Fundamentals Flashcards

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0
Q

The condition of being considerably overweight and refers to a person with a BMI of 30 or greater or who is at least 30 pounds over the recommended weight for their height.

A

Obesity

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1
Q

Alteration of muscle length surrounding a joint

A

Muscle Imbalance

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2
Q

Refers to a person with a BMI of 25 to 29.9 or who is between 25 to 30 pounds over the recommended weight for their height.

A

Overweight

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3
Q

Healthy total cholesterol level is less than?

A

200 mg/dl

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4
Q

A borderline high cholesterol level is between?

A

200 and 239 mg/dl

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5
Q

A high-risk level for cholesterol is?

A

More than 240 mg/dl.

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6
Q

The three levels of training in the OPT Model

A

Stabilization, Strength and Power

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7
Q

The type of diabetes associated with obesity, particularly abdominal obesity

A

Type 2 Diabetes

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8
Q

Carried in the bloodstream by protein molecules known as high-density lipoproteins (HDL) and low-density lipoproteins (LDL); also known as cholesterol and triglycerides.

A

Blood lipids

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9
Q

Healthy cholesterol level

A

=< 200

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10
Q

Borderline high cholesterol level

A

200 - 239

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11
Q

High cholesterol level

A

=> 240

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12
Q

Often referred to as juvenile diabetes because symptoms of the disease typically first appear in childhood as the result of the pancreas not producing insulin.

A

Type 1 Diabetes

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13
Q

Percent of Americans older than age 20 that are overweight

A

66%

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14
Q

Number of Americans that are obese

A

72 million

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15
Q

Low-back pain is a primary cause of musculoskeletal degeneration seen in the adult population, affecting nearly

A

80% of all adults

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16
Q

Research has shown low-back pain to be predominant among

A

Office workers, manual laborers, and people who sit for periods of time greater than 3 hours

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17
Q

Approximately what percentage of ACL injuries are non-contact injuries?

A

70%

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18
Q

The three strength levels within the OPT model

A

Strength endurance training, hypertrophy training and maximal strength training.

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19
Q

People in this stage do not exercise and do not intend to start in the next 6 months

A

Precontemplation

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20
Q

People in this stage do not exercise but are thinking about becoming more active in the next 6 months

A

Contemplation

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21
Q

People in this stage exercise occasionally but are planning to begin exercising regularly in the next month

A

Preparation

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22
Q

People in this stage are active but have not yet maintained this behavior for 6 months

A

Action

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23
Q

People in this stage have maintained change for 6 months or more

A

Maintenance

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24
Q

Neuron classification for neuron to neuron communication

A

Interneuron

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25
Q

Neuron classification for muscles or organs to brain and/or spinal cord communication

A

Sensory neuron

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26
Q

Neuron classification for brain and/or spinal cord to muscles or organs communication

A

Motor neuron

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27
Q

In an overhead press, the agonist is

A

Deltoid

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28
Q

In an overhead press, the stabilizer is

A

Rotator cuff

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29
Q

In an overhead press, the synergist is

A

Triceps

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30
Q

In an overhead press, the antagonist is

A

Latissimus dorsi

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31
Q

In a dumbbell row, the agonist is

A

Latissimus dorsi

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32
Q

In a dumbbell row, the stabilizer is

A

Rotator cuff

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33
Q

In a dumbbell row, the synergist is

A

Posterior deltoid, biceps

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34
Q

In a dumbbell row, the antagonist is

A

Pectoralis major

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35
Q

In a barbell squat, the agonist is

A

Gluteus maximus, quadriceps

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36
Q

In a barbell squat, the stabilizer is

A

Transverse abdominis

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37
Q

In a barbell squat, the synergist is

A

Hamstrings

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38
Q

In a barbell squat, the antagonist is

A

Psoas

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39
Q

The gland responsible for somatostatin

A

Hypothalamus

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40
Q

The gland responsible for growth hormone

A

Pituitary gland

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41
Q

The gland responsible for testosterone

A

Testes

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42
Q

The gland responsible for adrenaline

A

Adrenal glands

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43
Q

The gland responsible for Insulin

A

Pancreas

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44
Q

Levels significantly increase under times of stress to maintain an energy supply

A

Cortisol

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45
Q

Stimulates “fight or flight” response

A

Epinepherine and norepinephrine

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46
Q

Regulates satiety

A

Hypothalamus

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47
Q

Plays a fundamental role in growth and repair of tissue

A

Testosterone

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48
Q

Maintains steady glucose levels in the blood

A

Pancreas

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49
Q

Is primarily an anabolic hormone that is responsible for most of the growth and development during childhood

