FUNDAMENTALS Flashcards
The nurse is caring for a client who had a fenestrated tracheostomy tube placed one week ago. Which statements are true regarding fenestrated tracheostomies? Select all that apply.
A. This type of tracheostomy does not require trach care
B. The client with a fenestrated tracheostomy can speak
C. This is the only type of tracheostomy used with mechanical ventilation
D. A fenestrated tracheostomy can be capped if the cuff is deflated
Explanation
Answer: B and D
A is incorrect. A client with a fenestrated tracheostomy will require the same amount of trach care as other types of tracheostomies. It is very important to keep the tracheostomy site clean to prevent skin breakdown, infections of the stoma, tracheitis, and respiratory infections.
B is correct. It is true that clients with a fenestrated tracheostomy can speak. Fenestrated tracheostomy tubes have a small opening in the outer cannula. This allows some air to escape through the larynx, which means that the client will be able to speak with this type of tube.
C is incorrect. Fenestrated tracheostomy tubes are not the only type of tracheostomy used with mechanical ventilation, there are also non-fenestrated tracheostomy tubes. A fenestrated tube would be used as a client progresses and is being weaned from breathing only through the tracheostomy to starting some breathing through the nose and mouth. Fenestrated tracheostomy can also be used with mechanical ventilation, but the cuff must be inflated.
D is correct. A fenestrated tracheostomy can be capped if the cuff is deflated. It is very important to remember to deflate the cuff if capping a fenestrated tracheostomy tube, because if the tube is capped and the cuff is still inflated the client will not be able to breathe at all.
NCSBN Client Need: Physiological adaptation
Topic: Alterations in Body Systems
Subject: Adult Health
Lesson: Respiratory
A client with left-sided pneumothorax had a chest tube inserted 3 hours ago. There is no fluctuation in the water-seal chamber of the Pleurovac. What should be the nurse’s first action?
A. Auscultate the client’s chest wall.
B. Assess the tubing for any kinks.
C. Instruct the client to take deep breaths.
D. Ask the client to turn from side to side.
Explanation
A is incorrect. The nurse should assess for breath sounds but should determine why there is no-tilling in the water-seal chamber first. Re-expansion of the lungs after 3 hours is too early to happen.
B is correct. If there is no-tilling in the water seal chamber, the nurse should first check the integrity of the chest tubes from the client’s chest wall down to the Pleurivac for dependent loops or kinks.
C is incorrect. The nurse should check the tubing for kinks or dependent loops first; afterward, the nurse can tell the client to deep breath and cough to push out clots through the pipe.
D is incorrect. Turning the client does not aid in troubleshooting the problem for the client.
Reference
Nugent, P., et al., Mosby’s Comprehensive Review of Nursing for the NCLEX-RN Examination. 20th Edition, Elsevier 2012
Simply stated, sensory deficits are:
A. Empirical losses.
B. Common with severe depression.
C. A normal part of the aging process.
D. Affective losses.
Explanation
The correct answer is A. Sensory deficits are empirical losses; the practical senses are vision, hearing, smell, and feel, or the feeling of tactile sensation like sensory abilities are.
Choice B is incorrect. Sensory deficits do not usually occur with depression; instead, feelings of hopelessness and hopelessness are common among clients affected with depression.
Choice C is incorrect. Although some sensory deficits, like decreased visual acuity and hearing, are more common among the elderly, those losses are not a normal part of the aging process.
Choice D is incorrect. Affect is the state of the person’s mood and expressions of emotion and not a sensory deficit.
Reference: Berman, Audrey, Snyder, Shirlee, and Geralyn Frandsen. Kozier and Erb’s Fundamentals of Nursing: Concepts, Process, and Practice.
The nurse is conducting client and family education about dietary considerations related to Parkinson’s disease. One priority consideration that the nurse should highlight in teaching is to address the risk of:
A. Too much fluid and drooling
B. loss of appetite and aspiration
C. lose stools and choking
D. difficulty swallowing and constipation
Explanation
Rationale: With Parkinson’s disease, eating problems include dysphagia, aspiration, constipation, and risk of choking. Fluid overload, diarrhea, and loss of appetite (anorexia) are problems not directly related to Parkinson’s disease. Drooling is a symptom of Parkinson’s disease; however, it does not take priority over aspiration and dysphagia.
