Critical Care and Mental Health Flashcards

1
Q

The nurse in the ICU is taking a client’s CVP. All of the following are appropriate actions of the nurse when taking a CVP reading, except:

A. Placing the client supine with the head of the bed elevated to no more than 45°

B. Placing the transducer at the fifth intercostal space, mid-axillary line.

C. Placing the transducer at the fourth intercostal space, mid-axillary line.

D. Instruct the client to relax, not strain or cough during the reading.

A

Explanation

Choice B is correct. This is an inappropriate action. The zero points on the transducer need to be at the level of the right atrium, which is located at the fourth intercostal space, midaxillary line, not at the 5th ICS.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. These are appropriate actions. The client should be lying supine with the head of the bed elevated to no more than 45 degrees for the most accurate reading ( Choice A). The zero points on the transducer need to be at the level of the right atrium, which is located at the fourth intercostal space, midaxillary line ( Choice C). This is also referred to as the “Phlebostatic” axis. The client should be instructed to relax, not strain, cough, or do any activity that increases intrathoracic pressure, which causes falsely high measurements ( Choice D).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
Your client is a 50-year-old man who sustained an air embolism after the placement of a central venous catheter. You realize the patient was not properly positioned during the procedure. Which of the following could have prevented this incident from happening?
**IMAGE CHOICES**
A. IMAGE OF SUPINE POSITION
B. IMAGE OF PRONE POSITION
C. IMAGE OF TRENDELENBURG POSITION
D. IMAGE OF FOWLER'S POSITION
A

Correct Answer is C. This picture shows the Trendelenburg position. In this position, the body is laid supine, or flat on the back on a 15-30 degree incline with the feet elevated above the head. This position is used to prevent air embolism during central venous cannulation. When placing and removing central venous catheters, the CVP should be raised (to decrease the pressure gradient) by placing the patient in the Trendelenburg position. It should also be ensured that patients are adequately hydrated to prevent hypovolemia and to increase CVP.

Trendelenburg position is also used to increase the venous blood return to heart when a client is affected with hypotension, hypovolemia or shock.

Choice A is incorrect. This image represents a Supine position.

Choice B is incorrect. This image represents a Prone position.

Choice D is incorrect. This image represents a Fowler’s position in which the head of the bed is elevated at 45 to 60 degrees angle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A 45-year old male presents to the emergency department with severe diaphoresis, nausea, shortness of breath, and left-sided neck and chest pain that started 30 minutes prior while doing yard work. What actions should the triage nurse perform immediately for this patient? Select all that apply.

A. Start an IV and obtain a troponin

B. Call the cardiologist

C. Administer 325 mg aspirin

D. Give 1 tablet of sublingual nitroglycerin

E. Inquire about previous cardiac history

F. Perform an EKG

A

Explanation

A, C, D, E, and F are correct. This patient is experiencing subtle signs that could be indicative of myocardial infarction.

Starting an IV and obtaining a troponin ( Choice A) is especially crucial for the future administration of drugs and assessing the chemical damage done to the heart.

Drugs that could be ordered by the physician if the patient is having an MI are heparin, ticagrelor ( Brilinta), and aspirin. Administering 325 mg aspirin (Choice C) is a gold standard for angina management due to its blood-thinning effects and minimal side effects.

Nitroglycerin ( Choice D) is also essential to administer to a patient with angina, as long as the patient’s blood pressure is above 100/60. This medication allows the blood vessels to dilate ( reduces preload), which will allow more blood flow to the heart.

Asking about previous cardiac history ( Choice E) is essential in obtaining further information about this patient. This will help evaluate the patient’s cardiac risk and the risk of having an acute event now.

Performing an EKG (Choice F) is essential because it will allow the emergency physician to diagnose the patient with a STEMI or NSTEMI and the right treatment.

B is incorrect because calling the cardiologist would be premature at this point. The emergency department physician will evaluate the EKG for any changes and contact the cardiologist if necessary. Calling the cardiologist down to the emergency department is essential if there are elevations in ST or elevation in troponin levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

While working in the cardiac intensive care unit, you are assessing a patient with left-sided heart failure. A sign off report from the prior shift indicates that the client’s cardiac output has dropped to 2 L/min. Which of the following assessment findings do you expect in the patient? Select all that apply.

A. Crackles

B. Decreased urine output

C. +3 bounding pulses

D. Irritability

A

Choices A and B are correct. Normal cardiac output in a healthy adult is between 4 liters/ minute (L/min) and 8 L/min. An output of 2L/min exhibited by this client is, therefore, low. A decreased cardiac output manifests with certain clinical signs and symptoms, some of which may be fatal. Lower cardiac output leads to hypotension, pulmonary congestion, and fluid overload.

You would expect the lungs of a patient with poor cardiac output to sound wet. Crackles, rales, and rhonchi (Choice A) are all adventitious breath sounds that you might expect to hear when there is fluid overload. This is due to poor perfusion, and blood backing up in the lungs due to poor function of the left ventricle. Extra fluid will build up causing these ‘wet’ lung sounds.

Decreased urine output (Choice B) is a classic sign of decreased cardiac output. When the cardiac output is decreased, there is decreased perfusion to the rest of the organs of the body. With less perfusion to the kidneys, the glomerular filtration rate falls, which leads to decreased urinary output. Successful treatment of congestive heart failure involves maintaining adequate negative fluid balance (output greater than input).

Choice C is incorrect. You would expect to find weak pulses in your client with decreased cardiac output, not +3 bounding pulses. When the cardiac output is decreased, there is decreased perfusion to the rest of the organs of the body. With decreased perfusion to the peripheries, and the left ventricle not pumping as hard, the pulses will feel weak and thready.

Choice D is incorrect. You would expect your patient with decreased cardiac output to have a decrease in their level of consciousness, such as lethargy, not irritability. This is due to decreased perfusion to the brain. The consequent decrease in oxygen delivery to the brain results in a decreased level of consciousness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

You are the nurse working in the Coronary Care Unit of the hospital. You are assessing the patient who is alert and oriented, respirations 12 and non-labored, and pulse rate 84 and regular. You look up at the monitor and see this rhythm (See Exhibit)

Your first intervention is to:

A. Start CPR.

B. Connect the patient to the defibrillator.

C. Begin ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device.

D. Check to ensure the monitor leads are connected to the patient.

A

Explanation

Correct Answer: D.

Check to ensure the monitor leads are connected to the patient. Although this rhythm looks like asystole, the fact that the patient is awake and talking to you with a palpable pulse of 84 would indicate that he is probably disconnected from the cardiac monitor. If you determined that the patient was pulseless and unresponsive, you would first start CPR since that would be an indication that the patient is in asystole. Ventilations and a defibrillator are not necessary for this stable patient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The client in a psychiatric clinic tells the nurse, “I want to kill my wife. The moment I see her, I am going to kill her.” What should be the nurse’s next action?

A. Respect the client’s right to privacy and confidentiality.

B. Document the client’s statements.

C. Notify the client’s psychiatrist of the comments.

D. Explore the client’s feelings about his wife.

A

Explanation

C is correct. Mental health staff must report identifiable third parties of threats made by a person, even if these threats were discussed in a private therapy session.

A is incorrect. Although the nurse should respect the confidentiality of the subject, the nurse should make arrangements so that the wife is informed of the threat to her safety.

B is incorrect. The nurse needs to document what the client said in the conversation; however, the nurse should implement measures to ensure the safety of the client’s wife.

D is incorrect. Exploring the client’s feelings regarding his wife would further increase the client’s anger toward her. This is not an appropriate action for the nurse to take.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A 78-year older man is admitted with sepsis. Which of the following should the nurse suspect the doctor to order?Select all that apply

A. Crystalloids

B. Blood cultures

C. Abdominal xray

D. Antibiotics

E. Two large-bore IV’s

F. Vasopressors if shock persists

A

Explanation

Choices A, B, D, E, and F are correct. When treating sepsis, inserting intravenous access (2 large-bore IVs, 16-gauge), obtaining blood cultures, and starting crystalloid fluids are important initial interventions. Vasopressors are administered if the shock persists despite the initial interventions and aggressive fluid resuscitation.

Intravenous access: When sepsis is suspected, adequate venous access with two large-bore IVs (16-gauge) (Choice E) must be placed as soon as possible. This allows the administration of aggressive volume resuscitation (crystalloids) and broad-spectrum antibiotics.

Blood cultures: Blood cultures (Choice B) must be obtained once the sepsis is suspected. Blood cultures help to confirm sepsis diagnosis, identify the causative organism, and tailoring the antibiotic coverage. Per Surviving Sepsis Campaign guidelines, at least 2 blood cultures should be obtained before initiation of antibiotics (one percutaneously drawn and the other from peripheral vascular access.)

Crystalloids: Sepsis often results in systemic inflammatory response syndrome and leads to systemic vasodilation. Isotonic fluids (crystalloids such as normal saline, Choice A) are given intravenously to help maintain systemic vascular resistance (SVR) and blood pressure.

Antibiotics: Antibiotics (Choice D) must be given early to improve the outcomes in Sepsis. Guidelines mandate starting antibiotics within 1 hour of suspected sepsis diagnosis. Initially, empiric broad-spectrum antibiotics are used, but they are later tailored to the specific organism identified on blood cultures.

Vasopressors: Initial intervention in all cases of sepsis includes aggressive volume resuscitation (crystalloid fluid bolus of 30 mL/kg (1-2 L) over 30-60 minutes). If the hypotension persists despite aggressive volume resuscitation with several liters (4 or more liters) of the isotonic crystalloid solution, vasopressors are indicated. Persistent hypotension (shock) is defined as systolic blood pressure lower than 90 mm Hg or Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) lower than 65 mm Hg with decreased tissue perfusion. When vasopressors are indicated, a central venous catheter should be placed in the internal jugular or subclavian vein. While helpful in administering large volume crystalloids and adequate vasopressors, central venous access also allows measurement of central venous pressure (CVP). Preferred vasopressor in sepsis is Norepinephrine. Dopamine increases heart rate and is not the preferred vasopressor and is only used if there is concomitant bradycardia.