A

Growth hormone

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50
Q

Transports blood back to the heart

A

Veins

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51
Q

Gathers deoxygenated blood

A

Right atrium

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52
Q

Pacemaker for the heart

A

Sinoatrial node

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53
Q

Amount of blood pumped out of the hear with a contraction

A

Stroke volume

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54
Q

Largest blood vessel in the body

A

Aorta

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55
Q

Receives oxygenated blood

A

Left ventricle

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56
Q

What differentiates cardiac muscle from skeletal muscle

A

Intercalated discs

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57
Q

Sensory receptors responsible for sending distortion in body tissues

A

Mechanoreceptors

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58
Q

Receptors sensitive to change in length of the muscle and the rate of that change

A

Muscle Spindles

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59
Q

Receptors sensitive to change in tension of the muscle and the rate of that change

A

Golgi Tendon Organs

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60
Q

The material or substance on which an enzyme acts

A

Substrate

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61
Q

Organic compounds of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, which includes starches, cellulose, and sugars, and ate an important source of energy

A

Carbohydrates

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62
Q

One of three main classes of foods and a source of energy in the body. In food, there are two types: saturated and unsaturated.

A

Fat

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63
Q

The chemical or substrate form in which most fat exists in food as well as in the body

A

Triglycerides

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64
Q

Amino acids linked by peptide bonds, which consist of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, and usually sulfur, and that have several essential biologic compounds

A

Protein

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65
Q

The formation of glucose from non carbohydrate sources, such as amino acids

A

Gluconeogenesis

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66
Q

Which substrate rarely supplies much energy during exercise and in many descriptions is ignored as a significant fuel for energy metabolism

A

Protein

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67
Q

The primary end product after digestion of carbohydrates is the formation of

A

Glucose

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68
Q

When the chemical bonds that hold ATP together are broken, energy is released for cellular work. This leaves behind another molecule called ______ and an inorganic phosphate molecule (Pi).

A

Adenosine diphosphate

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69
Q

Weight lifting is powered by

A

The ATP-PC system

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70
Q

Sprinting (short duration running) is powered by

A

The glycolytic system

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71
Q

Long distance running is powered by

A

The oxidative system

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72
Q

The three oxidative or aerobic systems include:

A

Aerobic glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain

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73
Q

The respiratory quotient where 0% of calories are derived from fat and 100% of calories are derived from CHO

A

1.00

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74
Q

The respiratory quotient where 100% of calories are derived from fat and 0% of calories are derived from CHO

A

0.70

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75
Q

True or False: The gastrocnemius is superior to the rectus abdominis?

A

False

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76
Q

True or False: The quadriceps are located on the posterior aspect of the thigh?

A

False

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77
Q

True or False: The left foot is ipsilateral to the right foot?

A

False

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78
Q

True or False: The left foot is contralateral to the left hand?

A

False

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79
Q

True or False: The lumbar spine is more proximal to the sacrum than the sternum is?

A

True

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80
Q

True or False: The soleus is inferior to the hamstring complex?

A

True

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81
Q

True or False: The tarsals are more distal to the hip bone than the sacrum is?

A

True

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82
Q

True or False: The coccyx is more medial than the hip bone?

A

True

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83
Q

During a squat, the Agonists (prime movers) are the:

A

Gluteus maximus and quadriceps

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84
Q

During a squat, the Stabilizers are the:

A

Transverse adominis

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85
Q

During the squat, the Synergists are the:

A

Hamstrings

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86
Q

During the squat, the Antagonists are the:

A

Psoas

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87
Q

During the bench press, the Agonists (prime movers) are the:

A

Pectoralis major

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88
Q

During the bench press, the Antagonists are the:

A

Posterior deltoid

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89
Q

During the bench press, the Stabilizers are the:

A

Rotator cuff

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90
Q

During the bench press, the Synergists are the:

A

Triceps brachii and Anterior deltoid

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91
Q

Integrating sensory information with past experiences to produce a response.

A

Motor Control

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92
Q

Using information from mechanoreceptors to sense position and limb movements.

A

Proprioception

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93
Q

Leads to a permanent change in the capacity to produce skilled movements.

A

Motor learning

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94
Q

Change in motor skill behavior over time.

A

Motor development

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95
Q

According to the American Heart Association ideal blood pressure is

A

< 120/80 mm Hg

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96
Q

The Durnin-Womersley formula measures the skinfolds of which anatomical locations?