Reference:
Black, JM, Hawkes, JH; Medical-Surgical Nursing: Clinical Care for Positive Outcomes 8th edition, Nebraska: Elsevier 2009
Silvestri, L. Saunders Comprehensive Review for the NCLEX-RN Examination,6th Edition. Saunders-Elsevier 2014
Ignatavicius DD, Workman LM. Medical-Surgical Nursing: Patient-Centered Collaborative Care, 7th ed. St. Louis, MO: Elsevier; 2013
A man is found lying on the ground, unconscious, covered with snow, and is brought to the ER to be treated. The nurse checks the client’s temperature and notes that it is 88° F. The nurse also notes respirations of 10, the pulse of 50, and blood pressure of 79/52 mm Hg. The nurse understands that the client is suffering from:
A. Mild Hypothermia
B. Moderate Hypothermia
C. Severe Hypothermia
D. Frostbite
xplanation
A is incorrect. Mild hypothermia presents with shivering, bradycardia or tachycardia. The patient may also be alert or may have lethargy or confusion.
B is correct. Manifestations of moderate hypothermia include decreased LOC or coma, hypoventilation, bradycardia, atrial fibrillation, hypovolemia, cessation of shivering, and possible hyperglycemia.
C is incorrect. Severe hypothermia manifests as coma, fixed and dilated pupils, bradycardia, apnea, hypotension, ventricular fibrillation, asystole.
D is incorrect. Frostbite is hypothermia in the extremities. Frostbitten areas may appear red and swollen or may be pale in color. Blisters containing clear of bloody purple fluid may appear.
Reference
Black, JM, Hawkes, JH; Medical-Surgical Nursing: Clinical Care for Positive Outcomes 8th edition, Nebraska: Elsevier
appropriate expected goal or expected outcome for this client?
A. The client will maintain a serum albumin of 1.5 to 2.0 g/dL.
B. The client will maintain a serum albumin of 2.0 to 2.5 g/dL.
C. The client will gain 0.5 kg bodily weight each day.
D. The client will gain 1 kg of bodily weight each day.
Explanation
Correct Answer is D
Correct. “The client will gain 1 kg of body weight each day” is an appropriate expected goal or expected outcome for this client who is receiving TPN (total parenteral nutrition) because of extensive and severe thermal burns.
Choice A is incorrect. “The client will maintain serum albumin of 1.5 to 2.0 g/dL” is not an appropriate expected goal or expected outcome for this client who is receiving TPN (total parenteral nutrition) because of extensive and severe thermal burns. TPN (complete parenteral nutrition) is being administered to this client because the caloric demands of the body significantly increase as a result of severe injuries and other disorders like cancer.
Choice B is incorrect. “The client will maintain serum albumin of 2.0 to 2.5 g/dL” is not an appropriate expected goal or expected outcome for this client who is receiving TPN (total parenteral nutrition) because of extensive and severe thermal burns. Although TPN (complete parenteral nutrition) is being administered to this client, the serum albumin should not be maintained at 2.0 to 2.5 g/dL because the normal albumin, which is higher than this, is necessary for the wound healing of this client.
Choice C is incorrect. “The client will gain 0.5 kg bodily weight each day” is not an appropriate expected goal or expected outcome for this client who is receiving TPN (total parenteral nutrition) because of extensive and serious thermal burns because this client should be gaining more weight than this to meet the significantly increased demands of the body as a result of severe burns and other disorders like cancer.
Reference: Knippa, Audrey, Sheryl Sommer, Brenda Ball et al. (2010) Nutrition for Nursing 4.0; ATI Nursing Education.
Your client has consumed an 8 ounce can of ginger ale, a 4-ounce container of apple sauce, and 6 ounces of lean meat for lunch. You will document this client’s fluid intake as:
A. 80
B. 160
C. 180
D. 240
explanation
Correct Answer is D
Correct. You will document this client’s fluid intake as 240 MLS or cc s because the client has consumed a total of 8 ounces of fluid and, because each ounce has 30 MLS or ccs, it is calculated as follows:
30 x 8 = 240 MLS or cc s
The apple sauce and lean meat do not count as fluid.
Choice A is incorrect. The client has consumed a total of 8 ounces of fluid, so the total consumed is more than 80 MLS or cc s. Try this calculation again.
Choice B is incorrect. The client has consumed a total of 8 ounces of fluid, so the total consumed is more than 160 MLS or cc s. Try this calculation again
Choice C is incorrect. The client has consumed a total of 8 ounces of fluid, so the total consumed is more than 180 MLS or cc s. Try this calculation again
Reference: Berman, Audrey, Snyder, Shirlee, and Geralyn Frandsen. (2016). Kozier and Erb’s Fundamentals of Nursing: Concepts, Process, and Practice (10th Edition)
A 15-month-old infant is brought to the well-baby clinic for immunizations. On assessment, he was found to have a “runny” nose, and his mother tells the nurse that he has had it for over a week. Overall assessment findings indicate that the baby is well, except for a mild upper respiratory infection. According to his immunization card, his last immunization was at nine months old when he received DPT 2, OPV 2, and HIB 2 vaccines. The plan of care for this infant would be:
A. Administer DPT 3, OPV3, HIB 3 and Hepatitis B vaccines
B. Administer DPT 3, OPV 3, HIB 3, hepatitis and MMR vaccines
C. refer the infant to the physician for mild upper respiratory tract infection
D. Do not administer any vaccine and schedule a return visit in 2 weeks to see if the URI has resolved
Explanation
At 15 months, the recommended vaccines are DPT 3, OPV 3, HIB 3, Hepatitis B, and MMR. A mild URI is not a contraindication to the administration of any vaccine.