Choice C is incorrect. There is no indication to perform an abdominal x-ray in all cases of sepsis. However, if an abdominal source of infection (abdominal perforation or peritonitis, or bowel obstruction) is suspected, an abdominal X-ray should be obtained.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with systolic heart failure. Which of the following heart sounds would the nurse expect to auscultate?Select all that apply.

A. S1

B. S2

C. S3

D. S4

A

Explanation

Correct answers are A, B, and C.

S1 (Choice A) and S2 (Choice B) are normal heart sounds. These normal heart sounds would still be auscultated in a patient with heart failure.

S1 is a good heart sound caused by the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves.
S2 is a good heart sound produced by the closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves.

S3 (“ventricular gallop”) and S4 (“atrial gallop”) are abnormal heart sounds that can be auscultated in heart failure. Bot these heart sounds are low pitched and best heard at the apex with the patient in the left lateral decubitus position. While S3 may sometimes be heard in healthy hearts (normal in children, pregnant women, trained athletes), S4 is almost always abnormal. While S3 is a sign of Systolic heart failure, S4 is heard in Diastolic heart failure.

It is essential to understand these two types of congestive heart failure (CHF) before we proceed to discuss how S3 and S4 are produced.

Systolic CHF: This occurs mainly due to impairment in the contractile function of the left ventricle. Ejection fraction (fraction of the blood pumped out of the left ventricle during the systole) is decreased in Systolic CHF. The left ventricle is usually very compliant (comfortable relaxation). This is seen with ischemic or dilated cardiomyopathy.

Diastolic CHF: This occurs mainly due to impairment in the relaxation function of the left ventricle. Ejection fraction (fraction of the blood pumped out of the left ventricle during the systole) is standard in Diastolic CHF. The left ventricle is usually stiff/ non-compliant (does not relax enough to accommodate blood coming out of the atrium during the diastole). This is seen with hypertensive cardiomyopathy where there is Left Ventricular Hypertrophy (LVH).

The nurse would expect to hear an S3 heart sound (Choice C) in her patient with systolic heart failure. S3 occurs after S2 with the opening of the mitral valve, and a passive flow makes the music of a large amount of blood hitting a compliant left ventricle. This large amount of blood hitting the left ventricle is because of the underlying fluid volume overload seen with systolic heart failure.

Choice D is incorrect. The nurse would not expect to hear an S4 heart sound in her patient with systolic heart failure. This is seen in diastolic heart failure. S4 occurs before S1 when the atria contract to actively force blood into the left ventricle. A stiff, non-compliant left ventricle causes it. When the atrial contraction forces blood through the mitral valve, the force is increased due to resistance offered by a stiff ventricle – in this scenario, S4 is caused by the blood striking the left ventricle. S4 heart sound can also be heard in active ischemia. Please note that if a patient is having atrial fibrillation and atria are not contracting, it is impossible to have an S4 heart sound.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A panicked mother brings her 8-year old son into the clinic after noticing that he will not eat. The patient only wants to drink water and is continuously urinating. After seeing that the patient’s blood sugar level of 657 mg/dL, the nurse prepares to insert an IV. Which of the following critical assessment findings should concern the nurse?

A. Listlessness

B. Headache

C. Dry mouth

D. Frequent urination

A

Explanation

A is the correct answer. This patient is experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis. “Listlessness” refers to decreased level of alertness, lassitude, or lethargy. If this patient is not entirely responsive or responding at all, he may be headed towards a diabetic coma. In that case, further assessments should be performed, such as airway, breathing, and circulation, along with hyperglycemia precautions.

B is incorrect. Hyperglycemia may cause the patient to have a headache, but this is not the most concerning symptom.

C is incorrect. Hyperglycemia can cause dry mouth, frequent urination, fruity breath, abdominal pain, nausea/vomiting, weakness, confusion, and shortness of breath. Dry mouth is not the most concerning symptom.

D is incorrect. Frequent urination is one of the symptoms of hyperglycemia and can be an excellent indicator to lead to a diagnosis. However, confusion and listlessness should be the most concerning symptom at this time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A patient that has suffered a third-degree burn injury a few hours ago involving 27% of Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) a few hours ago has been rushed to the emergency room. Which of the following should the nurse expect to find in this patient? Select all that apply.

A. Hyponatremia

B. Hyperkalemia

C. Hypotension

D. Increased urinary output

E. Severe Hypophosphatemia

F. Edema in burned areas.

A

Explanation

Correct answers are Choices A, B, C, and F.

The client has suffered a significant burn. A burn penetrating from the epidermis to the dermis and down into the subcutaneous tissue is classified as a third-degree or full-thickness burn (they grasp the full thickness of the skin). A full-thickness wound involving 10% or greater of Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) or a partial thickness burn involving 25% or greater of TBSA is considered a significant injury.

A nurse involved in the care of the burn patient must be aware of fluid and electrolyte imbalances so the client can be monitored accordingly. Electrolyte and fluid imbalances vary depending on three periods of time since the initial burn injury.

I. Initial resuscitation period: This refers to a period between 0 to 36 hours from the time of burn injury. Due to the damage to the tissues and vessels in major burns, capillary/ vascular permeability is significantly increased, and fluid and electrolyte shifts occur between the body compartments.

Significant edema in the burn area occurs due to fluid accumulation in the burned tissues due to increased vascular permeability and increased interstitial osmotic pressure. (Choice F)
Due to changes in cellular permeability, sodium ions enter the cellular compartment resulting in low levels of intravascular sodium (Hyponatremia, Na < 135 mEq/L) (Choice A).
Extensive tissue necrosis and cell lysis in major burns also lead to the exit of potassium ions from the cell into the intravascular compartment resulting in Hyperkalemia (K > 5.1 mEq/L). (Choice B). Restoring sodium losses by using appropriate fluid and correcting severe hyperkalemia is necessary during this period.
The body’s initial response in a major burn is to shunt blood toward the brain and heart and away from peripheral vasculature and other organs, resulting in a low circulating volume leading to (Choice C). This often manifests with reduced urinary output, not increased urinary output (Choice D is incorrect). Hypotension progresses to shock and organ failure if fluid resuscitation is not accomplished immediately. The goals of fluid resuscitation in an adult are to maintain an adequate urinary output of 30 to 50 cc/hr.
Fluid resuscitation is crucial – under-resuscitation can be life-threatening due to shock. Over resuscitation may lead to compartment syndrome. So, the nurse needs to understand and calculate fluid deficits based on the accepted formulas. For fluid resuscitation, modified Brooke formula or Parkland formula is used to calculate the amount of the fluid the client is going to need during the first 24 hours. Lactated Ringer’s solution is the fluid of choice in resuscitating burn patients because of its close resemblance to the body's extracellular fluid composition. The liquid is often warmed to prevent hypothermia—no colloids in the first 24 hours.
Modified Brooke formula is 2mls x Total body surface areas burned (TBSA) x total kg body weight.
Parkland formula is 4mls x % Total body surface areas burned (TBSA) x total kg weight.
The nurse should be aware of the “Rule of 9s” to calculate the TBSA.
Both formulas will give an estimate of the first 24-hour fluid requirements from the time of the burn, with half the amount given in the early 8 hours and the remaining half given over the next 16 hours.

II.Early post-resuscitation period: Refers to the period from day 2 to day six from the time of burn injury. This phase is characterized by hypernatremia, hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, hypomagnesemia, and Fluid shifts back to intracellular and intravascular compartments. Shock improves, blood pressure is restored to normal. It is important to remember that with successful resuscitation and resolution of burn shock, one will see the opposite effects in an intravascular compartment about Sodium ( Hypernatremia, Na > 145 mEQ/L)) and Potassium ( Hypokalemia K< 3.5Meq/L) compared to those seen in Initial phase. Increased urinary output (diuretic phase) is seen in this period, not in the first 24 hours (Choice D is incorrect). Urine output may rise to 100cc/hr. D51/2NS is the usual fluid of choice to correct hypernatremia and fluid imbalances during this second phase post burn injury. Severe hypophosphatemia (phosphate less than 1 mg/dl) may appear around day three post-burn and is most prevalent on day 7. It is not seen in a few hours post-burn. (Choice E is incorrect).

III. Inflammation-infection period (also known as the hypermetabolic period) seen after the first week and lasts until wounds are healed– Nutritional support, rehabilitation, and prevention of infection are crucial during this phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
The nurse is attending a newly admitted client with alcohol withdrawal. Place the following components of alcohol withdrawal in the order the nurse would expect to see them occur.
Hyperthermia
Mild tremors
Hallucinations
Delirium Tremens
A
Correct Answer is:
Mild tremors
Hyperthermia
Hallucinations
Delirium Tremens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

You are assessing a 16-year-old woman with Anorexia Nervosa. Which of the following symptoms and signs would you expect to find? Select all that apply.

A. Lanugo

B. Heavy menstrual periods

C. Hypertension

D. Hypothermia

A

Explanation

Choices A and D are correct. Lanugo (Choice A) is defined as “fine and soft hair that covers the body and limbs of a human fetus/ newborn.” It is abnormal for a 16-year-old to have lanugo. In a patient who is severely underweight and has lost a large amount of subcutaneous fat, such as in a patient with anorexia nervosa, the body will develop lanugo as a way to insulate itself.

Hypothermia (Choice D) is a severe complication of anorexia nervosa. Subcutaneous fat is necessary to insulate the body and regulate the temperature. Clients with anorexia nervosa lose a significant amount of subcutaneous fat due to malnourishment and weight loss. Consequently, they are prone to Hypothermia.

