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Drugs and Behaviour > Fundamental techniques and knowledge > Flashcards

Fundamental techniques and knowledge Flashcards

1
Q

types of drug names (4)

A

(1) chemical, (2) generic (nonproprietary), (3) trade and (4) street

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2
Q

what does the stem (last part of name) of a generic drug name indicate?

A

class or function

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3
Q

stem that indicates an antidepressant

A

-oxetine

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4
Q

what is the trade name for diazepam?

A

Valium

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5
Q

stem for local anaesthetics

A

-caine (eg.dibucaine)

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6
Q

stem for antianxiety agents

A

-azepam (eg. lorazepam)

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7
Q

which type of drug name is capitalized?

A

trade names

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8
Q

excipients

A

fillers, coloring agents, binding agents, and coatings

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9
Q

what is the common street name for MDMA?

A

ecstasy

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10
Q

drug dosages are in ____

A

milligrams (mg)

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11
Q

a milligram is 1/____ of a gram

A

1000

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12
Q

behavioural and physiological effects of a drug are related to its _______ rather than the absolute amount of drug administered

A

concentration in the body

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13
Q

dose-response curve (DRC)

A

a graph with the dose on the x-axis and effect on the y-axis

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14
Q

the horizontal axis of a DRC curve is usually plotted ____

A

logarithmically

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15
Q

ED50

A

median effective dose

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16
Q

LD50

A

median lethal dose

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17
Q

median effective dose

A

the does that is effective in 50% of the individuals tested

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18
Q

median lethal dose

A

the does that is lethal in 50% of tested individuals

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19
Q

therapeutic index (TI)

A

the ratio of the LD50 to the ED50 (higher is safer)

TI = LD50/ED50

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20
Q

potency

A

differences in the ED50 of two drugs with the same effect (lower is more potent)

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21
Q

effectiveness

A

differences in the maximum effect that drugs will produce at any dose

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22
Q

antagonism

A

when one drug diminishes the effect of another

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23
Q

what shift would you see in a DRC if antagonism was occuring?

A

a shift to the right

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24
Q

additive effect

A

when one drug increases the effect of another

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25
Q

what shift would you see in a DRC if a drug was having an additive effect?

A

shift to the left

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26
Q

superadditive effect or potentiation

A

drugs have an effect together that is greater than might be expected simply by combing their effects

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27
Q

pharmacokinetics

A

the study of how drugs move into, get around in, and are eliminated from the body

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28
Q

processes of pharmacokinetics (3)

A

(1) absorption, (2) distribution and (3) elimination

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29
Q

sites of action

A

the area of the body where a drug has an effect

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30
Q

parenteral routes of administration

A

injection through the skin into various parts of the body using a hollow needle and syringe

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31
Q

divisions of parenteral routes of administration (4)

A

(1) subcutaneous, (2) intramuscular, (3) intraperitoneal, (4) intravenous +other

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32
Q

vehicle

A

the liquid in which a powder drug is dissolved or suspended (usually a weak salt solution)

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33
Q

common vehicle

A

normal or physiological saline (0.9% sodium chloride)

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34
Q

example of a non-water based vehicle and why it might be used

A

vegetable oil; if drug is not water soluble it may be lipid-soluble (slows rate of absorption and prolongs drug’s effect over several days)

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35
Q

bolus

A

the small bubble of drug and vehicle that is injected into the body

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36
Q

subcutaneous (s.c. or sub-q)

A

drug is injected to form a bolus just under the skin or cutaneous tissue (eg. arm, thigh)

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37
Q

intramuscular (i.m.)

A

needle is inserted into a muscle and a bolus is left there (eg. deltoid, gluteus maximus); usually absorbed through the muscle’s capillaries within about an hour

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38
Q

intraperitoneal (i.p.)

A

needle inserted directly into the peritoneal cavity

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39
Q

peritoneum

A

sack containing the visceral organs (eg. intestines, liver and spleen)

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40
Q

intravenous (i.v.)

A

needle is inserted into a vein and the drug is injected directly into the bloodstream (very quick distribution)

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41
Q

other parenteral routes (3)

A

(1) intrathecal (nervous system via space between the base of skull and first vertebra), (2) intracerebroventricular (brain’s ventricles) and (3) intracerebral (brain tissue)

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42
Q

cannula

A

like a catheter, except a rigid tube that is often attached to the animal’s skull using dental cement and can remain permanently implanted

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43
Q

absorption is NOT necessary in what type of parenteral route?