It is not necessary to refer the child to a physician at the moment. The correct answer is option B. Options A, C, and D are incorrect.
Reference:
Pillitteri, A. Maternal and Child Health Nursing: Care of the Childbearing and Childbearing Family, 4th Edition; Lippincott, Williams & Wilkins
Select the developmental age group that is accurately paired with the normal number of hours of sleep over 24 hours that are expected for this group.
A. The neonate: 14 to 15 hours of sleep each day
B. The infant: 13 to 14 hours of sleep each day
C. The toddler: 12 to 14 hours of sleep each day
D. The preschool age child: 12 to 14 hours of sleep each day
Explanation
Correct Answer is C
Correct. Under normal circumstances, the toddler is expected to have 12 to 14 hours of sleep each day for over 24 hours.
Under normal circumstances, the average number of hours of sleep over 24 hours that are expected for these developmental age groups are:
The neonate: 16 to 18 hours of sleep each day The infant: 14 to 15 hours of sleep each day The preschool-age child: 11 to 13 hours of sleep each day
Choice A is incorrect. The neonate is expected to have more than 14 to 15 hours of sleep each day.
Choice B is incorrect. The infant is expected to have more than 13 to 14 hours of sleep each day.
Choice D is incorrect. The preschool-age child is expected to have less than 12 to 14 hours of sleep each day.
Reference: Berman, Audrey, Snyder, Shirlee, and Geralyn Frandsen. (2016). Kozier and Erb’s Fundamentals of Nursing: Concepts, Process, and Practice (10th Edition)
A patient is about to be inserted a Salem pump NG tube Which position should the nurse place the client?
A. Supine, with head of the bed elevated at 30° - 45°
B. Supine, with head of the bed elevated at 60° - 90°
C. Knee-chest position
D. Prone position
Explanation
A is incorrect. The nurse should position the patient so that the insertion of the NG tube is facilitated. An elevation of 30° - 45° is not enough to facilitate the movement of the machine down the GI tract.
B is correct. A supine position with a 60° - 90° elevation facilitates swallowing of the patient and lets gravity help in the movement of the tube down the GI tract.
C is incorrect. A knee-chest position does not facilitate the movement of the tube down the GI tract.
D is incorrect. A prone position does not facilitate the insertion of the NG tube.
Reference
Silvestri, L. Saunders Comprehensive Review for the NCLEX-RN Examination,6th Edition. Saunders-Elsevier 2014
Ignatavicius DD, Workman LM. Medical-Surgical Nursing: Patient-Centered Collaborative Care, 7th ed. St. Louis, MO: Elsevier; 2013
Black, JM, Hawkes, JH; Medical-Surgical Nursing: Clinical Care for Positive Outcomes 8th edition, Nebraska: Elsevier 2009
Select the client care supply or piece of equipment that is accurately paired with the correct type of asepsis.
A. Medical asepsis: An autoclave
B. Medical asepsis: Sterile gloves
C. Surgical asepsis: A single use blood pressure cuff
D. Surgical asepsis: An autoclave
Explanation
Correct Answer is D. An autoclave is used to sterilize client care supplies and equipment; therefore, an autoclave is accurately paired with surgical asepsis.
Choice A is incorrect. An autoclave is used to sterilize; therefore, it is not used for medical asepsis.
Choice B is incorrect. Sterile gloves are sterilized and used for sterile procedures, and not for medical asepsis procedures.
Choice C is incorrect. Single-use blood pressure cuffs are medically aseptic and not sterilized. Therefore, it is not an example of surgical asepsis.
References: Berman, Audrey, Snyder, Shirlee, and Geralyn Frandsen. (2016). Kozier and Erb’s Fundamentals of Nursing: Concepts, Process and Practice (10th Edition); and Sommer, Johnson, Roberts, Redding, Churchill et al. (2013) Fundamentals for Nursing Edition 8.0; ATI Nursing Education.DV
Which of these medications can be mixed in the same syringe without the risk of any incompatibility?
A. Dexamethasone and midazolam
B. Haloperidol and ketorolac
C. Hydrocortisone and midazolam
D. NPH and regular insulin
Explanation
Correct Answer is D
Correct. NPH insulin and regular insulin can and are often mixed in the same syringe without the risk of incompatibility.