B is incorrect. Amenorrhea (lack of menstrual period) rather than increased menses is a complication seen in anorexia nervosa—self-inflicted starvation in anorexia nervosa results in malnourishment, hormonal imbalance, and amenorrhea.

C is incorrect. Hypotension is seen in anorexia nervosa, not hypertension. Clients with anorexia are prone to malnourishment and dehydration. Dehydration results in fluid-volume deficit and hypotension. Electrolyte imbalance such as Hypernatremia is also seen due to free water deficit and concentrated body fluids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The condition of metabolic acidosis is indicated by which of the following arterial blood gas values?

A. Bicarbonate 15 mEq/L

B. pCO2 47 mm Hg

C. paO2 90 mm Hg

D. pH 7.34

A

Explanation

Choice A is correct. The bicarbonate level is well below average, which indicates metabolic acidosis. Normal bicarbonate levels are 22 to 26 mEq/L in adults.

Acid-base disorders, including metabolic acidosis, are disturbances in the balance of plasma acidity. Any process that increases the serum hydrogen ion concentration is a distinct acidosis. The term acidemia is used to define the total acid-base status of the serum pH. Acidosis classifies as either a respiratory acidosis that involves changes in carbon dioxide or metabolic acidosis, which is influenced by bicarbonate (HCO3).

Metabolic acidosis is a clinical disturbance defined by a pH of less than 7.35 and a low HCO3 level. It is characterized by an increase in the hydrogen ion concentration in the systemic circulation resulting in a serum HCO3 less than 22 mEq/L. Metabolic acidosis is not benign and signifies an underlying disorder that needs to be corrected to minimize morbidity and mortality. The many etiologies of metabolic acidosis are classified into four main mechanisms: increased acid production, decreased acid excretion, acid ingestion, and renal or gastrointestinal (GI) bicarbonate losses.

Choice B is incorrect. This value does not represent metabolic acidosis. The normal range for CO2 is 23 to 29 mEq/L. An elevated CO2 level indicates respiratory acidosis.pCO2>40 with a pH<7.4 indicates respiratory acidosis, and pCO2<40 and pH>7.4 indicates respiratory alkalosis.

Choice C is incorrect. PaO2 is between 75 and 100 mmHg (at sea level) when the body is functioning normally. A result in this range means a sufficient amount of oxygen flowing from the alveoli to the blood.

Choice D is incorrect. The pH scale ranges from 0 (strongly acidic) to 14 (strongly necessary or alkaline). A pH of 7.0, in the middle of this scale, is neutral. However, blood is usually slightly essential, with an average pH range of 7.35 to 7.45. Typically, the body maintains the pH of blood close to 7.40. therefore, any blood pH less than 7.35 is regarded as “Acidosis,” and more than 7.45 is considered alkalosis.” However, pH alone will not tell us whether we are dealing with metabolic or respiratory type imbalance. A pH of 7.34 is Acidosis, but without looking at bicarbonate and C02, you will not be able to determine whether it is metabolic or respiratory type acidosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with tracing on the electrocardiogram shown in the exhibit. The nurse should perform which priority action? See the exhibit - Ventriculat Fibrillation Rhythm

A. Initiate a code blue

B. Establish intravenous (IV) access

C. Notify the primary healthcare physician (PHCP)

D. Assess the client’s airway, breathing, and circulation

A

Explanation

Choice D is correct. The tracing indicated that the client is experiencing ventricular fibrillation (Vfib). This is a fatal rhythm. However, the priority action of the nurse is to immediately establish the validity of this fatal arrhythmia tracing by assessing the client’s airway, breathing, and circulation. Ventricular fibrillation is characterized by a complete lack of coordinated contraction, resulting in chaotic electrical activity on the rhythm strip. Due to rapid ventricular contractions, the ventricular filling decreases markedly, leading to a significant decrease in cardiac output. Consequently, a pulse is absent. Clinically, at the time of the event, the patient should be pulseless, unconscious, and unresponsive.

Please note that the same question may be presented differently with assessment findings disclosed within the question ( e.g.: information such as patient is unresponsive and pulse is absent within the question stem), the answer would then be Choice A. (Proceed with CPR and defibrillation because assessment has already been completed).

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. None of these options can be implemented until the validity of the rhythm is established. The nurse should clinically validate the rhythm before proceeding to call code blue. Once the client’s vitals validate this fatal rhythm, cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR), according to Advanced Cardiac Life Support (ACLS) guidelines, should be initiated immediately and the physician must be notified.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a patient who has a borderline personality disorder (BPD). Which of the following would be an expected finding? Select all that apply.

A. Self-mutilating behaviors.

B. Hypervigilance.

C. Emotional detachment.

D. Social inhibition.

E. Impulsivity.

A

Explanation

Correct Answers: A, E

Borderline personality disorder (BPD) is a common personality disorder that features extreme emotional lability. Impulsivity. Self-mutilative behaviors. And manipulating mannerisms. Hypervigilance is an expected finding with a paranoid personality disorder. Social inhibition is consistent with an avoidant. And emotional detachment compatible with schizoid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
The nurse is attending a client who is just diagnosed with terminal cancer. He continues to claim the "cancer is just going to disappear on its own." Knowing that this is an acceptable response by the client, please arrange the following stages of the Kübler-Ross model of grieving in the correct order:-
Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptance
A

Explanation

The correct order of sequence is Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, and Acceptance ( DABDA).

Denial: Refuses to believe that loss is happening. The client is unready to deal with practical problems, such as prosthesis, after the loss of a leg. May assume artificial cheerfulness to prolong denial. This client is currently in Denial.
Anger: The client or family may direct anger at nurses or staff about matters that generally would not bother them.
Bargaining: Seeks to bargain to avoid loss (e.g., “let me just live until and then I will be ready to die”).
Depression: Grieves over what has happened and what cannot be. May talk freely (e.g., reviewing past losses such as money or a job), or may withdraw.
Acceptance: Comes to terms with the loss. May have decreased interest in surroundings and support people. May wish to begin making plans (e.g., will, prosthesis, altered living arrangements).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A 12 year old client with chronic asthma exacerbations has decided to try guided imagery as a way to manage anxiety that is contributing to frequent asthma attacks. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of this stress reduction technique?

A. “I can do this anytime and anywhere when I feel anxious”

B. “I must be lying down to practice guided imagery”

C. “My mom will have to be with me any time I try this”

D. “I will play music every time I do my guided imagery to make sure it works.”

A

Explanation

Answer: A

A is correct. Guided imagery is a stress reduction technique that can be done in any place at any time. In fact, this is one of the biggest advantages of this technique. Anytime the patient begins to feel anxious, they can practice guided imagery.

B is incorrect. Guided imagery can be done in any position that the patient is comfortable in. They do not have to by lying down unless they choose to.

C is incorrect. It is not necessary for the client’s mom or anyone else to be present for guided imagery unless they choose so. Any person, or no one at all, can be present depending on the client’s preferences.

D is incorrect. Music can or can not be played during guided imagery, again depending on the client’s preferences. There does not have to be music played to make sure guided imagery works.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The doctor is explaining to a patient’s family that she is experiencing respiratory acidosis. What would Arterial Blood Gas (ABG) values suggest this to the doctor?

A. pH 7.30, CO2 38, HCO3 18

B. pH 7.48, CO2 31, HCO3 24

C. pH 7.42. CO2 36. HCO3 24

D. pH 7.3, CO2 52, HCO3 29

A

Explanation

Choice D is correct. This acid-base balance represents respiratory acidosis. Low pH, high CO2 represent respiratory acidosis. Although HC03- here is a bit higher than usual, it does not mean there is alkalosis because pH is 7.3 and is considered acidosis. The initial problem based on high C02 and low pH appears to be “Respiratory acidosis.” Higher Bicarbonate here is likely from renal compensation, conserving the bicarbonate to restore the pH towards normal. In this case, respiratory acidosis has been only “partially” compensated by renal conservation because it is still acidic. Examples of Respiratory Acidosis include reduced respiratory drive (Co2 retention) from opioid intoxication and COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbation).

For solving an acid-base question, it is essential first to know the average values. Normal pH ranges from 7.35 to 7.45. Standard bicarbonate ranges from 22 to 26 mEQ/L. Normal pCo2 ranges from 35 to 45 mm Hg.

Choice A is incorrect. This acid-base imbalance represents metabolic acidosis because the pH level is low, and the bicarbonate level is low. Examples include increased anion gap acidosis disorders like Diabetic Ketoacidosis and lactic acidosis as well as non-gap metabolic acidosis disorders like bicarbonate loss from severe diarrhea, and renal tubular acidosis.

Choice B is incorrect. This acid-base imbalance represents respiratory alkalosis because the pH is high, and the CO2 is low. The client is ventilating/ breathing rapidly and washing out CO2. Examples of respiratory alkalosis include hyperventilation from anxiety and pulmonary embolism.

Choice C is incorrect. These values represent typical ABG values.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

You are caring for a client with chronic lung disease who is being maintained with mechanical ventilation. You have just gotten this client’s laboratory results, and the client’s pH is 7.24. Which is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client?

A. Metabolic alkalosis related to chronic lung disease

B. Metabolic acidosis related to chronic lung disease

C. Respiratory alkalosis related to chronic lung disease

D. Respiratory acidosis related to chronic lung disease

A

Explanation

Choice D is correct.The normal pH is from 7.35 to 7.45. A pH of less than 7.35 indicates the presence of acidosis, and a pH higher than 7.45 indicates the presence of alkalosis. The client’s pH of 7.24 indicates the presence of respiratory acidosis related to chronic lung disease. Patients with chronic lung diseases such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease have problems ventilating and retain CO2 chronically. Increased pCO2 results in respiratory acidosis.

In mechanically ventilated clients, ventilator settings ( tidal volume and respiratory rate) can be adjusted to clear CO2 and correct respiratory acidosis.

