FUNDA Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The mid-deltoid injection site is seldom used for I.M. injections because it:

A. Can accommodate only 1 ml or less of medication
B. Bruises too easily
C. Can be used only when the patient is lying down
D. Does not readily parenteral medication

A

A. Can accommodate only 1 ml or less of medication

ANSWER (A). The mid-deltoid injection site can accommodate only 1 ml or less of medication because of its size and location (on the deltoid muscle of the arm, close to the brachial artery and radial nerve

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2
Q
  1. The appropriate needle size for insulin injection is:

A. 18G, 1 ½” long
B. 22G, 1” long
C. 22G, 1 ½/” long
D. D25G, 5/8” long

A

D. D25G, 5/8” long

ANSWER (D). A 25G, 5/8” needle is the recommended size for insulin injection because insulin is administered by the subcutaneous route. An 18G, 1 ½” needle is usually used for I.M. injections in children, typically in the vastus lateralis. A 22G, 1 ½” needle is usually used for adult I.M. injections, which are typically administered in the vastus lateralis or ventrogluteal site.

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3
Q
  1. Effective skin disinfection before a surgical procedure includes which of the following methods?

A. Shaving the site on the day before surgery
B. Applying a topical antiseptic to the skin on the evening before surgery
C. Having the patient take a tub bath on the morning of surgery
D. Having the patient shower with an antiseptic soap on the evening before and the morning of surgery

A

D. Having the patient shower with an antiseptic soap on the evening before and the morning of surgery

ANSWER (D). Studies have shown that showering with an antiseptic soap before surgery is the most effective method of removing microorganisms from the skin. Shaving the site of the intended surgery might cause breaks in the skin, thereby increasing the risk of infection; however, if indicated, shaving, should be done immediately before surgery, not the day before.,^

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4
Q
  1. The correct method for determining the vastus lateralis site fo I.M. injection is to:

A. Locate the upper aspect of the upper outer quadrant of the buttock about 5 to 8 cm below the iliac crest
B. Palpate the lower edge of the acromion process and the midpoint lateral aspect of the arm
C. Palpate a 1” circular area anterior to the umbilicus
D. Divide the area between the greater femoral trochanter and the lateral femoral condyle into thirds, and select the middle third on the anterior of the thigh

A

D. Divide the area between the greater femoral trochanter and the lateral femoral condyle into thirds, and select the middle third on the anterior of the thigh

ANSWER (D). The vastus lateralis, a long, thick muscle that extends the full length of the thigh, is viewed by many clinicians as the site of choice for I.M. injections because it has relatively few major nerves and blood vessels. The middle third of the muscle is recommended as the injection site. The patient can be in a supine or sitting position for an injection into this site.

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5
Q
  1. All of the following nursing interventions are correct when using the track method of drug inejction except:

A. Prepare the injection site with alcohol
B. Use a needle that’s a least 1” long
C. Aspirate for blood before injection
D. Rub the site vigorously after the injection to promote absorption

A

D. Rub the site vigorously after the injection to promote absorption

ANSWER (D). The Z-track method is an I.M. injection technique in which the patient’s skin is pulled in such a way that the needle track is sealed off after the injection. This procedure seals medication deep into the muscle, thereby minimizing skin staining and irritation. Rubbing the injection site is contraindicated because it may cause the medication to extravasate into the skin.

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6
Q
  1. Jason, 3 years old, vomited. His mom stated, “He vomited 6 ounces of his formula this morning.” This statement is an example of:

A. objective data from a secondary source
B. objective data from a primary source
C. subjective data from a primary source
D. subjective data from a secondary source

A

A. objective data from a secondary source

ANSWER (A) objective data from a secondary source. Jason is the primary source; his mother is a secondary source. The data is objective because it can be perceived by the senses, verified by another person observing the same patient, and tested against accepted standards or norms.

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following is a primary nursing intervention necessary for all patients with a Foley Catheter in place?

A. Maintain the drainage tubing and collection bag level with the patient’s bladder
B. Irrigate the patient with 1% Neosporin solution three times a daily
C. Clamp the catheter for 1 hour every 4 hours to maintain the bladder’s elasticity
D. Maintain the drainage tubing and collection bag below bladder level to facilitate drainage by gravity

A

D. Maintain the drainage tubing and collection bag below bladder level to facilitate drainage by gravity

ANSWER (D). Maintain the drainage tubing and collection bag level with the patient’s bladder could result in reflux of urine into the kidney. Irrigating the bladder with Neosporin and clamping the catheter for 1 hour every 4 hours must be prescribed by a physician.

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8
Q
  1. When assessing a patient’s level of consciousness, which type of nursing intervention is the nurse performing?