Dexamethasone and midazolam cannot be mixed in the same syringe because they are not compatible; haloperidol and ketorolac cannot be incorporated in the same needle because they are not compatible, and hydrocortisone and midazolam cannot be mixed in the same syringe because they too are not compatible.
Choice A is incorrect. Dexamethasone and midazolam cannot be mixed in the same syringe because they are not compatible. Dexamethasone and other medications such as metoclopramide, however, are compatible and as such, they can be mixed in the same syringe.
Choice B is incorrect. Haloperidol and ketorolac cannot be mixed in the same syringe because they are not compatible. Haloperidol and other medications such as hydromorphone, however, are fit, and as such, they can be mixed in the same syringe.
Choice C is incorrect. Hydrocortisone and midazolam cannot be mixed in the same syringe because they are not compatible. Hydrocortisone and other medications such as metoclopramide, however, are compatible and as such, they can be mixed in the same syringe.
Reference: Kee, Joyce LeFever, Evelyn Hays, and Linda McCistion (2011) Pharmacology: A Nursing Process Approach 7th edition. Elsevier Saunders.
he client comes into the Emergency room complaining of unusual tiredness, ankle swelling, and seeing yellow rings all around. Upon assessment, the client has been experiencing loose bowels, and a review of medications reveals that the client is taking Digoxin. What is the nurse’s initial action?
A. Reassure the client that he will be okay.
B. Obtain an ECG.
C. Notify the physician and inform him of the findings.
D. Obtain a stool specimen.
Explanation
A is incorrect. The client presents signs of digitalis toxicity exacerbated by dehydration and hypokalemia brought about by loose bowel motion. The nurse would reassure the patient but should address his physiological problems beforehand.
B is incorrect. An ECG would be helpful to assess the cardiac status of the patient; however, the patient is showing clear signs of digitalis toxicity. The initial action of the nurse would be to inform the physician.
C is correct. Signs of digitalis toxicity include an unusual slow irregular pulse, rapid weight gain, yellow vision, unusual tiredness, ankle swelling. Loose bowels may lead to hypokalemia, which increases the toxic effects of digitalis. The nurse should immediately notify the physician that appropriate treatment can be started.
D is incorrect. Obtaining a stool specimen can be useful in ascertaining the cause of the patient’s loose stools. This is not, however, a priority nursing action.
Reference
Silvestri, L. Saunders Comprehensive Review for the NCLEX-RN Examination,6th Edition. Saunders-Elsevier 2014
Ignatavicius DD, Workman LM. Medical-Surgical Nursing: Patient-Centered Collaborative Care, 7th ed. St. Louis, MO: Elsevier; 2013.
Karch, A. Focus on Nursing Pharmacology, 3rd edition. Lippincott, Williams & Wilkins 2006
A client with thrombocytopenia is currently having epistaxis. The most appropriate nursing intervention should be:
A. Instruct the client to lie flat with his neck suspended
B. Ask client to sit upright, leaning slightly forward
C. Ask client to blow his nose, then put lateral pressure on his nose
D. Ask client to hold his nose while bending forward from the waist
Explanation
Rationale: In the event of epistaxis, the client should be instructed to assume an upright position, leaning slightly forward to help prevent an increase of vascular pressure in the nose and help prevent aspiration of blood. Option B is therefore the correct answer. Lying in the supine position would predispose the client to aspiration. Blowing the nose would risk dislodging any clotting that has occurred and promote further bleeding. Bending at the waist increases the vascular pressure in the nose that would lead to further bleeding instead of stopping it. Options A, C, and D are therefore incorrect.
Reference:
Ignatavicius DD, Workman LM. Medical-Surgical Nursing: Patient-Centered Collaborative Care, 7th ed. St. Louis, MO: Elsevier; 2013.
Black, JM, Hawkes, JH; Medical-Surgical Nursing: Clinical Care for Positive Outcomes 8th edition, Nebraska: Elsevier 2009
Select the age group along the life span that is accurately paired with a physiological characteristic that places them at risk for adverse effects, contraindications, side effects, and/or interactions relating to medications.
A. Neonates: Acidic gastric acids that affect absorption
B. Toddler: Immature hepatic functioning that affects distribution
C. The elderly: Decreased renal perfusion that affects excretion
D. Adolescents: An undeveloped blood – brain barrier
Explanation
Correct Answer is C
Correct. The elderly population, as the result of the regular changes of the aging process, is at high risk for adverse medication effects, contraindications, side effects, and interactions. Among these frequent changes of the aging process include decreased renal perfusion and functioning, decreased hepatic perfusion and functioning, lowered bodily water, reduced gastric acid production, increased adipose tissue, and polypharmacy as the result of multiple chronic diseases and disorders which also increase the elderly’s risk for adverse effects, contraindications, side effects and/or interactions.