A

intravenous (i.v.)

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44
Q

which parenteral site absorbs the fastest?

A

intraperitoneal (i.p.)

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45
Q

which parenteral site absorbs the slowest?

A

subcutaneous (s.c)

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46
Q

which factors can speed up absorption from i.m. and s.c. sites?

A

heat and exercise (increases blood flow to skin and muscle)

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47
Q

which substances CANNOT move in and out of capillaries?

A

RBCs and large protein molecules

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48
Q

diffusion

A

the process by which a substance tends to move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration until the concentrations are equal in both areas

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49
Q

why is absorption faster from i.m. sites than s.c. sites?

A

muscles need oxygen so there is a richer capillary supply than the skin

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50
Q

how many litres of blood are in the body and how fast does the heart pump them?

A

about 6L; all 6 are pumped in about a minute

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51
Q

depot injections

A

the drug is dissolved in a high concentration in a viscous oil (often sesame) which is then injected into a muscle (usually the buttock); slowly diffuses over a long period of time (up to 4 weeks)

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52
Q

intranasal administration (insufflation)

A

sniffing/ snorting drugs

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53
Q

per oral/ per os (p.o.)

A

drugs absorbed into the body through the digestive system by swallowing

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54
Q

intrarectal administration

A

suppositories inserted into the rectum

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55
Q

olive oil partition coefficient

A

equal amounts olive oil and water are placed in a beaker and a fixed amount of drug is mixed in; later the oil and water are separated and the amount of drug dissolved in each is measured

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56
Q

when a molecule of a drug carries an electric charge (ion) it ____ it’s ability to dissolve in lipids

A

loses

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57
Q

percentage of ionized molecules in a solution is determined by what? (3)

A

(1) whether the drugs is a weak acid or a weak base, (2) whether it’s an acid or a base and (3) its pKa

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58
Q

pKa

A

pH at which half of the molecules are ionized

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59
Q

transdermal administration

A

absorbed through the skin

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60
Q

drugs must be _____ soluble for transdermal administration

A

lipid

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61
Q

highly lipid-soluble drugs tend to concentrate in ____ ___ outside the ___

A

body fat; CNS

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62
Q

when a drug is dissolved in fat it is, in effect, ____

A

inactive

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63
Q

because of ion trapping, drugs that are weak bases will be concentrated in the fluid on the side of a membrane that is more ___

A

acidic

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64
Q

difference is pH is logarithmically related to ______ difference

A

concentration

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65
Q

a pH difference of 3.0 across a membrane will create what size difference in concentration?

A

1000

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66
Q

blood-brain barrier

A

a special barrier of cells wrapped around capillaries and blocking pores separates blood and the brain (CNS); a solid lipid barrier

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67
Q

what are two examples of brain areas with weak/incomplete blood-brain barriers?

A

area postrema of the medulla oblongata (vomit response to toxins in the blood); subfornical organ (hormone level detecting)

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68
Q

passive transport mechanism

A

large protein molecules create channels that allow non-lipid-soluble molecules to pass through in response to diffusion; or carrier protein

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69
Q

active transport mechanism

A

works against normal diffusion by concentrating a substance on one side of a membrane; requires energy and only takes place in living membranes (eg. ion pump)

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70
Q

protein binding

A

drugs may attach to a protein that is too large to diffuse out of the capillary pores; remains attached until metabolized or never get to action site; may act like depot injections

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71
Q

placental barrier

A

similar to the blood-brain barrier

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72
Q

drug concentration in the blood of a fetus usually reaches ___-___% of that of the mother within ____ of administration

A

75-100%; 5 minutes

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73
Q

what is the dynamic duo of excretion?

A

(1) kidneys and (2) liver

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74
Q

liver function

A

comparable to that of a chemical factory; molecules are modified to form useful substances and toxic molecules are made less harmful and ready to be filtered out by kidneys

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75
Q

enzymes

A

catalyst; substance that controls a certain chemical reaction

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76
Q

metabolism

A

process of restructuring molecules

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77
Q

products of metabolism are ____

A

metabolites

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78
Q

in terms of drugs, metabolic processes are sometimes called _____

A

detoxification

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79
Q

does detoxification always lead to less harmful metabolites?