A

Biceps, triceps, subscapular, iliac crest

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97
Q

Positioned above a point of reference

A

Superior

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98
Q

Positioned below a point of reference

A

Inferior

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99
Q

Posiitioned nearest the center of the body, or point of reference

A

Proximal

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100
Q

Positioned farthest from the center of the body, or point of reference

A

Distal

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101
Q

On the front of the body

A

Anterior (or Ventral)

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102
Q

On the back of the body

A

Posterior (or Dorsal)

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103
Q

Positioned near the middle of the body

A

Medial

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104
Q

Positioned toward the outside of the body

A

Lateral

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105
Q

Positioned on the opposite side of the body

A

Contralateral

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106
Q

Positioned on the same side of the body

A

Ipsilateral

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107
Q

An imaginary bisector that divides the body into left and right halves

A

Sagittal Plane

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108
Q

An imaginary bisector that divides the body into front and back halves

A

Frontal Plane

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109
Q

An imaginary bisector that divides the body into top and bottom halves

A

Transverse Plane

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110
Q

A straightening movement in which the relative angle between two adjacent segments increases

A

Extension

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111
Q

A movement in the frontal plane away from the midline of the body

A

Abduction

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112
Q

A movement in the frontal plane back toward the midline of the body

A

Adduction

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113
Q

The three primary types of muscle actions:

A

Isotonic (eccentric and concentric), isometric and isokinetic

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114
Q

Muscle action where force is produced, muscle tension is developed, and movement occurs through a given range of motion

A

Isotonic

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115
Q

Muscle action where no visible movement with or against resistance

A

Isometric

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116
Q

Muslce action where the speed of movement is fixed, and resistance varies with the force exerted.

A

Isokinetic

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117
Q

Moving in the same direction as the resistance

A

Eccentric

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118
Q

Moving in the opposite direction of force

A

Concentric

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119
Q

Fat standard: Essential body fat for men

A

3 - 5%

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120
Q

Fat standard: Essential body fat for women

A

8 - 12%

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121
Q

Fat standard: Body fat for althletic men

A

5 - 13%

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122
Q

Fat standard: Body fat for althletic women

A

12 - 22%

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123
Q

Fat standard: Recommended fat for 34 and younger men

A

8 - 22%

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124
Q

Fat standard: Recommended fat for 34 and younger women

A

20 - 35%

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125
Q

Fat standard: Recommended fat for 35 - 55 men

A

10 - 25%

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126
Q

Fat standard: Recommended fat for 35 - 55 women

A

23 - 38%

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127
Q

Fat standard: Recommended fat for 56 and older men

A

10 - 25%

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128
Q

Fat standard: Recommended fat for 56 and older women

A

25 - 38%

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129
Q

Waist-to-Hip ratio target for men

A

< .95

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130
Q

Waist-to-Hip ratio target for women

A

< .80

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131
Q

What are the FITTE factors?

A

Frequency, Intensity, Time, Type and Enjoyment

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132
Q

What are the six relative intensity classifications used by NASM?

A

Very light, light, moderate, hard, very hard, and maximal

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133
Q

During a squat assessment, when the knees come together the potential overactive muscles are:

A

Tensor fascia latae, Adductor complex, Vastus lateralis, Bicep femoris (short head)

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134
Q

During a squat assessment, when the client leans forward the potential overactive muscles are:

A

Gastrocnemius, Soleus, Hip flexor complex, Abdominal complex

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135
Q

During a squat assessment, when the client leans forward the potential underactive muscles are:

A

Gluteus maximus, Anterior tiblias, Erector spinae

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136
Q

During a squat assessment, when the client’s arms fall forward the potential overactive muscles are:

A

Latissimus dorsi, Pectoralis major/minor, Teres major

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137
Q

During a squat assessment, when the client’s arms fall forward the potential underactive muscles are:

A

Mid/lower trapezius, Rhomboids, Rotator cuff

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138
Q

During a single leg squat assessment, when the client’s knee moves inward the potential overactive muscles are:

A

Adductor complex, Tensor fascia latae, Vastus lateralis, Bicep femoris (short head)

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139
Q

During a single leg squat assessment, when the client’s knee moves inward the potential underactive muscles are:

A

Gluteus medius/maximus, VMO

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140
Q

During a pulling assessment, when the client’s shoulders elevate the potential overactive muscles are:

A

Upper trapezius, Levator scapulae, Sternocleidomastoid

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141
Q

During a pulling assessment, when the client’s shoulders elevate the potential underactive muscles are:

A

Mid/lower trapezius

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142
Q

The ability of the nervous system to recruit the correct muscles to produce force, reduce force, and dynamically stabilize the body’s structure in all three planes of motion.