Choice A is incorrect. Neonates can be affected by adverse effects, contraindications, side effects, and interactions with medications because their gastric acid is more alkaline and not more acidic.
Choice B is incorrect. Neonates and infants less than one year of age have immature hepatic functioning that affects distribution, not toddlers.
Choice D is incorrect. Neonates and infants less than one year of age have an undeveloped blood-brain barrier and not adolescents.
Reference: Berman, Audrey, Snyder, Shirlee, and Geralyn Frandsen. (2016). Kozier and Erb’s Fundamentals of Nursing: Concepts, Process, and Practice (10th Edition)
When communicating with a client who speaks a different language the nurse should
A. Speak loudly and slowly
B. Stand close to the client and speak in an exaggerated volume
C. Arrange for an interpreter when communicating with the client
D. Speak to the client and family together to promote comprehension and be understood
Explanation
Rationale: Arranging for an interpreter would be the best thing to do when communicating with a client who speaks a different language. Options A and B are inappropriate and are ineffective ways of communicating. Option D is inadequate because it does not ensure correct translation, and it violates the patient’s right to privacy.
References:
Silvestri, L. Saunders Comprehensive Review for the NCLEX-RN Examination,6thEdition. Saunders-Elsevier 2014
Ignatavicius DD, Workman LM. Medical-Surgical Nursing: Patient-Centered Collaborative Care, 7thed. St. Louis, MO: Elsevier; 2013.
client is scheduled for hip replacement surgery. She expresses anxiety to the nurse about the upcoming surgery. Which response by the nurse is most therapeutic?
A. “Everyone is nervous before any surgery. What you feel is completely normal.”
B. “Here’s what’s going to happen to you during the procedure. I will explain to you in detail.”
C. “Can you tell me what you have been told about the surgery?”
D. “Let me tell you about the care you will receive and the pain you should anticipate after the surgery.”
Explanation
Rationale: Open-ended questions that facilitate further discussion is most therapeutic in this situation. Option C provides the patient with an opportunity to express her thoughts further and would give the nurse a baseline of the patient’s knowledge and readiness for the surgery; thus, the correct answer. This way, the nurse can come up with appropriate explanations around what the client already knows and by filling in facts. Options A, B, and D will only increase the patient’s level of anxiety and are, therefore, incorrect.
Reference
Silvestri, L. Saunders Comprehensive Review for the NCLEX-RN Examination, 6th Edition. Saunders-Elsevier 2014
The nurse is taking care of a patient with cardiac arrhythmias—the physician orders to give an additional dose of digoxin. The nurse finds that the patient’s heart rate is only 40 bpm, and serum potassium level is critically low and relays her findings to the physician. The physician, however, insists and threatens, “Give the digoxin now, or I will have you sacked!” The best response by the nurse would be:
A. “Fine. I’ll give the digoxin now but this patient will die.”
B. “I don’t have to listen to anyone like you.”
C. “Don’t you raise your voice at me again or we’ll see who gets fired.”
D. “I think we should discuss this with the pharmacist or the unit manager now.”
Explanation
Rationale: Options A, B, and C are all aggressive forms of communication and are not becoming of a professional. They are incorrect. Option D is assertive, does not infringe on the physician’s rights, and inclined to keep the patient safe.
Reference:
Ignatavicius DD, Workman LM. Medical-Surgical Nursing: Patient-Centered Collaborative Care, 7th ed. St. Louis, MO: Elsevier; 2013.
Karch, A. Focus on Nursing Pharmacology, 3rd edition. Lippincott, Williams & Wilkins 2006
After talking to her family, an elderly client says that she wants to change the living will she wrote two weeks ago. The nurse’s most appropriate reply would be:
A. “You can only change your living a year after it is formulated.”
B. “Let me see if I can find someone to help you.”
C. “You can only make changes to your will after 3 weeks.”
D. “Let’s call your lawyer first and see what he thinks.”
Explanation
A is incorrect. Living wills can be changed by the client anytime and how many times they wish as long as they are competent in making decisions.
B is correct. It is the nurse’s responsibility to be the client’s advocate. She should be responsible for finding someone that can help the client with her wish.
C is incorrect. Living wills can be changed by the client anytime and how many times they wish as long as they are competent in making decisions.
D is incorrect. The client does not need to ask permission from her lawyer to change her living will.