Choice A is incorrect. The client’s pH of 7.24 indicates acidosis, not alkalosis. Metabolic alkalosis can occur as a result of vomiting, Cushing’s syndrome, and other causes.

Choice B is incorrect. The client’s pH of 7.24 does indicate acidosis. However, chronic lung diseases result in respiratory acidosis, not metabolic acidosis. Metabolic acidosis can occur as a result of renal disease, chronic diarrhea, cardiac arrest, and lactic acidosis.

Choice C is incorrect. The client’s pH of 7.24 indicates acidosis, not alkalosis. Respiratory alkalosis can occur as a result of hyperventilation ( Co2/ acid washed out). Hyperventilation may be seen with anxiety, salicylate toxicity, fever (hyperpyrexia), or as compensation to metabolic acidosis.

This video will provide an in-depth explanation of Arterial Blood Gas interpretation ( 19-minutes time):

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Qh1J8dcLpqw&feature=youtu.be

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who claims to have frequent anxiety attacks. While performing the nursing assessment, it becomes evident that some of the client’s responses were due to fear rather than anxiety. Which of the following are true of stress? (Select all that apply).

A. Anxiety is a cognitive response.

B. Anxiety is related to a future or anticipated event.

C. The source of anxiety is often not identifiable.

D. Anxiety results from physical threat.

E. Anxiety initiates the release of epinephrine.

F. If it is mild or moderate, anxiety can be beneficial.

A

Explanation

Important Fact:

Fear is an emotion or feeling of apprehension or dread. It stems from an identified danger, threat, or pain. The danger may be real or perceived. NANDA International defines anxiety as a” vague, uneasy feeling of discomfort or dread accompanied by an autonomic response; a sense of apprehension caused by anticipation of danger.”

Answer & Rationale:

The correct answers are B, C, E, and F.

o B. Anxiety is related to an anticipated event. Fear is associated with a present fact.

o C. The source of anxiety may not be easily identifiable. However, the source of concern can be identified.

o E. Both anxiety and fear initiate the release of epinephrine, which stimulates the sympathetic nervous system in preparation for the “fight or flight” response.

o F. Mild to moderate anxiety can be a sign of adaptation, as it mobilizes and motivates a person to action.

A is incorrect. Anxiety is an emotional response, not cognitive.
D is incorrect. Anxiety results from psychological conflict rather than a physical threat.
21
Q

The nurse is taking care of a client who underwent a left lung resection two days ago. During her assessment, she finds that the client’s apical pulse is 125 beats per minute; his peripheral pulses are weak and thready. His blood pressure is 79/51 mmHg and lungs are clear to auscultation. He is on intravenous Normal Saline at 100 ml/hour. Which of the following is the nurse’s initial intervention?

A. Increase the IV Fluid rate to 180 ml/hr.

B. Administer Dopamine.

C. Assess the client’s wound.

D. Notify the physician.

A

Explanation

Choice A is correct. The client is manifesting with Hypovolemic shock with systolic blood pressure less than 90mmHg and signs of inadequate tissue perfusion (weak and thready peripheral pulses) on physical examination.This represents a low circulatory fluid volume. In the setting of hypovolemia, the heart rate is increased as the heart attempts to maintain adequate cardiac output. The priority action for the nurse in this situation is to restore circulating blood volume. Increasing his IV Normal Saline flow rate will provide the client with circulatory blood volume immediately; this is, therefore, the first intervention.

Many independent nursing interventions are crucial to the care of the person in shock. It starts with assessment and monitoring for shock symptoms and signs. Trauma is defined by the presence of signs of inadequate tissue perfusion +/- systolic blood pressure less than 90mmHg or means arterial blood pressure less than 65 mmHg or a drop of systolic blood pressure of more than 40 mmHg from baseline. Different types of shock include Hypovolemic, Distributive (Septic, Neurogenic, Anaphylactic, Shock in adrenal crisis), Obstructive, or Cardiogenic shock.

Please remember a couple of formulas here; knowing these formulas makes understanding interventions easier.

Blood pressure = Cardiac Output (CO) x Peripheral Vascular Resistance (PVR)
Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) = 1/3(Systolic Blood pressure) + 2/3 (Diastolic Blood pressure)
Cardiac Output = Heart Rate x Stroke Volume.

Please note that interventions may change based on the type of shock.

For most types of shock, initial intervention is to give adequate IV Fluids (Isotonic fluid-like Normal Saline) to target a mean arterial pressure of 65 mmHg. Successful treatment of trauma will restore peripheral pulses to baseline. Vasopressors are not the first-line treatment in Hypovolemic shock.
Even in the setting of Septic Shock, the first step would be to increase IV fluids to restore the pressure. In Septic shock, peripheral vasodilation from toxins results in decreased peripheral vascular resistance (Low PVR results in low blood pressure, apply this in the above formula). Increasing fluids will fill up the PVR. The goal is to target a MAP of 65 mmHg. If the target is not achieved after adequate IV fluids, vasopressors such as Dopamine or Norepinephrine are added. These vasopressors restore blood pressure to the target level by increasing cardiac output (by increasing stroke volume and heart rate) (Cardiac output =Stroke Volume x Heart rate)
In Cardiogenic shock, IV hydration is contraindicated since lungs are often congested. Interventions in cardiogenic shock are aimed to reduce preload (Nitroglycerin), decrease afterload, and increase cardiac output (Dobutamine, Dopamine, Norepinephrine).
In Obstructive shock (Air embolism, tension pneumothorax, cardiac tamponade), intervention is aimed at relieving the obstruction. For example, placing the client in Trendelenburg position in Air-embolism, Thoracentesis in Tension pneumothorax, and pericardiocentesis in Cardiac Tamponade.

Choice B is incorrect. The client may need medications like Dopamine to increase his blood pressure. However, the immediate intervention in the situation is to increase circulating blood volume, which is to increase the IV fluid rate. If the MAP target is not achieved despite increasing IV fluid, then vasopressors (Dopamine) are used.

Choice C is incorrect. Assessment of the client’s surgical wound for possible infection or bleeding/ hematoma should be done. However, the client is manifesting signs of diminished circulation, leading to shock. The nurse should support the client’s flow by increasing the IV fluid rate.

Choice D is incorrect. The physician should be notified, but the nurse should initiate an emergency nursing intervention first since the client is visibly in shock. The nurse has enough evidence of reduced tissue perfusion based on her assessment; maintaining an adequate circulating blood volume is a priority.

22
Q

You suspect physical abuse in an older adult with Alzheimer’s disease. The client lives with her son and grandchildren. What health issues might you expect to find in families related to physical abuse?(Select all that apply).

A. Upper respiratory infections

B. Bruises and broken bones

C. Unintended pregnancies

D. Repetitive strain injuries

E. Alcoholism

F. Depression

A

Explanation

Choices B, C, E, and F are correct.

Domestic violence, including physical, emotional, and sexual abuse, occurs throughout society. It is present among all racial, social, and economic groups. Health issues related to domestic violence include physical injury from the assault and chronic health problems that may emerge, either as a complication of traumatic injury or as a physical response to ongoing stress from violence or neglect

o B-Health issues related to domestic violence include physical injury from the assault itself, such as bruises and broken bones.

o C- Families experiencing domestic violence have more unintended pregnancies, miscarriages, abortions, and low-birth-weight babies.

o E & F- Families experiencing domestic violence have higher rates of substance abuse and depression.

A is incorrect. While stress may affect immunity, upper respiratory infections are not particularly associated with physical abuse.
D is incorrect. Repetitive strain injuries are not particularly associated with physical abuse. They are seen with repetitive tasks performed over long periods, such as typing and using a mouse or assembling parts in a factory line.
23
Q

While precepting a new nurse in the emergency department, you know she understands the steps for Adult CPR when she places the following actions in the correct order:
Deliver 2 rescue breaths.
Check for a pulse for no longer than 10 seconds at the carotid artery.
Determine that the patient is unconscious.
Initiate chest compressions.

A

Explanation

According to the American Heart Association, the first step to CPR is determining that the patient is unconscious. Next, the nurse should check for a pulse at the carotid. Take no longer than 10 seconds, and if no vibration is felt proceed to initiate chest compressions. Compression is delivered at a depth of â…“ of the anterior-posterior diameter and a rate of 100-120 compressions/minute, or once every 5-6 seconds. After reading 30 high-quality compressions, the airway should be opened with the head tilt-chin lift maneuver. Lastly, two rescue breaths should be given with a visible chest rise noted. The nurse will continue delivering 30 compressions and two rescue breaths until help arrives, and further interventions can be taken.

24
Q

Fear and anxiety are quite similar. However, there are differences. Select the statement(s) below that are accurate in terms of differentiating fear from anxiety. Select all that apply.

A. Fear is related to the present danger and anxiety is related to a future danger.

B. Anxiety is secondary to a psychological stressor and fear is secondary to a physical or psychological stressor.

C. Fear is secondary to an identifiable source and anxiety is secondary to an unidentifiable source.

D. Anxiety is diffuse and vague and fear is more specific and definable.

A

Explanation

ChoicesB, C, and D are correct.

Anxiety is secondary to a psychological stressor whereas fear is secondary to either a physical or psychological stressor ( Choice B).

Anxiety is secondary to an unidentifiable source whereas fear is secondary to an identifiable source (Choice C).

Anxiety is diffuse and vague whereas fear is more specific and definable ( Choice D).

Choice A is incorrect. Fear can be related to past, present, or future threats or stressors.

NCSBN Client Need
Topic: Psychosocial integrity; Sub-topic: Stress management.
Reference:
Kozier and Erb’s Fundamentals of Nursing: Concepts, Process, and Practice (10th Edition).

25
Q

You are working as a school nurse in a local high school. One of the students frequently presents to your office with a fever, runny nose, nausea, vomiting, and dilated pupils. What do you suspect is most likely happening with this high school student?