A

Neuromuscular efficiency

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143
Q

The combination of flexibility and the nervous system’s ability to control range of motion efficiently.

A

Dynamic ROM

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144
Q

Capability to be elongated or stretched.

A

Extensibility

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145
Q

The normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allows the full range of motion of a joint.

A

Flexibility

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146
Q

In a cable pulldown, the prime mover is:

A

Latisimus dorsi

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147
Q

In a cable pulldown, the synergist is:

A

Trapezius

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148
Q

In a cable pulldown, the stabilizer is:

A

Rotator cuff

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149
Q

In the Cumulative injury cycle, in what order do the six elements flow?

A

Tissue trauma, Inflammation, Muscle spasm, Adhesions, Altered neuromuscular control, muscle imbalance.

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150
Q

Consistently repeating the same pattern of motion, such as sitting for long periods of time while working on a computer can cause

A

Pattern overload

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151
Q

If the muscle fibers are lengthened, inelastic connective tissue fibers act as roadblocks, preventing the muscle fibers from moving properly. This creates alterations in normal tissue extensibility and causes

A

Relative flexibility

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152
Q

In the Integrated Flexibility Continuum, corrective flexibility includes:

A

Self-myofascial release and static stretching

153
Q

In the Integrated Flexibility Continuum, active flexibility includes:

A

Self-myofascial release and active-isolated stretching

154
Q

In the Integrated Flexibility Continuum, functional flexibility includes:

A

Self-myofascial release and dynamic stretching

155
Q

Anterior Tibialis

A

Front of the lower leg (chin)

156
Q

Posterior Tobialis

A

Back of lower leg (interior calf)

157
Q

Soleus

A

Long calf muscle

158
Q

Gastrocnemius

A

Short, top calf muscle

159
Q

Peroneus Longus

A

Outer calf muscle

160
Q

Biceps Femoris - long head

A

Outside long hamstring muscle

161
Q

Biceps Femoris - short head

A

Outside, shorter and lower hamstring muscle

162
Q

Semimembranosus

A

Inside hamstring muscle

163
Q

Semitendinosus

A

Middle hamstring muscle

164
Q

Vastus Lateralis

A

Outside upper quadricep

165
Q

Vastus medialis

A

Lower inner quadricep

166
Q

Vastus intermedius

A

Middle lower quadricep

167
Q

Recrudescence Femoris

A

Hip to thigh quadricep

168
Q

Adductor Longus

A

Hip musculature

169
Q

Adductor Magnus - Anterior Fibers

A

Hip musculature

170
Q

Adductor Magnus - Posterior Fibers

A

Hip musculature

171
Q

Adductor Brevis

A

Hip musculature

172
Q

Gracilis

A

Hip musculature

173
Q

Pectineus

A

Hip musculature

174
Q

Gluteus Medius

A

Outer butt

175
Q

Gluteus Minimus

A

Lower outer butt

176
Q

Gluteus Maximus

A

Main body of the butt

177
Q

Tensor Facia Latae

A

Outer thigh from hip to knee

178
Q

Psoas

A

Back to hip girdle

179
Q

Iliacus

A

Inner hip girdle

180
Q

Sartorius

A

Inner thigh to outer hip

181
Q

Piriformis

A

Front of the hip

182
Q

Rectus Abdominis

A

Main body of stomach

183
Q

External Oblique

A

Outer side of stomach

184
Q

Internal Oblique

A

Outer side of stomach (lower)

185
Q

Traverse Abdominis

A

Outer side of stomach (ribs)

186
Q

Diaphragm

A

Below lungs

187
Q

Iliocostalis

A

Spinal musculature

188
Q

Longissimus

A

Spinal musculature

189
Q

Spinalis

A

Spinal musculature

190
Q

Quadratus Lumborum

A

Spinal musculature

191
Q

Multifidus

A

Spinal musculature

192
Q

Latissimus Dorsi

A

Outer back muscles

193
Q

Serratus Anterior

A

Outer back (upper, ribs)

194
Q

Rhomboid Major

A

Between shoulder blades

195
Q

Rhomboid Minor

A

Between shoulder blades (higher)

196
Q

Lower Trapezius

A

Center back

197
Q

Middle Trapezius

A

Middle upper back

198
Q

Upper Trapezius

A

Upper back to neck

199
Q

Pectoralis Major

A

Main body of chest muscle

200
Q

Pectoralis Minor

A

Outer portion of chest muscle

201
Q

Anterior Deltoid

A

Front shoulder

202
Q

Medial Deltoid

A

Middle shoulder

203
Q

Posterior Deltoid

A

Back shoulder

204
Q

Teres Major

A

Under back of shoulder

205
Q

Teres Minor

A

Smaller under back of shoulder (rotator cuff)

