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Fundamentals of Path Flashcards

1
Q

Decrease in size

A

Atrophy

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2
Q

Increase in size

A

Hypertrophy

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3
Q

Increase in cell number

A

Hyperplasia

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4
Q

Change from one cell type to another

A

Metaplasia

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5
Q

Change in size, shape, function of a cell

A

Dysplasia (e.g. sickle cell anemia)

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6
Q

Disorganization of a cell (i.e. Cancer)

A

Anaplasia

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7
Q

Defective development of a cell

A

Hypoplasia

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8
Q

Lack of development

A

Aplasia

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9
Q

Absence of growth

A

Agenesis

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10
Q

Type of degeneration of the brain?

A

Liquefaction

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11
Q

Caseous degeneration associated with?

A

Lungs (TB)

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12
Q

Single lesion in TB =

A

Ghon Complex

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13
Q

Type of degeneration in Tertiary Syphilis?

A

Gummatous

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14
Q

Type of degeneration on peripheral nerves?

A

Wallerian

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15
Q

Wallerian degeneration occurs ___ to ___ (Proximal/Distal)

A

Distal to Proximal

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16
Q

Name for the system that includes the lymph organs, lymph capillary network, and lymph nodes

A

Reticuloendothelial System

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17
Q

AKA for the Reticuloendothelial system

A

Mononuclear Phagocyte System (MPS)

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18
Q

Immunity cells of the liver?

A

Kupffer cells

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19
Q

Immunity cells of the brain?

A

Microglial cells

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20
Q

Immunity cells of the lungs?

A

Dust cells

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21
Q

Immunoglobulins in mother’s milk?

A

IgA

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22
Q

Smallest, most numerous immunoglobulins?

A

IgG

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23
Q

First response, largest immunoglobulins?

A

IgM

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24
Q

Humoral immunity is associated with ___ cells. Found in spleen, tonsils, lymph, GI, and bone marrow

A

Antibodies (B cells)

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25
Q

Sensitized lymphocyte T cells (found in the thymus) are associated with ____ immunity.

A

Cellular

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26
Q

This type of immunity protects the body from its own defense system, bacteria, viruses, and prions

A

Cellular

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27
Q

Pneumonic for hypersensitivity reactions?

A

I
AM
I
T

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28
Q

Type I hypersensitivity reaction

A

Immediate (e.g. anaphylaxis)

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29
Q

Type II hypersensitivity reaction

A

Antibody Mediated (e.g. Myasthenia Gravis)

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30
Q

Type III hypersensitivity reaction

A

Immune (e.g. SLE, RA)

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31
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity reaction

A

T-cell Mediated, aka Delayed (e.g. Dermatitis)

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32
Q

Type of WBC elevated in bacterial infection (these are phagocytic)

A

Neutrophils

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33
Q

Type of WBC elevated in viral infection or chronic disease

A

Lymphocytes

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34
Q

Type of WBC elevated in a chronic infection

A

Monocytes

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35
Q

Type of WBC elevated in allergic reaction or parasitic infection

A

Eosinophils

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36
Q

This type of WBC is similar to mast cells..it makes heparin and histamine. These are the “bad” guys

A

Basophils

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37
Q

Pneumonic for Ivory White Vertebra?

A

MPH

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38
Q

Ivory White Vertebra can be caused by? (MPH)

A

Mets (blastic)
Paget’s (blastic stage)
Hodgkin’s Lymphoma

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39
Q

Cell associated with Hodgkin’s lymphoma?

A

Reed Sternberg cell

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40
Q

Most common PRIMARY malignancy of the spine

A

Multiple Myeloma

41
Q

Multiple Myeloma is associated with ___ proteinuria

A

Bence Jones

42
Q

A RETROVIRUS that attacks T4 helper cells. Associated w/Kaposi’s Sarcoma and Parasitic pneumonia

43
Q

Most common type of hypothyroidism - autoimmune

A

Hashimoto’s

44
Q

Cancer of chromosome 8. In children, aggressive. ”Starry sky” cellular appearance. Associated with Epstein-Barr virus

A

Burkitt’s Lymphoma

45
Q

____ is present in ALL leukemia’s

46
Q

This leukemia peaks in children ages 3-5. Similar to Burkitt’s lymphoma (starry cell)

47
Q

This leukemia is most common in young adults (peak 15-20 yo)

48
Q

This leukemia is present in all ages, but peaks at 40-50 yo. Associated with a chromosomal abnormality (Philadelphia chromosome)

49
Q

This leukemia is simply associated with the elderly

50
Q

Fluids, proteins, and blood cells into the interstitial tissue

51
Q

Increased fluid in interstitial or serous cavities

52
Q

Purulent exudate (mostly neutrophils)

53
Q

Free fluid in the peritoneal cavity

54
Q

Whole body is swollen

55
Q

A protein mediator that activates and orchestrates the inflammatory response

56
Q

Right sided heart failure (disease of lungs or pulmonary vessels)

A

Cor Pulmonale

57
Q

A Berry aneurism occurs in what artery?