A

no; example is THC (causes prolonged action)

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80
Q

are metabolites usually more likely or less likely to ionize?

A

more likely

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81
Q

why is it important that metabolites often ionize?

A

ionized molecules cannot be reabsorbed by through the nephron wall, meaning it is easier to excrete them

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82
Q

first-pass metabolism

A

when drugs are absorbed from the digestive system and pass through the liver before going anywhere in the body; subject to a certain amount of metabolism by liver enzymes before reaching target site; can also experience some metabolism in the stomach and intestines before absorption (eg. alcohol)

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83
Q

primary function of kidneys

A

maintain correct water/salt balance in body fluids

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84
Q

the kidney acts as a ____

A

filter

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85
Q

what is the functional unit of the kidney?

A

nephron

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86
Q

Bowman’s capsule

A

one end of the nephron; contains a clump of capillaries called the glomerulus

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87
Q

glomerulus

A

clump of capillaries inside Bowman’s capsule

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88
Q

collecting tube

A

back end of the nephron which empties into the ureters/ urinary bladder

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89
Q

what passes through the pores in the capillaries of the glomerulus?

A

most things except RBCs, WBCs and large proteins

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90
Q

what passes through the pores in the capillaries of the glomerulus (out of the blood and into the nephron)?

A

most things except RBCs, WBCs and large proteins

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91
Q

the kidney does not filter out impurities, it _____

A

filters everything out and then selective reabsorbs what is required

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92
Q

mechanisms of kidney reabsorption (3)

A

(1) diffusion, (2) lipid solubility and (3) active/passive transport

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93
Q

pH of urine

A

6.0

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94
Q

pH of blood

A

7.5

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95
Q

at low concentrations, the rate of metabolism will be ___

A

lower

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96
Q

half-life of a drug

A

rate of excretion; time taken for the body to eliminate half of a given blood level of a drug

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97
Q

first order kinetics

A

when the elimination of a drug changes with concentration

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98
Q

what is an important example of a drug that CANOOT be described in terms of a half-life (has zero order kinetics)?

A

alcohol

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99
Q

the excretion curve for alcohol is a ____ line

A

straight

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100
Q

what is the general rate of alcohol excretion?

A

15mg of alcohol/ 100 ml blood/ hour

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101
Q

zero order kinetics

A

when the rate of elimination of a drug is a straight line

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102
Q

alcohol is converted into ______ by _____

A

acetaldehyde; alcohol dehydrogenase

103
Q

acetaldehyde is converted into ___ ____ by the enzyme ______ ______

A

acetyl coenzyme; aldehyde dehydrogenase

104
Q

levels of a given enzyme can be increased by what?

A

previous exposure to a specific drug that uses that enzyme or some other enzyme system (enzyme induction)

105
Q

example of enzyme induction

A

heavy drinkers have increased levels of alcohol dehydrogenase in their liver

106
Q

issue with St. John’s wort

A

used to treat depression but can reduce the effectiveness of many other drugs because of enzyme induction (including oral contraceptives)

107
Q

how are enzyme systems depressed?

A

when two drugs that use the same enzyme are introduced into the body at the same time they compete for it causing reduced metabolism of both drugs

108
Q

why is it dangerous to take Disulfiram (Antabuse) with alcohol?

A

it competes for aldehyde dehydrogenase which is needed to convert acetaldehyde into acetyl conenzyme A…. causes a build up of acetaldehyde which is toxic; sometimes used to stop alcoholics from drinking

109
Q

how can age affect enzyme function?

A

infants have immature enzyme systems that cause different pathways or lack of drug metabolism; elderly people have less efficient liver function so dosage has to be decreased

110
Q

time course

A

effect of a drug (Y) over time (x) plotted on a graph (absorption and excretion)

111
Q

therapeutic window

A

the range of blood concentrations of a drug between a level that is ineffective (therapeutic level) and a level that has toxic side effects (toxic level)

112
Q

example of a drug with a narrow therapeutic window

A

lithium carbonate (bipolar disorder)

113
Q

why does risk of overdosing on morphine increase with use?