206
Q

Infraspinatus

A

Part of the Rotator cuff

207
Q

Subscapularis

A

Part of the Rotator cuff

208
Q

Supraspinatus

A

Part of the Rotator cuff

209
Q

Biceps Brachii

A

Bicep muscles

210
Q

Triceps Brachii

A

Tricep muscles

211
Q

Brachioradialis

A

Upper forearm

212
Q

Brachialis

A

Outer bicep

213
Q

Levator scapulae

A

Neck musculature

214
Q

Sternocleidomastoid

A

Neck musculature

215
Q

Scalenes

A

Neck musculature

216
Q

Longus Coli

A

Neck musculature

217
Q

Longus Capitis

A

Neck musculature

218
Q

The five components of fitness:

A

Cardiorespiratory, Muscular Strength, Muscular Endurance, Body Composition, and Flexibility

219
Q

The warm-up for Stabilization level clients (in order):

A

Self-myofascial Release, Static Stretching, Cardiorespiratory exercise

220
Q

Benefits of Cardiorespiratory exercise:

A

Decreased arterial blood pressure, Decreased cholesterol levels, and Decreased depression and anxiety

221
Q

Upper Crossed Syndrome

A

Characterized by the head pushed forward

222
Q

Lower Crossed Syndrome

A

Characterized by over-arching of back

223
Q

Pronation Distortion Syndrome

A

Characterized by the knees turning in

224
Q

In the core musculature, the local stabilization system is made up of which muscles?

A

Lumbar multifidus, Internal oblique, and Diaphragm

225
Q

In the core musculature, the global stabilization system is made up of which muscles?

A

Psoas major, Quadratus lumborum, Gluteus medius, and Rectus adominis

226
Q

In the core musculature, the movement system is made up of which muscles?

A

Latissimus dorsi, Hamstrings and Hip flexors

227
Q

Muscles that attach directly to the vertebrae

A

Local stabilization system

228
Q

Muscles that make up the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex

A

Core

229
Q

Muscles that attach from the pelvis to the spine

A

Global stabilization system

230
Q

Muscles that attach the spine and/or pelvis to the extremities

A

Movement system

231
Q

Forward and downward rotation of the ASIS

A

Anterior pelvic tilt

232
Q

The body’s effort to re-align the eyes when the head protrudes forward during movement

A

Pelvo-ocular reflex

233
Q

Pulling in the region just below the navel toward the spine and maintaining the cervical spine in a neutral position

A

Drawing-in manuever

234
Q

Co-contraction of global muscles to help re-train motor control

A

Bracing

235
Q

Demonstrates decreased activation in individuals with chronic low-back pain

A

Transverse abdominis and multifidus

236
Q

When properly activated, the transverse abdominis creates tension in what?

A

Thoracolumbar fascia

237
Q

Core level with little to no motion through the spine and pelvis

A

Core-stabilization

238
Q

Core level with dynamic eccentric and concentric movements of the spine throughout the full range of motion

A

Core-strength

239
Q

Core level designed to improve the rate of force production

A

Core-power

240
Q

Effects of joint dysfunction

A

Muscle inhibition, joint injury, swelling, altered proprioception

241
Q

When the body is stationary and does not demonstrate linear or angular movement

A

Balance

242
Q

Cumulative sensory input to the central nervous system from mechanoreceptors

A

Proprioception

243
Q

Shoes that adequate force reduction and stabilization are required for optimal force production

A

Integrated performance paradigm

244
Q

The ability to move and change directions under various conditions without falling

A

Dynamic balance

245
Q

Balance level that involves little joint motion of the balance leg

A

Balance-stabilization

246
Q

Balance level that involves dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg, through a full range of motion

A

Balance-strength

247
Q

Balance level that develops the ability to decelerate properly as well as high levels of eccentric strength, dynamic neuromuscular efficiency, and reactive joint stabilization

A

Balance-power

248
Q

In plyometric training, the deceleration, loading, yeilding, counter movement, or cocking phase.

A

Eccentric phase

249
Q

In plyometric training, the time between the end of loading or deceleration phase and the initiation of the unloading or force production phase.

A

Amortization phase

250
Q

In plyometric training, the unloading phase and involves force production.

A

Concentric phase

251
Q

Exercises that generate quick, powerful movements involving an explosive concentric muscle contraction preceded by an eccentric muscle action.