A. Inhalant abuse

B. Barbiturate abuse

C. Oxycodone abuse

D. Viral infection

A

Explanation

Choice C is correct. You most likely suspect that this high school student is abusing an opioid drug such as oxycodone. Fever, runny nose, excessive yawning, nausea, vomiting, and dilated pupils are some of the signs associated with opiate withdrawal. Based on the presentation, it appears like the student is abusing opioids potentially after school and now showing early withdrawal signs. Withdrawal symptoms may present just after 8 to 12 hours in clients with a history of chronic opioid abuse.

Symptoms of Opioid Withdrawal: -

Early symptoms and signs of opioid withdrawal include diaphoresis, nausea, yawning, lacrimation, tremor, rhinorrhea, agitation, dilated pupils, and increased pulse rate at greater than 90. These early withdrawal symptoms start 8-12 hours after the last dose.
Late signs of opioid withdrawal are more severe and include nausea with vomiting, abdominal cramps, diarrhea, chills, insomnia, dilated pupils, tachycardia, tachypnea, and hypertension.

Opioid overdose may present with symptoms opposite to those of withdrawal. These include slurred speech, respiratory depression, hypotension, drowsiness, and constricted pupils. However, a client with opioid overdose is likely to present to the emergency department rather than attending the school.

The nurse should be aware of the effects of various drugs on the pupil size because it may help determine the substance being abused. Opioid overdose is the only condition that is associated with pupillary constriction (pinpoint pupils).

The substance-abuse conditions that are associated with pupillary dilation include

Use of CNS stimulants: Marijuana (Cannabis); Amphetamines (MDMA, Ecstasy), Cocaine, Mescaline, SSRIs (Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors), Hallucinogens (mescaline, LSD, psilocybin)
Withdrawal of opioids. (e.g., Heroin Withdrawal.)

Choice A is incorrect. An inhalant abuse should be suspected in a client who is demonstrating slurred speech, uncoordinated movements, and stupor. Such symptoms can also be seen with opioid overdose. Pupil size tends to be reasonable in an inhalant overdose or withdrawal.

Choice B is incorrect. Withdrawal from Barbiturate abuse or other CNS depressant abuse should be suspected if the client is presenting with withdrawal symptoms of nausea, vomiting, insomnia, hyperreflexia, anxiety, tremors, seizures, hallucinations, and psychomotor agitation. Pulse and respiratory rate may increase. Fever may be seen in barbiturate withdrawal. However, dilated pupils are not a manifestation of Barbiturate withdrawal and serve as a differentiator from opioid withdrawal. Symptoms of Barbiturate withdrawal develop 24-36 hours after the last dose.

Barbiturate overdose also does not affect pupil size. If the pupils are dilated in a barbiturate overdose patient, that is from secondary anoxia rather than the drug itself.

Choice D is incorrect. Although fever is a distractor, this presentation is not consistent with an infection because of the frequent occurrence over the last one month and the presence of dilated pupils.

26
Q

The nurse is giving an in-service on complications of positive pressure ventilation. Which should be included as a potential cause of alveolar hypoventilation?

A. Incorrect respiratory rate in ventilator settings.

B. Air leakage from endotracheal tube.

C. Excessive lung secretions.

D. High tidal volume in ventilator settings.

A

Explanation

C is correct. The presence of excessive lung secretions is associated with alveolar hypoventilation.

A is incorrect. A low respiratory rate in ventilator settings is associated with alveolar hyperventilation.

B is incorrect. Air leakage from the ET tube results in decreased delivered tidal volume.

D is incorrect. The high tidal volume setting is associated with mechanical over-ventilation and alveolar hyperventilation.

27
Q

Which form of therapy would most likely be used to treat a group of clients affected by phobias?

A. Behavioral psychotherapy

B. Cognitive behavioral psychotherapy

C. Psychoanalysis

D. Cognitive psychotherapy

A

Explanation

Choice A is correct. Behavioral psychotherapy is useful for patients who are adversely affected by phobias, substance-related disorders, and other addictive disorders. Some of the techniques used with behavioral therapy include operant conditioning as put forth by Skinner, aversion therapy, desensitization therapy, modeling, and complementary and alternative stress management techniques.

B is incorrect. Cognitive-behavioral psychotherapy is a treatment that combines cognitive psychotherapy and behavioral psychotherapy. It is also referred to as dialectical behavioral therapy. The most common use of this type of therapy is for clients with a personality disorder who are at risk for injury to themselves and others.

C is incorrect. Psychoanalysis deals with the client’s subconscious and focuses on past and current issues. It is conducted only by experienced psychotherapists.

D is incorrect. Cognitive psychotherapy is primarily used to treat patients with depression, anxiety disorders, or eating disorders. It is aimed at altering the client’s perspective and attitudes relating to stressors.

28
Q

The mean arterial pressure (MAP) for a patient with a systolic blood pressure of 126 mm Hg, diastolic blood pressure of 84 mm Hg, and a heart rate of 118 beats per minute is ___________ mm Hg.

A

Explanation

Answer: 98

Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) corresponds to a sum of 1/3rd of systolic blood pressure (SBP) and 2/3rd of diastolic blood pressure (DBP).

Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP) = 1/3(SBP) + 2/3(DBP)

MAP is also represented as in the formula below:-

In this example, {126 + 2(84)}/ 3 = (126 +168)/ 3 = 294/3 = 98.

Heart rate is not a factor in the calculation of mean arterial pressure.

A nurse should know the concept of MAP monitoring, especially when dealing with the following case scenarios:-

In septic shock, vasopressor dosing is titrated based on the MAP. For good outcomes in septic shock, surviving sepsis guidelines recommend MAP be maintained at or above 65 mm Hg.
In traumatic brain injury (TBI)/ head injury or stroke, treatment is adjusted based on the patient's MAP.  In TBI, intracranial pressure (ICP) is increased. An increase in ICP can decrease cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP). Brain Trauma Foundation (BTF) guidelines recommend maintaining cerebral perfusion pressure ( CPP) at a target of 55 mm Hg to 70 mm Hg to prevent cerebral ischemia. CPP is dependent on MAP because CPP is the difference between the mean arterial pressure (MAP) and the ICP (CPP = MAP - ICP). Target MAP in most severe head injury patients should be around 80 mm Hg. In these patients, lowering MAP below 60 mm Hg may worsen cerebral ischemia.
29
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate crisis intervention technique to assist a client who has severe depression and thoughts of suicide?

A. Privacy and a client room without stimulation or the presence of others.

B. An empathetic and non-judgmental exploration of the client’s feelings.

C. Probing the client for details of their suicide plan.

D. The use of restraints and seclusion

A

Explanation

The correct answer is B. An empathetic and non-judgmental exploration of the client’s feelings and facilitating the client’s open verbalization of their beliefs is the only appropriate crisis intervention technique to assist a client who has severe depression and thoughts of suicide, as based on the client information provided in this question.

Choice A is incorrect. Privacy and a client room without stimulation or others’ presence are contraindicated with severe depression and thoughts of suicide because one-to-one monitoring is necessary.

Choice C is incorrect. Probing the client for details of their suicide plan is not an appropriate crisis intervention technique to assist a client who has severe depression and thoughts of suicide because probing is not therapeutic, and it is invasive.

Choice D is incorrect. The use of restraints and seclusion is not an appropriate crisis intervention technique to assist a client who has severe depression and thoughts of suicide because control and privacy are not indicated until all other preventive alternative interventions have failed. The client is in immediate danger, which is not found in this question.

30
Q

A nurse is assigned to care for a client with anorexia nervosa. Which intervention should the nurse apply following the patient’s meals?

A. Instruct the client to get some exercise or go for a walk after meals

B. Restrict client from going to the bathroom for 90 minutes after eating

C. Ask the client to lie down for 2 hours after eating

D. Encourage patient to start an intense exercise program

A

Explanation

Choice B is correct.The nurse should observe the client while eating and prevent the client from using the bathroom for 90 minutes after meals to break the purging cycle. Purging is seen both with bulimia and anorexia.

Anorexia nervosa is of two types: a) restrictive type and b) binge-eating/ purging type. In restrictive type, the client significantly restricts the food intake. In binge eating/ purging type, the client purges what he/ she has eaten by vomiting or by using medications such as laxatives/ diuretics.

Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Exercise is not encouraged until the client has shown adequate weight gain. Until then, training should be done in moderation. There is no need for the patient to lie down after meals

31
Q

A nurse is talking to new volunteers at an elderly community club regarding elder abuse. The nurse identifies which of the volunteer’s clients as the one that is most vulnerable to abuse?

A. A 75-year-old man that has diabetes

B. A 79-year-old man with cataracts

C. An 87-year-old woman with Parkinson’s disease

D. A 64-year-old woman with psoriasis

A

Explanation

Choice C is correct. Most elder abuse victims are females of advanced age and have at least one physical or mental impairment that limits their ability to perform activities of daily living. The client described in choice C is a woman who has Parkinson’s disease, which impairs her cognitively. She is also of advanced age, which further makes her susceptible to abuse.

Choice A is incorrect. Although this client is elderly, he’s a male and has no physical impairment. This client is at a very low risk for elder abuse.

Choice B is incorrect. The client is a male with cataracts. Although he has a visual impairment, he is not at significant risk due to his gender and lack of significant mental/ physical impairment.

Choice D is incorrect. Although her gender puts her at risk of abuse, she does not have any physical or mental impairment, nor does she have an extremely advanced age.

32
Q

While taking care of a client with heart failure in the telemetry unit, the nurse notices the transition of his heart rhythm to the one shown in the exhibit.The client is on Digoxin and Furosemide. He is asymptomatic, heart rate is 40 beats per minute, and blood pressure is 110/60 mmHg. Which of the following interventions are appropriate? Select all that apply.