A

tolerance to the therapeutic effect increases faster than tolerance to the toxic effects, narrowing the therapeutic window over time (dose required for therapeutic effect gets closer to dose that causes toxic effects)

114
Q

behavioural pharmacology (vs psychopharmacology)

A

investigation of drug effects using operant analysis of behaviour; psychopharmacology is more often used to refer to research studying drug treatments of mental illness or psych disorders

115
Q

when and by whom was the term “behavioural pharmacology” coined?

A

Peter Dews; 1950s

116
Q

aims of behavioural pharmacology (2)

A

(1) observing behavioural changes produced by drugs and (2) analyzing the mechanisms of the drug’s effect

117
Q

what made the scientific study of behavioural pharmacology possible?

A

19th century development of modern chemical techniques that permitted isolation of drugs and synthesis of substances

118
Q

when did interest grow among pharmacologists with regard to how drugs affecting the CNS alter behaviour?

A

1940s and 1950s

119
Q

what was chlorpromazine marketed as in 1952?

A

antipsychotic

120
Q

what was the first antipsychotic drug?

A

chlorpromazine

121
Q

what did the success of chlorpromazine demonstrate?

A

the tremendous economic potential of behaviorally active drugs

122
Q

escape-avoidance test

A

measures the ability of rats to avoid and escape electric shock by climbing up a pole; used to examine the effect of antipsychotic drugs

123
Q

pentobarbital is a ____

A

sedative

124
Q

Peter Dews pigeon experiment

A

looked at the effect of different doses of pentobarbital on the rate of key pecking of pigeons responding for food on two different schedules of reinforcement; showed that different dosages/ reinforcement schedules had different effects on behaviour

125
Q

when was the behavioural pharmacology society founded?

A

1957

126
Q

what is the independent variable in behavioural pharmacology?

A

drug dose

127
Q

what is the dependent variable in behavioural pharmacology?

A

some change in behaviour

128
Q

within-subjects design

A

compare the behaviour of a drugged participant with the drug-free behaviour of that participant under similar conditions

129
Q

between-subjects design

A

compare the behaviour of a drugged participant with the behaviour of other drug-free participants under similar conditions

130
Q

balanced placebo design

A

two groups are told they are getting the drug, but only one is and another two groups do not expect to get the drug, but one does

131
Q

three-groups design

A

one group is given the drug, second group is given a placebo (left out for life-threatening diseases) and third group is given an established drug with known therapeutic effects

132
Q

nonexperimental research

A

looks for a relationship between two measured events (eg. link between smoking during pregnancy and increased infant mortality); no cause-and-effect inferences

133
Q

spontaneous motor activity (SMA)

A

measure of behaviour as how much there is

134
Q

open field

A

a large open box

135
Q

stereotyped behaviour

A

the continuous repetition of simple, purposeless acts such as rearing or head bobbing

136
Q

methods of measuring unconditioned behaviour (4)

A

(1) spontaneous motor activity (SM), (2) inclined plane test, (3) elevated plus maze and (4) paw lick latency test

137
Q

inclined plane test

A

animal is placed on a board that can be tilted to various degrees; the degree of tilt where the animals cannot hold on and slides off is a measure of muscle tone

138
Q

elevated plus maze

A

narrow boards in the shape of a plus raised a foot or more off the ground, two opposite arms of the plus have walls and the other two do not; whether they venture to the unprotected arms is a measure of anxiety

139
Q

paw lick latency test

A

rats placed on metal surface that is heated to about 500 degrees celsius; the time it takes for them to raise their hind paw to their mouth as though they were licking (paw lick latency) it is a measure of analgesic effect

140
Q

manipulandum

A

something that an animal can manipulate or move (eg. bar, lever) (usually in Skinner box)

141
Q

avoidance-escape task

A

light is warning of shock coming, if animal responds than the light is turned off (avoidance); animal can escape shock by responding once it has started

142
Q

what are avoidance-escape tasks used for?

