs: palpation for what feeling

A
  • tenderness
  • Sensation, temperature
  • Crepitus, Masses
  • Chest Expansion
  • Tactile Fremitus
150
Q

Thorax and lungs: percussion is hitting for noting what?
What is resonance?
What is hyper resonance?
What woould be a dull sound?

A

Lung fields: note predominant tone
- Resonance: low-pitched, clear, hollow sound heard over normal lung tissue

  • hyper resonance: lower-pitched, booming sound heard when too much air is present, ex: Emphysema
  • Dull: soft, muffled thud heard with density in lungs, ex: pneumonia, atelectasis, tumor, pleural effusion
151
Q

Thorax and lungs assesment: Auscultation, what we doing to the patient? (2)

A
  • we are using the diaphragm of the stethoscope
  • Look at 6-8 points
152
Q

if during lung sound auscultation, you hear something off? what do u do?

A

have the patient cough and listen again

153
Q

bronchophony is associated with what?

A

saying the word 99

154
Q

Egophony is associated with what?

A

saying ee but sounds like “a”

155
Q

Pediatric patients: what are we inspecting for the thorax? (5)

A

rounded thorax until age 6
- chest circumference < head until age 2
- first respiratory assessment at birth - Apgar score
- Breathes through nose until 3 months
- Use diaphragm to breath
- Periods of apnea common

156
Q

pediatric patients: what are we palpating?
percussioning?
auscultationing?

A
  • encircle thorax with both hands
  • limited use
  • Auscultation - bronchovesicular in peripheral lung fields until age 5-6
157
Q

pregnant patient: thorax assessment considerations (4)

A
  • Thoracic cage may appear wider (inc. AP diameter)
  • Deeper respirations
  • Thoracic breathing
  • Faster resp. rate, SOB in Late pregnancy
158
Q

Clients with history of asthma have an….,……..condition.

A

increased risk of certain condition

159
Q

geriatric patient: thorax assessment considerations

A
  • chest cage shows inc. anteroposterior diameter, giving a round barrel shape and kyphosis or an outward curvature of the thoracic spine
  • Chest expansion may be somewhat decreased, although still symmetric
  • Tend to tire easily during auscultation when deep mouth breathing is required
160
Q

what is pectus excavatum

A

chest is inward

161
Q

what is pectus carinatum

A

Chest is outward (pigeon chest)

162
Q

what is kussmauls respirations

A

rapid deep breaths then normal, then alternates

163
Q

cheyne-stokes

A

fast, then slow, then fast, then slow deep breaths

164
Q

tachypnea

A

fast breathing but even

165
Q

bradypnea

A

slow breathing

166
Q

word for sensorineural hearing loss resulting from nerve degeneration

A

presbycusis

167
Q

snellen test and is 20/20 tests for what?

A

visual acuity

168
Q

hearing loss commonly found in younger adults

A

Otosclerosis

169
Q

cranial nerve that stimulated lateral movement of eyes?

A

CN VI Abducens

170
Q

what sinuses are palpable

A

maxillary and frontal

171
Q

term for drooping of the upper eyelid

A

ptosis

172
Q

substance that forms a sticky barrier to protect the tympanic membrane

A

cerumen

173
Q

term for pupils with 2 different sizes

A

anisocoria

174
Q

when patient feels as though the room is spinning, they feel this type of vertigo

A

objective vertigo

175
Q

these individuals are subject to nasal congestion and episodes of epistaxis due to normal physiological changes

A

pregnant people

176
Q

gray-white circle around the limbus due to the deposition of lipid material

A

arcus senilis

177
Q

site where our upper and lower eyelids meet

A

Canthus

178
Q

unequal pupil size suspects what?

A

inc. intracraneal pressure

179
Q

romberg test is for what cranial nerve

A

CN VIII

180
Q

air-filled pockets in the skull that produce mucous

A

sinuses

181
Q

salivary gland under tongue

A

sublingual gland

182
Q

what is the grade for tonsils touching the uvula

A

3+

183
Q

cessation means what

A

means to stop

184
Q

leading cause of blindness in hispanic population?

A

open-angle glaucoma

185
Q

what is the normal pathway of hearing

A

air conduction

186
Q

normal color of tympanic membrane

A

pearly gray

187
Q

gray color in mucosa (nose) is a sign of what?

A

allergies

188
Q

runny nose aka…

A

rhinorrhea

189
Q

structures in the nasal cavity increase surface area and humidify
- what helps prevent pathogens from getting into the body?

A

turbinates
- cilia

190
Q

most common site of nosebleeds

A

kiesselbachs plexus

191
Q

structure that allows for equalization of air pressure on either side of the tympanic membrane to prevent rupture

A

Eustachian tube

192
Q

way to check kids Eustachian tube

A

pull ear down and back

193
Q

direct reaction def

A

when shine light on eye and it reacts

194
Q

consensual def

A

when you shine a light on the other eye but eye with no light reacts the same way

195
Q

pulmonary edema is associated with what type of failure?

A

heart failure

196
Q
A
197
Q

5 areas for auscultation of heart

A

Aortic valve
Pulmonic
Erb
Tricuspid
Mitral valve

198
Q

Apical pulse is not visible in

A

Older and pediatric patients

199
Q

What is a thrill

A

A palpable vibration over the precordium or an artery

200
Q

Faster than 100bpm is considered?
Less than 60bpm is considered?

A

Tachycardia
Bradycardia

201
Q

What is pulse deficit

A

When radial pulse falls behind apical rate, indicating weak, ineffective contractions of the left ventricle

202
Q

Sinus arrhythmia can be a normal variant caused by…

A

Respirations in pediatric patients

203
Q

What are ejection sounds or clicks resulted from?

A

From an opening of deformed semilunar valves

204
Q

What sounds may accompany murmurs?

A

Thrills

Nurs 220 - Holistic Assessment (5 decks)

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