(EXHIBIT: telemetry strip shows a third-degree heart block)

A. Administer Atropine

B. Notify Physician

C. Check potassium level

D. Obtain digoxin level

E. Administer 1-liter Normal Saline intravenously.

F. Use Transcutaneous Pacer

A

Explanation

Choices B, C, and D are correct. The telemetry strip shows a third-degree heart block, otherwise known as a complete heart block. In 3rd degree or entire heart block, there is no atrioventricular conduction, so no impulses from the supraventricular nodes (sinus impulses) are conducted to the ventricles whatsoever. This results in erratic heart rates where the sinus node and the atrioventricular nodes are beating independently. This leads to a junctional rhythm where there is no correlation between P-waves and QRS complexes. The atrial rhythm will be regular (P to P interval regular). Ventricular rhythm is steady (R-to-R range is consistent). However, the R-R interval will be variable. These are the typical characteristics of a 3rd degree AV block.

If you notice a complete heart block, you must notify the physician (Choice B) immediately so appropriate interventions can be implemented. It is crucial to look for and quickly correct the reversible causes of complete heart block.

A complete heart block may be secondary to different causes. In this instance, the client is on Digoxin and Furosemide. Based on the available information, the entire heart block may be secondary to digitalis toxicity. The most common trigger of digitalis toxicity is hypokalemia, which may occur because of the client’s diuretic therapy (Furosemide). Digoxin level (Choice D) and potassium levels (Choice C) must be checked as soon as possible. If present, hypokalemia must be corrected quickly.

Causes of a complete heart block may be grouped into Reversible and Irreversible causes. Treatment is directed towards addressing the symptoms and addressing the etiology.

Reversible causes such as medications (Digoxin toxicity, an overdose of beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers); Hypothyroidism, Lyme disease, Hyperkalemia, and Inferior wall MI that transiently damages AV node.
Irreversible causes such as anterior wall myocardial infarction that permanently damages the distal conduction system of the heart.
Congenital causes such as maternal lupus (because of maternal antibodies crossing the placenta and attacking the heart tissue of the fetus during gestation).

Choice A and F incorrect. In this instance, the client is asymptomatic and hemodynamically stable. Since the client is asymptomatic, these interventions (Choices A and F) need not be undertaken immediately. The client should be observed and monitored. One should search for and correct the reversible causes. If not readily reversible, preparation should be made for transvenous pacing. If symptoms are present, Atropine should be administered (Choice A). If symptomatic, a Transcutaneous pacer (Choice F) must be used until a transvenous pacemaker can be placed.

A complete heart block may lead to fatal symptomatic bradycardia with a heart rate of less than 40/min. Symptoms of severe such bradycardia include hypotension, congestive heart failure exacerbation, pulmonary congestion, chest pain, decreased level of consciousness, seizures, cerebral ischemia, cardiac arrest, and sudden cardiac death.

As per the advanced cardiac life support (ACLS) recommendations, the first step in treating symptomatic bradycardic patients involves administering intravenous Atropine. Since Atropine acts at the AV node, it is rarely effective in increasing the heart rate in clients with complete heart block and 2nd-degreeMobitz Type II heart block.

For hemodynamically unstable patients (shock) or those with symptomatic bradycardia, immediate treatment is needed, and most often, physician orders temporary pacing to increase heart rate and cardiac output to stabilize blood pressure.

Once patients are hemodynamically stable, an attempt is made to identify any reversible cause and reverse it.

In the case of digoxin toxicity, the physician may order Digoxin immune Fabs, check potassium, and correct hypokalemia as low potassium may aggravate digitalis toxicity.
In the case of beta-blocker overdose, Glucagon is administered.
In the case of Calcium channel blocker overdose, Calcium chloride is administered.
In the case of Hypothyroidism, thyroid hormone replacement is undertaken.
In the case of Hyperkalemia, medicines to reduce potassium level (Insulin/ dextrose; Sodium Bicarbonate; Kayexalate) and to antagonize potassium's cardiac effects (calcium chloride)
If no reversible cause can be identified, the physician inserts a permanent pacemaker.

Choice E is incorrect. There is no reason to administer IV fluids since the client is hemodynamically stable. In the case of congestive heart failure, excessive and unnecessary IV hydration may worsen the client’s heart failure symptoms.

33
Q

A client in the psychiatric unit is having fits of uncontrolled anger. He is also seen shouting at staff and threatening to hurt them. The psychiatric nurse’s most appropriate action would be:

A. Call security to restrain and then sedate the client.

B. Tell the client to calm down.

C. Threaten the client to remove his privileges if he does not stop.

D. Observe the client and leave him alone to calm down.

A

Explanation

Choice A is correct. Once the client is at risk of harming himself, other clients or staff, the nurse should call for help and prepare to administer a sedative/ tranquilizer to calm him down. De-escalation should be continued all the time, talking, reassuring, and negotiating. However, in this mentally unstable patient, physical intervention should be undertaken quickly. Physical restraint should be the minimum necessary for the shortest period. Control is best done seated on a bed or kneeling and try to restrain supine, not prone. Physical restraint should be accompanied by rapid sedation with medications. In cases like these, you need quick control within 30–60 minutes. The sedative should have an early onset of action but not so much to cause harm.

The exhibit below will show some of the preferred agents of sedation in this setting – preferred because of “Rapid Onset” of action and “Short Duration” of work. The nurse should monitor vital signs continuously if necessary

Physicians will usually order Lorazepam – often, the first-line drug in mental health settings, due to concerns that haloperidol can be arrhythmogenic. The nurse should wait about 20 to 30 mins before re-administering a dose since it takes about 20 to 30 mins for these drugs to produce peak effect. The nurse should monitor for the desired effect and understand the side effects. The nurse should keep Flumazenil ready in case respiratory depression occurs with benzodiazepines. The nurse should keep anticholinergics like Diphenhydramine or Benztropine available as an antidote should side effects like dystonic reactions occur from haloperidol.

Choice B is incorrect. The client is enraged and agitated. Telling the client to calm down will not deescalate the crisis and may provoke the client even more. If the client is otherwise mentally stable, acknowledging his distress without making accusations may help. For example, comments such as ‘you are upset’ or ‘you seem very angry’ may help calm the patient if he is not mentally unstable. In the case of mentally stable patients, one could also use disarming comments such as ‘how can I help?’. Asking the patient how to defuse the situation may also help – this is referred to as ‘positive engagement’ in mental health practice. In this patient scenario, he is mentally unstable, and there is a risk of an impending threat to the staff involved. So, Choice A would be the most appropriate action.

Choice C is incorrect. Threatening the client may also provoke him and escalate the crisis. Threats or getting angry yourself never helps. A nurse must respond to anger or conflict in a calm and measured way, trying to promote collaboration and avoid further provocation. Such an approach is referred to as ‘emotional and behavioral self-regulation.’

Choice D is incorrect. If a violent incident is imminent, you need to intervene. The criterion to act is that there is a severe immediate risk of harm to the patient, other patients, visitors, or staff. Leaving the client alone may lead to injury to the client and others and, therefore, not appropriate.

34
Q

While rounding in the mental health unit, you are learning about specific phobias. You should be aware that Ailurophobia is an unreasonable fear of:

A. Social interactions

B. Clowns

C. Crowds

D. Cats

A

Explanation

Correct Answer is D. Ailurophobia is best described as an unreasonable fear of cats. The psychiatric mental health treatment interventions for phobias are based on the specific type of phobia. For example, Ailurophobia is usually treated with exposure therapy to the object or situation that is causing this unreasonable fear.

Choice A is incorrect. A fear of social interactions is referred to as a Social phobia. Social interaction phobias are typically treated with exposure therapy, antidepressants, or beta-blockers.

Choice B is incorrect. The fear of clowns, which is referred to as Coulrophobia, is typically treated with exposure therapy.

Choice C is incorrect. The fear of crowds, which is referred to as Enochlophobia, is also typically treated with exposure therapy.

35
Q

Which of the following types of grief is not considered normal and one that requires some interventions from the members of the healthcare team? Select all that apply.

A. Complicated grief

B. Anticipatory grief

C. Unresolved grief

D. Grief as the result of a perceived loss

A

Explanation

Choices A and C are correct.
Complicated grief and unresolved grief are not considered normal. Both types, therefore, require some interventions from the healthcare team members. Complicated grief is defined as pathological grief. It is characterized by maladaptive coping methods with the loss and the loss of normal functioning six months after the injury. Unresolved grief is characterized by an exaggerated and prolonged period of mourning.
Choices B and D are incorrect.
Anticipatory grief ( Choice B) is considered normal, and this type of grief occurs when the person reacts to a loss that is anticipated in the future. For example, a woman may have anticipatory grief before the actual loss of the breast with a mastectomy. Grief as the result of a perceived loss ( Choice D) is normal. Injuries that occur as the result of both actual and perceived failures must be resolved.

36
Q

The nurse in the Intensive Care Unit notes bleeding from the client’s transparent dressing over her peripheral intravenous site, gum bleeding, and frank blood in the urine. The client was originally admitted for Sepsis. What should be the nurse’s immediate next action?

A. Assess the client’s hemoglobin and hematocrit level

B. Check the client’s oxygen saturation.

C. Apply pressure to the intravenous site.

D. Call the physician.

A

Explanation

Choice D is correct. The client is manifesting signs of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC). This is a critical complication that often happens in the intensive care unit and usually is secondary to other serious etiologies such as Sepsis. In this condition, the clotting system is activated significantly and leads to the consumption of platelets and clotting factors. DIC can manifest with either bleeding or clotting complications. Thrombocytopenia (low platelet count), coagulopathy (increased prothrombin time, increased partial thromboplastin time, decreased fibrinogen), and hemolysis are hallmarks of DIC. In the absence of any significant bleeding, transfusing platelets or clotting factors may fuel the thrombotic process in DIC. Therefore, Platelets, cryoprecipitate, and Fresh Frozen Plasma are not routinely injected in DIC unless there is significant bleeding.