A

determining if anti-psychotic drugs will work; interferes with an animal’s ability to avoid the shock but not to escape it

143
Q

apparatuses used for the avoidance-escape task (3)

A

(1) skinner box, (2) shuttle box and (3) pole climbing

144
Q

dissociation or state-dependent learning

A

events experienced in a drugged state might not have the ability to control behaviour when the organism is not drugged and vice-versa (eg. T-Maze avoidance-escape task)

145
Q

substitution test

A

animal is taught to discriminate between saline and a drug, then given a substitute drug (see how similar to original drug)

146
Q

abuse liability

A

the reinforcing property of a drug is an indication of its potential for abuse

147
Q

techniques for determining abuse liability (4)

A

(1) rate of responding, (2) progressive ratio schedule of reinforcement, (3) choice and (4) conditioned place preference

148
Q

problems with the technique: rate of responding (2)

A

(1) different durations of action and (2) many drugs have effects that interfere with self-administration

149
Q

breaking point

A

the point on a progressive ratio schedule of reinforcement in which the demand is too high and the animal will stop responding

150
Q

higher breaking points are usually a sign that there is more potential for ___

A

abuse

151
Q

visual analog scale (VAS)

A

participant makes a mark on a line between the two extreme alternatives to indicate how the variable applied to them

152
Q

profile of mood states (POMS)

A

paper-and-pencil test that ask participants to indicated on a five-point scale how each of 72 adjs apply to them in the moment (8 subscales)

153
Q

addiction research center inventory (ARCI)

A

developed so each class of drug has a unique profile of mood and physical changes; new drugs can be assessed in comparison to existing profiles

154
Q

liking scale

A

indicate how much the drug is liked

155
Q

absolute threshold

A

lowest value of a stimulus that can be detected by a sense organ

156
Q

difference thresholds

A

measures of the ability of a sense organ to detect a change in level or locus of simulation

157
Q

critical frequency at fusion

A

with increased speed of light flickering, eventually it will appear steady

158
Q

tests of motor performance: reaction time (2)

A

(1) simple reaction time and (2) complex reaction time

159
Q

test of hand-eye coordination

A

pursuit rotor; holding a stylus on a spot contained on a rotating disk

160
Q

test for attention and vigilance

A

mackworth clock test; clock hand moves at regular intervals but occasionally will move two places instead of one, participant must click the button

161
Q

test of short-term memory

A

N-back test; when a target stimulus appears, participant must recall the stimulus that was shown previously

162
Q

tests of long-term memory (2)

A

(1) free recall and (2) cued recall

163
Q

tests of inhibition (impulse control) (2)

A

(1) go-no go task and (2) go-stop task

164
Q

main cell types in the nervous system (2)

A

(1) glial cells and (2) neurons

165
Q

Glial cell function (3)

A

(1) structure, (2) protection, and (3) metabolic role (transport materials), (4) maintenance (destroy dead neurons), (5) active communicators

166
Q

assumptions made for membrane potentials (2)

A

(1) relative (comparing inside to outside) and (2) the outside of the membrane is always considered equal to zero

167
Q

passive processes (3)

A

(1) diffusion, (2) electrostatic charge, (3) differential permeability

168
Q

nongated ion channels are always ___ but are specialized so that only ____ ions are permitted to pass through

A

open; certain

169
Q

if Na+ wants to diffuse into the cell, why is it at higher concentrations outside the cell?

A

active transport via ion pumps

170
Q

sodium-potassium pumps

A

transport three Na+ ions out of the cell for every two K+ ions they move in; more positive outside the cell

171
Q

threshold

A

-55mV

172
Q

what happens when the potential is reduced beyond the threshold?

A

voltage-gated ion channels open allowing the free flow of ions across the membrane; Na+ rush into cell; triggers K+ to leave cell; Na+ closes, K+ stays open for a bit longer

173
Q

rising phase of an action potential

A

Na+ channels open (enters cell), causes depolarization which triggers K+ channels to open (leave cell)

174
Q

where is the action potential generated

A

adjacent to the axon hillock

175
Q

how do action potentials move down the neuron

A

Na+ that enter travel sideways along the insider surface; depolarizing the next section of axon

176
Q

how does an action potential travel down myelinated neurons?

A

passively under section of myelin sheath and then retriggered by opening of Na+ channels at each node of ranvier

177
Q

what is meant by saying action potentials are non-decremental?

A

they reach the axon terminal with the same strength as which they were initiated near the axon hillock

178
Q

do action potentials move faster or slower along myelinated neurons?