A

Plyometric (reactive) training

252
Q

Ability of muscles to exert maximal force output in a minimal amount of time.

A

Rate of force production

253
Q

To move with efficiency, forces must be dampened (eccentrically), stabilized (isometrically), and then accelerated (concentrically).

A

Integrated performance paradigm

254
Q

A squat jump stabilization is an example of which level in plyometric training?

A

Plyometric stabilzation

255
Q

A box jump-up with stabilization is an example of which level of plyometric training?

A

Plyometric stabilzation

256
Q

A power step-up is an example of which level of plyometric training?

A

Plyometric strength

257
Q

Butt kicks is an example of which level of plyometric training?

A

Plyometric strength

258
Q

The tuck jump is an example of which level of plyometric training?

A

Plyometric strength

259
Q

Ice skaters is an example of which level of plyometric training?

A

Plyometric power

260
Q

Single-let power step-ups is an example of which level of plyometric training?

A

Plyometric power

261
Q

Proprioceptive plyometrics is an example of which level of plyometric training?

A

Plyometric power

262
Q

The ability to react and change body position with maximal rate of force production, in all planes of motion and from all body positions, during functional activities.

A

Quickness

263
Q

The ability to move the body in one intended direction as fast as possible.

A

Speed

264
Q

The ability to accelerate, decelerate, stabilize, and change directions quickly while maintaining proper posture.

A

Agility

265
Q

Knee flexion is an example of what type of mechanics?

A

Frontal mechanics

266
Q

Hip flexion is an example of what type of mechanics?

A

Frontal mechanics

267
Q

Dorsiflexion is an example of what type of mechanics?

A

Frontal mechanics

268
Q

Knee extension is an example of what type of mechanics?

A

Backside mechanics

269
Q

Hip extension is an example of what type of mechanics?

A

Backside mechanics

270
Q

Plantar flexion is an example of what type of mechanics?

A

Backside mechanics

271
Q

Increased metabolic efficiency is an example of which type of resistance training benefit?

A

Physiologic

272
Q

Increased tissue tensile strength is an example of which type of resistance training benefit?

A

Physical

273
Q

Increased neuromuscular control is an example of which type of resistance training benefit?

A

Performance

274
Q

Increased bone density is an example of which type of resistance training benefit?

A

Physical

275
Q

Decreased body fat is an example of which type of resistance training benefit?

A

Physiologic

276
Q

Increased endurance is an example of which type of resistance training benefit?

A

Performance

277
Q

Improved cardiovascular efficiency is an example of which type of resistance training benefit?

A

Physiologic

278
Q

Beneficial cholesterol adaptations is an example of which type of resistance training benefit?

A

Physiologic

279
Q

Increased strength is an example of which type of resistance training benefit?

A

Performance

280
Q

Increased cross-sectional area of muscle fibers is an example of which type of resistance training benefit?

A

Physical

281
Q

Increased functional capacity to adapt to stressor such as increasing motor unit recruitment.

A

Resistance development

282
Q

A prolonged intolerable stressor produces fatigue and leads to a breakdown in the system or injury.

A

Exhaustion

283
Q

Initial reaction to stressor such as increased oxygen & blood supply to the necessary areas of the body.

A

Alarm reaction

284
Q

Describes how the body responds and adapts to stress.

A

General adaptation syndrome

285
Q

Pain or discomfort that is often felt 24 to 72 hours after intense exercise or unaccustomed physical activity.

A

Delayed-onset muscle soreness (DOMS)

286
Q

The division of a training program into smaller progressive stages.

A

Periodization

287
Q

Condition experienced by an individual training beyond the body’s ability to recover.

A

Overtraining syndrome

288
Q

The body adapts to demands placed on it.

A

Principle of specificity

289
Q

Ability of the neuromuscular system to produce the greatest force in the shortest time.

A

Power

290
Q

Neuromuscular system’s ability to produce internal tension to overcome an external load.

A

Strength

291
Q

Enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension.

A

Muscular hypertrophy

292
Q

Ability to produce and maintain force production for prolonged periods of time.

A

Muscular endurance

293
Q

The human movement system’s ability to provide optimal dynamic joint support to maintain correct posture during all movements.

A

Stabilization

294
Q

Energy demand placed on the body

A

Metabolic specificity

295
Q

Speed of contraction and exercise selection.