The client is bleeding from multiple sites. The nurse must call the physician first to initiate medical interventions, which may include ordering labs to confirm DIC, transfusing platelets, or infusing clotting factors.

Choice A is incorrect. DIC is a consumption coagulopathy and also causes intravascular hemolysis. Intravascular small clots (microthrombi) form due to activation of the coagulation pathway in DIC. Red blood cells may rub against these thrombi leading to hemolysis. Fragmented red blood cells (schistocytes) can be seen in DIC due to this hemolysis. Hemolysis causes a drop in hemoglobin and hematocrit (Anemia). The nurse should undoubtedly check the client’s Hemoglobin and Hematocrit levels; however, the nurse needs to notify the physician right away since the client is showing bleeding signs of DIC.

Choice B is incorrect. Assessing the client’s oxygen saturation may also be performed later. The client is not in apparent respiratory distress based on the information presented. Hypoxia is not the cause of his bleeding complications. DIC should be suspected in this bleeding, septic patient and the nurse must notify the physician immediately since urgent intervention is needed

Choice C is incorrect. The client is bleeding from multiple sites. The application of pressure to the intravenous site alone will not help stop the bleeding from other websites. DIC is a consumption coagulopathy. All the clotting factors and platelets are being used up in the clotting process. Therefore, the bleeding complications of DIC would necessitate platelets and clotting factor infusion

37
Q

Which of the following patients is at greatest risk for sensory deprivation?

A. An older man who is confined to bed at home following a stroke

B. An adolescent in an oncology unit who is working on homework supplied by her friends

C. A woman in active labor

D. A toddler in a playroom awaiting same-day surgery

A

Explanation

The correct answer is A. The patient in this option is confined to bed and visits/interaction with others may be limited leading to sensory deprivation.

Choices B, C and D are incorrect. All of these answer options reflect patients who are in environments in which environmental stimuli are adequate to prevent sensory deprivation.

The reticular activating system (RAS) is a network of neurons located in the brain stem that projects anteriorly to the hypothalamus to mediate behavior. Sensory deprivation results when a person experiences decreased sensory input or input that is monotonous, unpatterned, or meaningless.

With decreased sensory input, the RAS is no longer able to project a normal level of activation to the brain. As a result, the person may hallucinate simply to maintain an optimal level of arousal. Factors that place patients at a higher risk for sensory deprivation may include:

An environment that has decreased stimuli
Impaired ability to receive environmental stimuli (impaired vision or hearing)
Inability to process environmental stimuli (patients with spinal cord injuries, brain damage, or confused/disoriented patients)
38
Q

The nurse is caring for a post-stroke client when suddenly she notes that the client has a fixed and dilated pupil. What would be the most appropriate action by the nurse?

A. Reduce environment stimuli.

B. Reassess after ten minutes

C. Check the client’s blood pressure

D. Notify the physician

A

Explanation

Choice D is correct. The client is manifesting signs of increased intracranial pressure. This situation warrants immediate medical intervention to decrease the ICP. The nurse needs to Notify the physician immediately.

A is incorrect. A fixed and dilated pupil signifies an increase in ICP. Reducing environmental stimuli is not an appropriate intervention at the time.

B is incorrect. There is no need to reassess after ten minutes as this warrants immediate attention from the healthcare team.

C is incorrect. Checking the client’s blood pressure is unnecessary

39
Q

A nursing student is currently learning about domestic violence and wonders why the abused individual cannot “just quickly get out of the relationship.” Which theoretical model helps in explaining the cyclical and progressive nature of domestic and spousal abuse?

A. The Cycle of Abuse and Neglect.

B. The Cycle of Violence.

C. The Cycle of Impaired Couples.

D. The Duluth Model.

A

Explanation

Choice B is correct. The cycle of violence is a model developed in 1979 by Lenore Walker to explain the co-existence of disorder with love. It may be tough for those who have never experienced domestic abuse to understand why it is difficult for an abused individual to “just quickly leave” the relationship. Understanding the Cycle of Violence may help plan appropriate interventions to break the cycle and stop domestic violence.

Violence often occurs in a repetitive cycle and usually consists of three phases: (1) the Tension phase, (2) the Acute explosion phase (Crisis phase), and (3) the Honeymoon Phase (calm phase).

In the tension-building phase, the abuser gets angry, argumentative, and starts threatening. Minor fights may occur. In this phase, victims often report a feeling of walking on eggshells. As the period progresses, tension continues to build.

In the second phase (explosion), significant verbal or physical abuse will occur. Major violent acts such as physical or sexual attacks will follow and may result in injury.

In the third phase (Calm phase or Honeymoon period), the abuser expresses sorrow and feelings of guilt. The abuser shows love and promises to change and get himself/herself help. The victim feels like things are getting much better, but the phase does not last. The cycle starts all over again, and the three steps repeat over time. It is, therefore, hard to end an abusive relationship since the three phases of love, hope, and fear, keep the cycle moving. The cycle is progressive as well. With every period, the abuse may get worse during the explosion phase.

Choices A and C are incorrect. These cycles are non-existent and do not predict the progressive nature of domestic abuse.

Choice D is incorrect. The Duluth Domestic Abuse Intervention Project, also called “the Duluth Model,” is a model that was developed in the 1980s for guiding intervention in domestic violence. Contrary to the Cycle of Violence, the Duluth model maintains that the force is not cyclicalbut constant. The acts of violence are intentional, and the motivation for violence is to exert power and control over the victim. The image below shows the “Power and Control” wheel put forward by the Duluth Model.

40
Q

The nurse is providing care to a client with an endotracheal tube that requires suctioning. While suctioning, the client’s heart rate and respiratory rate increase. Which priority actions are appropriate for the nurse to take? Select all that apply.

A. Check oxygen saturation.

B. Call a rapid response.

C. Increase suction pressure.

D. Stop suctioning.

E. Notify the physician.

A

Explanation

Choices A and D are correct. Tracheal suctioning is often needed to clear the secretions and maintain an open airway. It is important for the RN to understand the complications of tracheal suctioning. If the nurse notices a change in vital signs (Tachycardia, Tachypnea) while suctioning a patient, the nurse should stop the suctioning and check the oxygen saturation immediately.

When the client becomes tachycardic and tachypneic while suctioning, it is a sign of distress which indicates that the client is not tolerating the suctioning. Hence, suctioning needs to be immediately discontinued to prevent further distress and the cause of distress should be explored. Hypoxemia is an important cause of tachycardia and cardiac arrhythmias during suctioning. If hypoxemia is noted, 100% oxygen should be administered quickly. Other things to monitor for would be bradycardia, changes in the heart rhythm (arrhythmias), desaturations, or cyanosis.

Choice B is incorrect. There is no information in the question that indicates that a rapid response needs to be called. By discontinuing the suctioning and further exploring the cause of distress, the nurse has taken the appropriate actions. If the client’s condition were to continue to deteriorate after the suctioning was discontinued, then a rapid response may need to be called.

Choice C is incorrect. It is not appropriate for the nurse to increase suction pressure. The client’s vital signs have changed indicating that he/she is not tolerating the suctioning. If the nurse continues to suction or increases pressure further, the client may further deteriorate.

Choice E is incorrect. In this scenario, notifying the physician is not immediate nursing action. Independent nursing interventions ( actions in Choices A and D) should be implemented first. By discontinuing the suctioning and further exploring the cause of distress, the nurse has taken the appropriate action. If the client’s condition were to continue to deteriorate after the suctioning was discontinued, then the physician needs to be notified.

41
Q

The son of a client with early Alzheimer’s disease states. “I’m so tired of hearing. Dad talks about the past all the time.” What is the nurse’s best response?

A. “You should be more patient with your father and accepting of his disease.”

B. “He is quite anxious at this stage. Reliving the past helps him become calm again.”

C. “He has lost his short-term memory but can still remember events from long ago.”

D. “Just remind him when he repeats himself and that will reinforce better behavior.”

A

Explanation

The correct answer is C. Family members can become frustrated when clients with Alzheimer’s disease lose short-term memory. The nurse should explain to the family member that it’s the “short-term memory” that is declining, and encourage the client to talk about things that he/she can remember.

Choice A is incorrect. During the early stages of Alzheimer’s, family members are still trying to learn about and cope with the changes that their loved ones are experiencing. Patience with the family will be more beneficial than the scolding tone that this answer option portrays.

Choice B is incorrect. Early Alzheimer’s symptoms are not usually reflective of anxiety. Also, the client is not reliving past experiences because it makes him calm again. Instead, his behavior is expected as Alzheimer’s first effects short-term memory.

Choice D is incorrect. Reminding an Alzheimer’s patient that he is repeating himself will not improve the behavior as his short-term memory is affected. The hippocampus is the structure responsible for creating new memories from experiences. When it is damaged, short-term memory is not possible.

42
Q

As part of your psychosocial assessment of a 46-year-old female client, you would most likely assess the client:

A. Level of development.

B. Electrolyte levels.

C. Affect.

D. Effect.

A

Explanation

Correct Answer is C. You would most likely assess the client’s affect and mood as part of your psychosocial assessment of a 46-year-old female client. The effect is an indicator of the client’s psychological disposition. For example, a flat affect, not force, indicates the abnormal absence of emotion.

Choice A is incorrect. The level of development may come into consideration for this client; however, this assessment is most often and likely done with pediatric clients rather than adult clients.

Choice B is incorrect. Electrolyte levels are part of a client’s physical assessment and not a part of a psychosocial evaluation.

Choice D is incorrect. The effect is the result of a cause, and it is not related to the psychosocial assessment of clients.v

43
Q

A client is scheduled to undergo electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). The nurse understands which action needs to be performed prior to the ECT ?