Reference
Silvestri, L. Saunders Comprehensive Review for the NCLEX-RN Examination,6th Edition. Saunders-Elsevier 2014
Ignatavicius DD, Workman LM. Medical-Surgical Nursing: Patient-Centered Collaborative Care, 7th ed. St. Louis, MO: Elsevier; 2013
The nurse is talking to the patient’s son who was just diagnosed with Coronary Heart Disease. He is asking about the risk factors that can be modified to decrease the chances of acquiring CHD. The nurse educates him by saying that the following are modifiable risk factors for CHD:
A. Gender, Cholesterol levels, Obesity
B. Age, Elevated Blood Pressure
C. Stress, Age, Gender
D. Smoking, Obesity, Physical Activity
Explanation
A is incorrect. Gender is a non-modifiable risk factor, while Cholesterol levels and obesity are modifiable risk factors.
B is incorrect. Age is a non-modifiable risk factor. Blood pressure is a modifiable risk factor.
C is incorrect. Stress is a contributing risk factor, while age and gender are non-modifiable risk factors.
D is correct. Smoking, Obesity, and Physical activity are all modifiable risk factors in CHD.
Reference
Black, JM, Hawkes, JH; Medical-Surgical Nursing: Clinical Care for Positive Outcomes 8th edition, Nebraska: Elsevier 2009
Which of the following classifications of medications can be used as an adjuvant medication for the pharmacological management of pain?
A. An adrenergic
B. A cholingeric
C. An anxiolytic
D. An antiarrythmic medication
Explanation
Correct Answer is D
Correct. Some antiarrhythmic medications are used as an adjuvant medication for the pharmacological management of pain. Mexiletine is an example of an antiarrhythmic drug that is used as an adjuvant medication for the pharmacological management of pain.
Other classifications of medications that are used as an adjuvant medication for the pharmacological management of pain, in addition to some antiarrhythmic remedies, are antidepressants, corticosteroids, and anticonvulsant medications.
Choice A is incorrect. Adrenergic medications are not used as an adjuvant medication for the pharmacological management of pain.
Choice B is incorrect. Cholinergic medications are not used as an adjuvant medication for the pharmacological management of pain.
Choice C is incorrect. Anxiolytic medications are not used as an adjuvant medication for the pharmacological management of pain.
Reference: McCuistion, Linda E., Joyce LeFever Kee, and Evelyn R. Hayes (2015). Pharmacology: A Patient-Centered Nursing Process Approach, 8th Edition. Saunders: Elsevier
An elderly client has just finished a total knee replacement surgery. The nurse suspects of fluid overload in the client. Which of the following signs and symptoms would confirm the nurse’s suspicion?
A. Blood pressure of 90/55 mm Hg; Weak, thready pulse, slightly elevated temperature
B. Cool clammy skin; Bounding pulse; Cough
C. Headache, Lethargy, Abdominal pain
D. Fever; warmth, swelling, and redness at the operative site
Explanation
A is incorrect. Low blood pressure, weak and thready pulse, and a slightly elevated temperature would indicate Dehydration.
B is correct. Cool clammy skin, bounding pulses, productive cough, distended neck veins, edema, and polyuria are signs of fluid overload.
C is incorrect. These are not symptoms of fluid overload and may indicate other co-morbidities.
D is incorrect. Fever, warmth, swelling, and redness at the operative site indicate infection.
Reference
Silvestri, L. Saunders Comprehensive Review for the NCLEX-RN Examination,6th Edition. Saunders-Elsevier 2014
Ignatavicius DD, Workman LM. Medical-Surgical Nursing: Patient-Centered Collaborative Care, 7th ed. St. Louis, MO: Elsevier; 2013
A 78-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department for the treatment of a fractured arm. On physical assessment, the nurse notices old and new ecchymotic areas on the client’s chest and legs and asks the client how the bruises were sustained. The client reluctantly tells the nurse that her son frequently hits her if supper is not ready when he gets home from work. Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing response?
A. “Oh, really. Let me talk to your son.”
B. “I appreciate your honesty but this is a legal issue, and I must tell you that I will need to report it.”
C. “Let’s talk about the ways you can manage your time to prevent your son from getting upset.”
D. “Do you have any friends that can help you out or keep you safe until you resolve these important issues with your son?”
Explanation
Rationale: The nurse must and is compelled to report situations related to the child or elder abuse, gunshot wounds and other criminal acts, and certain infectious diseases. Nurses must refrain from discussing confidential issues with nonmedical personnel or the client’s family or friends without the client’s permission. Clients are assured that information is kept confidential unless it places the nurse under a legal obligation. Options A, C, and D do not address the legal implications of the situation and do not ensure a safe environment for the client.
Reference
Silvestri, L. Saunders Comprehensive Review for the NCLEX-RN Examination,6thEdition. Saunders-Elsevier 2014
Ignatavicius DD, Workman LM. Medical-Surgical Nursing: Patient-Centered Collaborative Care, 7thed. St. Louis, MO: Elsevier; 2013.