A

much faster (salatory conduction)

179
Q

salatory conduction

A

action potentials jumping from node to node along an axon

180
Q

action potential speed

A

120 m/sec (431 km/hr)

181
Q

all-or-none law

A

APs are always the same. As long as a stimulus is strong enough to depolarize a cell to its threshold, it will occur; increased the magnitude of depolarizing beyond the threshold does not change the size of the AP.

182
Q

how are stimulus strengths conveyed?

A

RATE LAW; rate at which action potentials are generated

183
Q

graded (postsynaptic) potentials

A

depolarization in the cell body and dendrites

184
Q

intensity of GPs are proportional to the ____ of the disturbance

A

magnitude

185
Q

the intensity of GPs ____ as the distance from the site of stimulation lengthens

A

decreases

186
Q

EPSP

A

stimulation of dendrites or the cell body results in the opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels; Na+ will rush into the cell and depolarize it; enough EPSPs will cause depolarization past the threshold and an AP

187
Q

IPSP

A

opening of voltage gated K+ channels; K+ will leave the cell causing hyperpolarization; making it harder for an AP to occur

can also be Cl- channels allowing, so they will enter (again hyperpolarizing the cell)

188
Q

major types of integration (2)

A

(1) temporal summation and (2) spatial summation

189
Q

temporal summation

A

when a neuron experiences several GP/PSPs closely in time

190
Q

spatial summation

A

when two or more GP/PSPs occur in close proximity on a neuron

191
Q

synapse

A

terminal buttons of one cell intertwine with structures of another cell

192
Q

how are NTs released?

A

AP causes opening of Ca2+ voltage-gated channels, influx of Ca2+, triggers fusion of synaptic vesicles with membrane and subsequent exocytosis of NTs

193
Q

neuromodulator

A

chemical that is synthesized and released by neurons and that modulates the effects of NT; short- or long-term effects

194
Q

differences between neuromodulators and NTs

A

NMs are released in greater amount and travel further distances

195
Q

how can a single NT produce a variety of results?

A

receptor subtypes

196
Q

ionotropic receptors

A

binding sites directly connected to a gated ion channel; rapid action; brief affect

197
Q

metabotropic receptors

A

indirect activation; cascade of events; slower and longer lasting; intracellular portion of protein is linked to G protein; subunit breaks away and activates nearby ion channel to stimulate an EPSP or IPSP; or synthesis of a second messenger

198
Q

second messenger example

A

cAMP or cGMP; often interacts with gated ion channels from inside the cell (longer lasting effects compared to ionotropic receptors)

199
Q

how can second messengers cause permanent effects?

A

activation of kinase proteins that are more persistent and remain active for longer than 2nd messengers; these can then influence transcription factors and gene expression

200
Q

heteroreceptors

A

receptors on the presynaptic cell that respond to chemicals from the postsynaptic cell

201
Q

autoreceptors

A

receptors on the presynaptic cell that respond to NTs from their own cell

202
Q

retrograde signaling

A

transmission of chemical info from a post to presynaptic cell; mechanism by which the postsynaptic neuron can modulate its level of stim

203
Q

ways postsynaptic cells modulate stim via retrograde signaling (2)

A

(1) depolarization-induced suppression of excitation (DSE) or (2) depolarization-induced suppression of inhibition (DS1)

204
Q

terminating synaptic action (2)

A

(1) reuptake (most common) or (2) enzymatic degradation or deactivation

205
Q

in the PNS, groups of cell bodies are called ___

A

ganglia

206
Q

in the PNS, bundles of axons are called _____

A

nerves

207
Q

in the CNS, cell body groups are called ___

A

nuclei/ centers

208
Q

in the CNS, bundles of axons are called ___

A

tracts

209
Q

nerves and tracts are ___ matter

A

white

210
Q

unmyelinated cell bodies are called ___ matter

A

gray

211
Q

primary NT of the sympathetic NS

A

epinephrine

212
Q

primary NT of the parasympathetic NS

A

Acetylcholine

213
Q

location of neurogenesis in adult humans (2)

A

(1) a region of the HC involved in the formation of new memories, (2) subventricular zone (lines brain’s lateral ventricles)