A. Assess the client for contrast dye allergy.

B. Administer an anti-convulsant.

C. Apply a blood pressure cuff to the client’s arm.

D. Check if the client is on Metformin.

A

Explanation

Choice C is correct. ECT procedure involves administering an electric current to create a generalized seizure. Prior to this, the client is given intravenous sedation or general anesthesia. Anesthetic/ sedative medications such as barbiturates (thiopental, methohexital), propofol, and etomidate are often used. In addition, neuromuscular blockade agent (succinylcholine) is also used to reduce the risk of physical injury that may result from unopposed tonic-clonic muscle contractions during a seizure.

During the procedure, one should continuously monitor the vital signs, oxygen saturation, ECG, EEG (electroencephalogram) activity as well as, motor component of the seizure activity. But because of the neuromuscular blockade agent (NMBA) used during anesthesia/ sedation, one cannot readily appreciate motor activity of the seizure. In order to monitor whether electrical stimulation has produced a tonic-clonic seizure, a blood pressure (BP) cuff is wrapped around an ankle or arm and is inflated above systolic pressure before the NMBA is injected. This prevents NMBA from entering that foot or arm allowing the provider to visually observe the motor component of seizure activity in that foot/ arm.

Choice B is incorrect. The client is given intravenous sedation or general anesthesia before ECT. ECT involves inducing a cerebral seizure. Anticonvulsant should not be used.

Choice A is incorrect. The nurse does not need to assess the client for allergies to contrast dye. Iodinated contrast agents are not used during ECT.

Choice D is incorrect. While the medication list needs to be checked, there is no particular reason to give specific attention to Metformin prior to the ECT. The nurse does not need to stop Metformin prior to the ECT. Metformin should be held prior to administering intravenous contrast dye. ECT does not involve administering IV contrast.

44
Q

In the ICU, the low-pressure ventilator alarm goes off. The nurse attends the patient, checks the ventilator, and attempts to determine the cause of the signal. She is unable to identify the cause. Which action would the nurse initiate next?

A. Give oxygen to the patient.

B. Assess the client’s vital signs.

C. Ventilate the client manually.

D. Start CPR immediately.

A

Explanation

Choice B is Correct. Checking the client’s vital signs is the priority action among the options given. If the patient is unstable and struggling for air and if no problem has been found with a ventilator, the nurse needs to disconnect the patient from the ventilator and manually ventilate until the problem can be identified. While the question indicates that the Nurse attended the patient, it does not mention if the nurse evaluated the vitals and if the patient is stable. In the absence of such information in the question, it is crucial to assess the vitals and determine if they are durable. Whenever an alarm activates on a ventilator, the nurse first should make sure the patient is adequately ventilated and oxygenated. The nurse should assess the patient’s level of consciousness, use of accessory muscles, and chest wall movements; determine whether bilateral breath sounds are present and evaluate the heart rate and SpO2. If the ventilator is intact, the client should never breathe at a rate less than that set on the ventilator.

Causes of Low-Pressure ventilator alarm: A leak or disconnect most often causes low-pressure alarmsin the ventilator tubing. Causes include:

The patient self-extubates or gets disconnected from the ventilator.
Inadequate inflation of the tracheostomy tube cuff
Poorly fitting noninvasive masks or nasal pillows/prongs
Loose circuit and tubing connections
The patient demands higher levels of air than the ventilator is putting out.

Responding to Low-Pressure Alarms: While responding to this alarm, please follow this sequence:

Always evaluate the patient before checking the ventilator, i.e., always start at the patient and then work your way towards the ventilator checking for loose connections.
Assess the patient’s vitals, assess consciousness, chest wall movements, accessory muscles, and oxygen saturation.
Look for leaks at the site where the tracheostomy tube enters the neck. Look for loose connections in the rest of the ventilator tubing.
If the cause of alarm still cannot be identified, disconnect the circuit from the patient and manually ventilate with a resuscitation bag (Ambu bag) and then call for help.

Choice A is incorrect. Oxygen may be helpful, but it may not be enough to address the cause of low-pressure alarm.

Choice C is incorrect. After checking the patient’s vitals and if no immediate cause for the ventilator alarm can be identified, the nurse needs to disconnect the patient from the ventilator and administer manual ventilation until the problem can be identified and solved. While this option can be a distractor here, please note that it does not take priority over “assessing the patient” unless such information is clearly presented in the question.

Choice D is incorrect. There is no indication for CPR at this moment. It is essential to assess the vitals first.

45
Q

Your client has been diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis secondary to alcohol abuse. Which of the following is the most appropriate tertiary prevention expected outcome for this client?

A. Altered digestion is secondary to pancreatitis.

B. Altered coping secondary to alcoholism.

C. The client will be free of insomnia during hospitalization.

D. The client will participate in a 12 step recovery program.

A

Explanation

The Correct Answer is D.The client will participate in a 12 step recovery program is the most appropriate tertiary prevention expected outcome for this client who has been diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis secondary to alcohol abuse. Tertiary prevention includes rehabilitation, and a 12 step recovery program is a form of repair.

Choice A is incorrect. Altered digestion secondary to pancreatitis is a physiological nursing diagnosis and not an expected outcome or client goal.

Choice B is incorrect. Altered coping secondary to alcoholism is a psychological nursing diagnosis and not an expected outcome or client goal.

Choice C is incorrect. The client will be free of insomnia during hospitalization is an expected outcome. However, insomnia during hospitalization is a secondary, rather than a tertiary, prevention expected outcome or client goal.

46
Q

The emergency room is packed with victims of a capsized ship. Almost all of the victims are suffering from hypothermia. The ER staff is busy treating their hypothermia with active warming methods. All of the following are active external rewarming methods except:

A. Immersing the client in a 40°C bath.

B. Placing the client on a warming blanket.

C. Infusing warmed IV fluids.

D. Placing radiant lamps over the client.

A

Explanation

A is incorrect. Immersing the client in a 40°C bath, covering the client with a warming blanket, and placing lamps over the client are all methods of active warming.

B is incorrect. Immersing the client in a 40°C bath, covering the client with a warming blanket, and placing lamps over the client are all methods of active warming.

C is correct. Infusing warmed IV fluids is an example of active core warming.

D is incorrect. Immersing the client in a 40°C bath, covering the client with a warming blanket, and placing lamps over the client are all methods of active warming.

47
Q

A nurse is assessing a patient for possible domestic violence. The nurse should know that all of the following are warning signs of the presence of violence except:(Select All That Apply)

A. Stating that everything is “just fine”

B. Expressing sadness over a loss

C. Displaying mood and behavior changes

D. Wanting to have family involved

A

Explanation

Choice D is correct. In most cases of abuse/violence, the victim does not want the family involved. Many times the perpetrator of violence will try to control the victim by threatening his/her family with harm. If the client wants the family to be involved, it is often “not” a warning sign of the presence of violence.

Recognizing signs of the possible presence of violence are essential nursing skills, as many victims will not immediately report abuse. Often victims will seem dismissive of what the nurse feels is a sign of the presence of violence. The victim may state, “everything is fine” or “we have good days and bad days.” Being observant of mood and behavior changes will give the nurse a sense of when there are changes in a patient. Suspicion of violence is not something that should be taken lightly or second-guessed. It’s always best to observe and identify warning signs rather than waiting for the patient to complain first.

Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Warning signs of violence include behavior changes, withdrawal, depression, agitation, hyperarousal, a new display of anger, noncompliance, sexualized behavior, bowel or bladder problems, sleep problems, and unexplained/ curious injuries.

48
Q

You are working in a long-term psychiatric rehabilitation center and are assigned to a patient with debilitating agoraphobia. He is going through desensitization therapy. Which of the following interventions is an appropriate part of this treatment? Select all that apply.

A. Speak frequently of what causes the fear to start for him.

B. Take a short walk in the hallway outside of his room.

C. Make promises to support him and keep such promises.

D. Encourage him to face his fear outside where he is least comfortable.

A

Explanation

Answers: B and C

B is correct. Because your patient has agoraphobia, he will be reluctant to leave any place he feels comfortable for somewhere. This is either unfamiliar or hard to escape from. This is why people with agoraphobia have such a hard time leaving the house. Your patient needs to be desensitized to this fear slowly, and a short walk in the hallway outside of his room (where he feels safe) is an appropriate choice.

C is correct. This is a fundamental part of building a trusting relationship with your patient, and building a trusting relationship with a patient going through desensitization therapy is essential. You need the patient to be able to trust you so that when you ask them to do little things that are outside of their comfort zone, they will be able to do them. This is the key to slow, gradual progress in desensitization. Making small promises and keeping these promises will help build such a trusting relationship that you can improve your patient.

A is incorrect. When treating patients who have a phobia, it is not advisable to talk about hatred frequently. Although you will need to address the phobia over time, focusing on this does not help the patient desensitize. Instead, it keeps them focused on hatred. For some patients, just speaking about their phobia can send them into a panic attack.

D is incorrect. The key to desensitization therapy with phobias is a gradual change over time, not a dramatic leap to facing the hatred directly. This advice would likely cause your patient to have a panic attack, which would set him back considerably. Instead of suggesting that he face his phobia and jump right to where he is least comfortable, start with little steps, and work towards those bigger goals gradually.

49
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with septic shock presenting with a temperature 102F, heart rate 98 beats/minute, and blood pressure of 126/84 mm Hg. Which phase of septic shock is this patient experiencing?

A. Progressive

B. Hypodynamic

C. Initial stage

D. Hyperdynamic

A

Answer: D

Progressive - “Cold Shock”
Decrease in Cardiac output, hypotension, Anasarca

Hypodynamic - FINAL / IRREVESIBLE
decrease cardiac output, decrease BP, vasoconstriction ; unresponsive to therapies

Initial stage - hypoxia

Hyperdynamic - “Warm Shock” BP within normal range, increase Heart rate, increase body temperature