A

Neuromuscular specificity

296
Q

Weight and movements placed on the body

A

Mechanical specificity

297
Q

Increasing or decreasing weight with each set

A

Pyramid

298
Q

Performing one set of each exercise

A

Single-set

299
Q

Performing a multiple number of sets for each exercise

A

Multiple-set

300
Q

Performing two exercises in rapid succession and with minimal rest

A

Superset

301
Q

Alternating body parts trained from set to set, starting from the upper extremity and moving to the lower extremity

A

Vertical loading

302
Q

Performing all sets of an exercise before moving on to the next exercise.

A

Horizontal loading

303
Q

A routine that trains different body parts on separate days

A

Split-routine

304
Q

A variation of circuit training that alternates between upper body and lower body exercises

A

Peripheral heart action

305
Q

Process of choosing appropriate exercises for a client’s program

A

Exercise selection

306
Q

One complete movement of a single exercise

A

Repetition

307
Q

A group of consecutive repetitions

A

Set

308
Q

Amount of physical training performed within a specific period of time

A

Training volume

309
Q

Time taken to recuperate between sets

A

Rest interval

310
Q

Speed at which a repetition is performed

A

Tempo

311
Q

Number of training sessions performed during a specific period of time

A

Training frequency

312
Q

Level of effort compared to maximal effort

A

Training intensity

313
Q

Components that specify how each exercise is performed

A

Acute variables

314
Q

A purposeful system or plan put together to help an individual achieve a specific goal

A

Program design

315
Q

Exercises performed in controlled, yet unstable, environments

A

Endurance/Stabilization

316
Q

Exercises performed in stable environments

A

Strength

317
Q

Exercises performed in an explosive manner

A

Power

318
Q

The specific outline that details the form of training, length of time, future changes, and specific exercises to be performed

A

Training plan

319
Q

The largest cycle that typically covers a year of training (or annual plan)

A

Macrocycle

320
Q

The cycle that is typically one to three months in length (or monthly plans)

A

Mesocycle

321
Q

The cycle that is usually a week in length (or weekly plans)

A

Microcycle

322
Q

True or False: Children can perform endurance activities fairly well. However, children do not tolerate exercise in hot, humid environments because they have higher submaximal oxygen demands and a lower absolute sweating rate when compared with adults.

A

True

323
Q

True or False: Youths engaging in a resistance training program demonstrate improvements in strength and performance primarily due to increases in muscular hypertrophy.

A

False

324
Q

Current recommendations state that children and adolescents should get a minimum of ________ of physical activity daily.

A

60 minutes

325
Q

A normal physiological process of aging that results in arteries that are less elastic and pliable, which in turn leads to greater resistance to blood flow and thus higher blood pressure.

A

Arteriosclerosis

326
Q

Caused largely by poor lifestyle choices (smoking, obesity, sedentary lifestyle), restricts blood flow as the result of plaque buildup within the walls of arteries and thus leads to increased resistance and blood pressure.

A

Atherosclerosis

327
Q

Diabetes is the ____ leading cause of death in the United States.

A

7th

328
Q

Low blood sugar is also known as:

A

Hypoglycemia

329
Q

True or False: Clients with coronary heart disease are advised to estimate heart rate during exercise using existing prediction equations.

A

False

330
Q

Moderately forceful attempted exhalation against a closed airway, usually done by closing one’s mouth, punching one’s nose shut while pressing out as if blowing up a balloon.

A

Valsalva maneuver

331
Q

A decrease in the calcification or density of bone as well as reduced bone mass

A

Osteopenia

332
Q

Associated with normal aging and is attributable to a lower production of estrogen and progesterone, both of which are involved with regulating the rate at which bone is lost

A

Type 1: Primary Osteoporosis

333
Q

Caused by certain medical conditions or medications that can disrupt normal bone reformation, including alcohol abuse, smoking, certain diseases, or certain medications

A

Type 2: Secondary Osteoporosis

334
Q

The two most common forms of arthritis are:

A

Osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis

335
Q

Probability for an American Man to develop cancer in his lifetime:

A

44%

336
Q

Probability for an American Woman to develop cancer in her lifetime:

A

38%

337
Q

True or False: Medications used by clients with cancer can result in substantial adverse effects, including peripheral nerve damage, cardiac and pulmonary problems, skeletal muscle myopathy (muscle weakness and wasting), and anemia, as well as frequent nausea.