A

Anterior communicating branch

58
Q

Angina at rest

A

Prinzmetal

59
Q

Dissecting aneurysm common in ____ syndrome

A

Marfan’s

60
Q

Male, smoker = ___ disease (inflammation and damage to arteries that leads to blockage and eventually gangrene)

A

Buerger’s (Thromboangiitis obliterans)

61
Q

Cell suicide

62
Q

List the 5 steps of Emigration (immune response to injury - mostly neutrophils)

A
  1. Margination
  2. Rolling
  3. Tight adhesion
  4. Migration (across vessel wall)
  5. Diapedesis (migration to injured tissue)
63
Q

Increases vascular permeability

64
Q

Histamine is released during inflammatory responses by ____ cells

65
Q

Malignant tumors mostly end in ___ if of epithelial tissue origin or ____ if of connective tissue origin

A

Carcinoma, Sarcoma

66
Q

Pneumonic for the most common PRIMARY bone tumors

67
Q

Benign tumors usually end in ___ and are encapsulated

68
Q

The exceptions to the benign “oma” rule?

A

Melanoma, Multiple Myeloma

69
Q

List the 4 most common primary bone tumors (MOCE)

A

Multiple Myeloma
Osteosarcoma
Chondrosarcoma
Ewing’s Sarcoma

70
Q

Tumor of glandular tissue

71
Q

Benign, rare, young, destroys bone, epiphyseal origin

A

Chondroblastoma

72
Q

Most common benign bone tumor of the HAND

A

Enchondroma

73
Q

More than 1 enchondroma =

A

Ollier’s disease

74
Q

Benign tumor of smooth muscle

75
Q

Benign tumor of the cerebellum

A

Medulloblastoma

76
Q

Primary benign tumor of the heart

77
Q

Nocturnal pain relieved by ASPIRIN, radiolucent nidus, benign bone tumor

A

Osteoid osteoma

78
Q

Cafe au lait spots (Coast of Maine), compresses nerves (benign tumor)

A

Neurofibromatosis

79
Q

Benign tumor of the adrenal medulla and sympathetics

A

Pheochromocytoma (neuroblastoma)

80
Q

Benign tumor of skeletal muscle

A

Rhabdomyoma

81
Q

Tumor of all three germinal layers (e.g. teeth, hair, etc.)

82
Q

“Brittle bone” disease, blue sclera of the eye

A

Osteogenesis Imperfecta

83
Q

Aka Albers-Schoenberg disease. Stone bone, “sandwich vertebra”

A

Osteopetrosis

84
Q

This tumor is QUASI-MALIGNANT (can be both benign and malignant). Epiphyseal origin, lytic, knee, tends to recur

A

Giant Cell tumor

85
Q

Common malignant tumor of the large intestine

A

Adenocarcinoma

86
Q

Most common location for a chondrosarcoma?

87
Q

Malignant tumor, 5-20 yo, onion skin/laminated periosteal reaction, diaphyseal origin

A

Ewing’s Sarcoma

88
Q

Malignant tumor of smooth muscle

A

Leiomyosarcoma

89
Q

Primary malignant tumor of bone, SUNBURST periosteal reaction, most common in knee or pelvis

A

Osteosarcoma

90
Q

Malignant tumor from remnant of notochord. Found in sacrum or occipital

91
Q

Malignant tumor of astrocytes

A

Glioblastoma (astrocytoma)

92
Q

Carcinoma of the ovary, metastasized from GI tract

A

Krukenberg’s tumor

93
Q

Aka Plasma cell cytoma, REVERSED A/G RATIO, diaphyseal origin, Primary malignancy of bone, lytic

A

Multiple Myeloma

94
Q

Malignant tumor of the testes

95
Q

The primary cause of squamous cell carcinoma?

A

Cigarette smoking

96
Q

Malignant tumor of the kidney in children. Aka nephroblastoma. Associated with Deny’s-Drash syndrome

A

Wilms tumor

97
Q

Type of periosteal reaction in Mets and Multiple Myeloma?

98
Q

This primary malignant tumor of bone shows an IgG “M-spike” on electrophoresis

A

Multiple myeloma

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