214
Q

number of neurons in the human brain

A

100 billion (10^11)

215
Q

on average, each neuron has synapses on ____ other neurons and receives an average of ____

A

10; 10 000

216
Q

the spinal cord arises from the _______

A

medulla oblongata

217
Q

vomiting center

A

area postrema

218
Q

locus coeruleus

A

group of cell bodies in the pons; uses NE as a NT; depression is associated with it (arousal, fear, panic, and anger); inhibition causes anxiety relief and excitatory action causes anxiety

219
Q

RAS function

A

maintain levels of activation in the cortex (arousal, selective attention, wakefulness)

220
Q

example of how barbiturates work

A

enhance GABA which inhibits nueron activity in the RAS; decreases arousal

221
Q

NT of raphe nuclei

A

serotonin

222
Q

PAG functions (2)

A

(1) pain sensation and (2) defensive behaviour

223
Q

stimulation of the PAG causes an immediate ___ of pain sensation

A

loss

224
Q

cell bodies in the substania nigra produce which NT

A

DA

225
Q

degeneration of DA cells is associated with which disease

A

Parkinson’s disease

226
Q

VTA contains neurons that produce ____, _____, and ______

A

dopamine; GABA; glutamate

227
Q

largest component of the basal ganglia is the ____

A

striatum

228
Q

projections from the striatum are sent to the ____

A

globus pallidus

229
Q

components of the motor loop

A

basal ganglia, thalamus and cortex

230
Q

malfunction of the basal ganglia is associated with what disease?

A

Parkinson’s

231
Q

pyramidal motor system

A

connects the motor cortex tot he muscles

232
Q

extrapyramidal motor system

A

the basal ganglia and substania nigra

233
Q

hippocampus function

A

learning and memory

234
Q

ways hypothalamus restores balance (2)

A

(1) sending info to medulla and (2) regulating pituitary gland (tuberoinfundibular)

235
Q

functional teratology

A

low levels of behaviourally active drugs during certain stages of fetal development can cause alterations in the functioning of the nervous system

236
Q

criteria to be a NT (4)

A

(1) synthesized within the neuron by coexisting enzymes, (2) released in response to cell depolarization, (3) binds to receptors to alter the postsynaptic cell, (4) removed or deactivated by some mechanism within the synaptic cleft

237
Q

many large molecule NTs are also ____

A

hormones

238
Q

Whereas ____ carry messages over very short distances, a ____ circulates throughout the body and has an effect on some biological process distant from the place where it is released.

A

NTs; hormone

239
Q

acetylcholine (ACh) is a __ molecule neurotransmitter

A

small

240
Q

monoamines - catecholamines (small molecule)

A

DA, NE, E

241
Q

monoamines - indoleamines (small molecule)

A

serotonin (5-HT) and histamine

242
Q

excitatory amino acid

A

glutamate (and aspartate)

243
Q

inhibitory amino acid

A

GABA (and glycine)

244
Q

large molecule neuropeptides

A

opioid peptides (morphine-like molecules)

245
Q

Dale’s law

A

a neuron always produces the same NT at every one of its synapses (now we know it’s true most of the time but not always)

246
Q

neurons that release ACh are called ____

A

cholinergic

247
Q

synapses that use epinephrine and norepinephrine are called _____ and ______

A

adrenergic; noradrenergic

248
Q

synapses that use dopamine are called ____ and those that use serotonin are ____

A

dopaminergic; serotonergic

249
Q

Even though each neuron almost always releases the same transmitter(s), its ____ on various cells can be quite different.

A

effect (based on receptor site to which it binds)

250
Q

direct agonist

A

drug binds to and activates a receptor, mimicking the effects of a neurotransmitter

251
Q

partial agonist

A

hat has a high binding affinity (attraction) for a particular receptor but that activates that receptor only weakly, to a lesser degree than would its natural ligand (neurotransmitter), is referred to as a partial agonist.

252
Q

mixed agonist - antagonist

A

rug that acts as an agonist at one receptor subtype while also acting as an antagonist at another receptor subtype

253
Q

receptor blockers or direct antagonists

A

Drugs that bind to receptor sites but do not activate them at all, instead preventing the neurotransmitter from binding and exerting its effect

Drugs and Behaviour (3 decks)

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