A

True

338
Q

True or False: Self-myofascial release is a preferred flexibility technique for clients receiving chemotherapy or radiation treatments

A

False

339
Q

The condition of a fibrous lung tissue, which results in a decreased ability to expand the lungs

A

Restrictive lung disease

340
Q

The condition of altered airflow through the lungs, generally caused by airway obstruction as a result of mucus production

A

Chronic obstructive lung disease

341
Q

Shortness of breath (labored breathing)

A

Dyspnea

342
Q

True or False: The use of upper body cardiorespiratory and resistance training exercises seem to be best tolerated by individuals with chronic lung disease

A

False

343
Q

Characterized by limping, lameness, or pain in the lower leg during mild exercise resulting from a decrease in blood supply (oxygen) to the lower extremities

A

Intermittent claudication

344
Q

Characterized by narrowing of the major arteries that are responsible for supplying blood to the lower extremities.

A

Peripheral arterial disease

345
Q

True or False: IF the client has a diagnosis of PAD, the symptoms are likely to be accurate for intermittent claudication, although they could still be associated with deconditioning

A

True

346
Q

Is Tyrosine essential, non-essential or semiessental?

A

Nonessential

347
Q

Is Methionine essential, non-essential or semiessental?

A

Essential

348
Q

Is Gluatamine essential, non-essential or semiessental?

A

Nonessential

349
Q

Is Tryptophan essential, non-essential or semiessental?

A

Essential

350
Q

Is Histidine essential, non-essential or semiessental?

A

Semiessential

351
Q

Is Glutamic Acid essential, non-essential or semiessental?

A

Nonessential

352
Q

Is Phenylalanine essential, non-essential or semiessental?

A

Essential

353
Q

Is Valine essential, non-essential or semiessental?

A

Essential

354
Q

Is Isoleucine essential, non-essential or semiessental?

A

Essential

355
Q

Is Alanine essential, non-essential or semiessental?

A

Nonessential

356
Q

What is the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range for protein intake?

A

10% - 35%

357
Q

Rate at which carbohydrate raises the amount of glucose in the bloodstream and the effect of insulin release

A

Glycemic Index

358
Q

Carbohydrates that provide bulk to the diet and increase satiety

A

Fiber

359
Q

Carbohydrates Glucose, fructose and galactose

A

Monosaccharides

360
Q

Carbohydrates Sucrose, lactose and maltose

A

Disaccharides

361
Q

Omega-3 fatty acids

A

Polyunsaturated fats

362
Q

Olive oils and canola oils

A

Monounsaturated fats

363
Q

Adding a hydrogen to unsaturated fatty acids to make them increase shelf life

A

Hydrogenation

364
Q

Good cholesterol

A

HDL

365
Q

Three fatty acids attached to a glycerol backbone

A

Triglicerides

366
Q

Amount of water that makes up the adult human body by weight

A

60%

367
Q

Recommended daily intake of water for sedentary men

A

13 cups

368
Q

Recommended daily intake of water for sedentary women

A

2.2 liters

369
Q

The additional amount of water that an individual on a fat-loss plan should consume for every 25 pounds above goal weight

A

8 ounces

370
Q

Recommended type of fluid to be consumed when exercising for less than 60 minutes.

A

Water

371
Q

Recommended type of fluid to be consumed when exercising exceeds 60 minutes

A

Sports drink (up to 8% carbohydrate)

372
Q

Recommended amount of fluid to be consumed 2 hours before exercise

A

14 - 22 ounces

373
Q

Recommended amount of water to be consumed for every 15 - 20 minutes of exercise

A

6 - 12 ounces

374
Q

Recommended amount of fluid that athletes and active individuals should consume for every pound of body weight that is lost after a bout of exercise.

A

16 - 24 ounces

375
Q

The highest average daily nutrient intake level likely to pose no risk of adverse health affects to most individuals

A

Tolerable upper intake livels

376
Q

The average daily nutrient intake level that is sufficient to meet the nutrient requirements of nearly all (97 - 98%) healthy individuals

A

Recommended dietary allowance (RDA)

377
Q

The recommended average daily nutrient intake level, based on observed approximations

A

Adequate intake

378
Q

The average daily nutrient intake level that is estimated to meet the requirement of half the healthy individuals

A

Estimated average requirement

379
Q

True or False: The DSHEA defines a dietary supplement as containing one or more of the following: vitamin; mineral; herb or other botanical; amino acid; dietary substance to supplement the diet by increasing the total dietary intake; concentrate, metabolite, constituent, or extract; or combination of the previously described ingredients.

A

True

380
Q

Can rapidly regenerate adenosine triphosphate (ATP) from adenosine diphosphate (ADP) to maintain high-intensity muscular efforts for up to about 10 seconds

A

Creatine

381
Q

Acts as a stimulate that primarily affects the central nervous system, heart and skeletal muscles

A

Caffeine