Black, JM, Hawkes, JH; Medical-Surgical Nursing: Clinical Care for Positive Outcomes 8thedition, Nebraska: Elsevier 2009
Your client has consumed an 8-ounce container of milk, a 4-ounce container of gelatin, and a 6-ounce hamburger for lunch. You will document this client’s fluid intake as:
A. 80 mLs or cc s
B. 160 mLs or cc s
C. 360 mLs or cc s
D. 640 mLs or cc s
Explanation
Correct Answer is C
Correct. You will document this client’s fluid intake as 360 MLS or cc s because the client has consumed a total of 12 ounces of fluid and, because each ounce has 30 MLS or ccs, it is calculated as follows:
30 x 12 = 360 MLS or cc s
The hamburger does not count as fluid.
Choice A is incorrect. The client has consumed a total of 12 ounces of fluid, so the total consumed is more than 80 MLS or cc s. Try this calculation again.
Choice B is incorrect. The client has consumed a total of 12 ounces of fluid, so the total consumed is more than 160 MLS or cc s. Try this calculation again.
Choice D is incorrect. The client has consumed a total of 12 ounces of fluid, so the total consumed is less than 640 MLS or cc s. Try this calculation again.
Reference: Berman, Audrey, Snyder, Shirlee, and Geralyn Frandsen. (2016). Kozier and Erb’s Fundamentals of Nursing: Concepts, Process, and Practice (10th Edition)
Your client has an order for one unit of packed red blood cells. One of the other nurses picked the blood up at the blood bank at 11 am, and you began the infusion of the packed red blood cells at noon after you have completed all of the safety, client identification, and preparation procedures. At what time should this unit of packed red blood cells be thoroughly infused?
A. 1 pm
B. 2 pm
C. 3 pm
D. 4 pm
Explanation
Correct Answer is C
Correct. This unit of packed red blood cells must be infused entirely by 3 pm, which is 4 hours after the group of this unit of packed red blood cells was taken from the blood bank. This time limit prevents the degradation and damage to the red blood cells.
Choice A is incorrect. Although this unit of packed red blood cells must be infused entirely by a certain number of hours after the group of this unit of packed red blood cells was taken from the blood bank to prevent degradation and damage to the red blood cells, this time is more than 2 hours.
Choice B is incorrect. Although this unit of packed red blood cells must be infused entirely by a certain number of hours after the group of this unit of packed red blood cells was taken from the blood bank to prevent degradation and damage to the red blood cells, this time is more than 3 hours.
Choice D is incorrect. Although this unit of packed red blood cells must be infused entirely by a certain number of hours after the group of this unit of packed red blood cells was taken from the blood bank to prevent degradation and damage to the red blood cells, this time is less than 5 hours.
Reference: Berman, Audrey, Snyder, Shirlee, and Geralyn Frandsen. (2016). Kozier and Erb’s Fundamentals of Nursing: Concepts, Process, and Practice (10th Edition)
A widower has been complaining that he could not sleep, he is short of breath, extremely anxious, and has been having a sense of impending doom. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. “Just relax. You’re in a safe place now. You have nothing to worry about.”
B. “Has anything happened recently, or is there anything in the past that could have triggered these feelings?”
C. “The medication I have given you will help decrease these feelings of anxiety.”
D. “Why don’t you take some deep breaths to help you calm down?”
Explanation
Rationale: Option B reassures the client and provides an opportunity to gain insight into the root of the client’s anxiety. Telling the client she has nothing to worry about dismisses the client’s feelings and only gives her false reassurance. Simply giving her medications and instructing her to calm down doesn’t allow the client to verbalize her feelings, which is necessary for her to understand and resolve the cause of anxiety. Options A, C, and D are therefore incorrect.
Reference:
Silvestri, L. Saunders Comprehensive Review for the NCLEX-RN Examination,6th Edition. Saunders-Elsevier 2014
Halter, MJ. Varcarolis’ Foundations of Psychiatric Mental Health Nursing: A Clinical Approach, 7th Ed. St. Louis, MO: Mosby Elsevier; 2014:14
A patient is rushed to the ER after a car accident. The patient has lost a lot of blood and is required an emergency blood transfusion. The nurse checks the blood bank, and the only available blood is “O” positive. The patient’s blood type is “A” positive. What is the nurse’s most appropriate action?
A. Arrange for a cross match between the available blood and the patient’s blood.
B. Call the other blood banks and ask if they have blood units available with the client’s blood type.
C. Notify the physician that there is no available blood in the blood bank.
D. Call the client’s family that he needs blood.
Explanation
A is correct. The ABO type of the donor should be compatible with the recipients. Type “A” can receive blood from type “A” or “O” as type “O” blood does not contain any antigens against type “A” or “B” blood. The blood can be administered once proper cross-matching is done.
B is incorrect. The nurse can do this once cross-matching is being done since the situation is an emergency. The nurse can find other compatible blood units as a second option for the patient.
C is incorrect. The nurse cannot tell the physician that there is no available blood in the blood bank since there is an open unit.
D is incorrect. The family is informed of the client’s condition, but it should not be responsible for procuring blood for the patient.
Reference
Silvestri, L. Saunders Comprehensive Review for the NCLEX-RN Examination,6th Edition. Saunders-Elsevier 2014
Ignatavicius DD, Workman LM. Medical-Surgical Nursing: Patient-Centered Collaborative Care, 7th ed. St. Louis, MO: Elsevier; 2013.
Karch, A. Focus on Nursing Pharmacology, 3rd edition. Lippincott, Williams & Wilkins 2006
The nurse is administering 10 units of regular insulin and 15 units of NPH insulin to the client at 8:00 am in the morning. The nurse should offer a snack to the patient at what time?
A. 15 minutes after food ingestion
B. at around 10:30 am
C. at 2:00 pm
D. at 12:00 am
Explanation
A is incorrect. This is the wrong time for a snack.
B is correct. The first insulin peak will occur two to four hours after the administration of regular insulin. Regular insulin is classified as rapid-acting and will peak two to four hours after administration. A snack should be offered at around 10:30 am to prevent hypoglycemia. The second peak will occur eight to twelve hours after the administration of NPH insulin, or at around 4:00 pm.
C is incorrect. This is the wrong time for a snack—regular insulin peaks at 2-4 hours after administration and NPH peaks after 8-12 hours.
D is incorrect. This is the wrong time for a snack—regular insulin peaks at 2-4 hours after administration and NPH peaks after 8-12 hours.
Reference
Silvestri, L. Saunders Comprehensive Review for the NCLEX-RN Examination,6th Edition. Saunders-Elsevier 2014
Ignatavicius DD, Workman LM. Medical-Surgical Nursing: Patient-Centered Collaborative Care, 7th ed. St. Louis, MO: Elsevier; 2013
Black, JM, Hawkes, JH; Medical-Surgical Nursing: Clinical Care for Positive Outcomes 8th edition, Nebraska: Elsevier 2009
Select the theory of stress and coping that is accurately paired with an example of it.
A. Response based theories of stress: Selye’s general adaptation syndrome
B. Response based theories of stress: Lazarus’ model of stress and coping
C. Stimulus based theories of stress: Selye’s local adaptation syndrome
D. Transaction based theories of stress: Holmes and Rahe’s model of stress and coping
Explanation
Correct Answer is A
Correct. In broad terms, there are three categories of models and theories that describe stress and coping. These models include response based theories of stress, stimulus-based theories of stress, and transaction-based theories of stress. Selye’s general adaptation syndrome is an example of a response based theory of stress and this theory describes the physiological responses to stress.
Lazarus’ model of stress and coping is not a response based theory of stress, but instead, a transaction based theories of stress; Selye’s local adaptation syndrome is also a response based theory of stress; and Lazarus’ model of stress and coping is an example of a transaction based theory of stress.
Choice B is incorrect. Lazarus’ model of stress and coping is not a response based theory of stress, but instead, a transaction based theories of stress
Choice C is incorrect. Selye’s local adaptation syndrome is a response based theory of stress.
Choice D is incorrect. Holmes and Rahe’s model is an example of a stimulus-based theory of stress.
Reference: Berman, Audrey, Snyder, Shirlee, and Geralyn Frandsen. (2016). Kozier and Erb’s Fundamentals of Nursing: Concepts, Process, and Practice (10th Edition). Upper Saddle River, New Jersey: Pearson.
The nurse in charge of a patient with iron deficiency anemia is documenting care. Which nursing diagnosis is the most appropriate in the plan of care?
A. Impaired gas exchange
B. Ineffective airway clearance
C. Deficient fluid volume
D. Ineffective breathing pattern
Explanation
Rationale: The hemoglobin in the blood is the component responsible for oxygen transport in the body. Iron is an essential substance for hemoglobin synthesis. In iron deficiency anemia, the hemoglobin drops to subnormal levels, leading to impaired tissue oxygenation and reduces gas exchange. Option A is, therefore, the correct answer. Iron deficiency anemia does not cause fluid volume deficit and is not directly related to ineffective airway clearance nor breathing pattern. Options B, C, and D are incorrect.
Reference:
Black, JM, Hawkes, JH; Medical-Surgical Nursing: Clinical Care for Positive Outcomes 8th edition, Nebraska: Elsevier 2009
Kelly, P; Marthaler, M; Nursing Delegation, Setting Priorities, and Making Patient Care Assignments, 2nd Edition; Cengage Learning, 2010