A. Independent
B. Dependent
C. Collaborative
D. Professional

A

A. Independent

ANSWER (A) Independent. Independent nursing interventions involve actions that nurses initiate based on their own knowledge and skills without the direction or supervision of another member of the health care team.

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9
Q
  1. Nurse Cherry is teaching a 72 year old patient about a newly prescribed medication. What could cause a geriatric patient to have difficulty retaining knowledge about the newly prescribed medication?

A. Absence of family support
B. Decreased sensory functions
C. Patient has no interest on learning
D. Decreased plasma drug levels

A

B. Decreased sensory functions

ANSWER (B) Decreased sensory functions. Decreased in sensory functions could cause a geriatric patient to have difficulty retaining knowledge about the newly prescribed medications. Absence of family support and no interest on learning may affect compliance, not knowledge retention. Decreased plasma levels do not alter patient’s knowledge about the drug.

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10
Q
  1. It is the gradual decrease of the body’s temperature after death.

A. livor mortis
B. rigor mortis
C. algor mortis
D. Bubot Mortis

A

C. algor mortis

ANSWER (C) algor mortis. Algor mortis is the decrease of the body’s temperature after death. Livor mortis is the discoloration of the skin after death. Rigor mortis is the stiffening of the body that occurs about 2-4 hours after death.

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11
Q
  1. When performing an admission assessment on a newly admitted patient, the nurse percusses resonance. The nurse knows that resonance heard on percussion is most commonly heard over which organ?

A. thigh
B. liver
C. intestine
D. lung

A

D. lung

ANSWER (D) lung. Resonance is loud, low-pitched and long duration that’s heard most commonly over an air-filled tissue such as a normal lung.

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following is appropriate nursing intervention for a client who is grieving over the death of her child?

A. Tell her not to cry and it will be better.
B. Provide opportunities to the client to tell their story.
C. Encourage her to accept or to replace the lost person.
D. Discourage the client in expressing her emotions.

A

B. Provide opportunities to the client to tell their story.

ANSWER (B) Provide opportunities to the client to tell their story. Providing a grieving person an opportunity to tell their story allows the person to express feelings. This is therapeutic in assisting the client resolve grief.

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13
Q
  1. . A female patient who speaks a little English has emergency gallbladder surgery, during discharge preparation, which nursing action would best help this patient understand wound care instruction?

A. Asking frequently if the patient understands the instruction
B. Asking an interpreter to replay the instructions to the patient.
C. Writing out the instructions and having a family member read them to the patient
D. Demonstrating the procedure and having the patient return the demonstration

A

D. Demonstrating the procedure and having the patient return the demonstration

ANSWER (D) Demonstrating the procedure and having the patient return the demonstration. Demonstrating by the nurse with a return demonstration by the patient ensures that the patient can perform wound care correctly. Patients may claim to understand discharge instruction when they do not. An interpreter of a family member may communicate verbal or written instructions inaccurately.

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14
Q
  1. . During application of medication into the ear, which of the following is inappropriate nursing action?

A. In an adult, pull the pinna upward.
B. Instill the medication directly into the tympanic membrane.
C. Warm the medication at room or body temperature.
D. Press the tragus of the ear a few times to assist flow of medication into the ear canal.

A

B. Instill the medication directly into the tympanic membrane.

ANSWER (B) Instill the medication directly into the tympanic membrane. During the application of medication, it is inappropriate to instill the medication directly into the tympanic membrane. The right thing to do is instill the medication along the lateral wall of the auditory canal.

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15
Q
  1. A skin lesion which is fluid-filled, less than 1 cm in size is called:

A. papule
B. Vesicle
C. bulla
D. macule

A

B. Vesicle

ANSWER (B) vesicle. Vesicle is a circumscribed circulation containing serous fluid or blood and less than 1 cm (ex. Blister, chicken pox).

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16
Q
  1. What is the characteristic of the nursing process?

A. stagnant
B. inflexible
C. asystematic
D. goal-oriented

A

D. goal-oriented

ANSWER (D) goal-oriented. The nursing process is goal-oriented. It is also systematic, patient-centered, and dynamic

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following is a nursing diagnosis?

A. Hypothermia
B. Diabetes Mellitus
C. Angina
D. Chronic Renal Failure

A

A. Hypothermia

ANSWER (A) Hypothermia. Hyperthermia is a NANDA-approved nursing diagnosis. Diabetes Mellitus, Angina and Chronic Renal Failure are medical diagnoses.

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18
Q
  1. .A patient with no known allergies is to receive penicillin every 6 hours. When administering the medication, the nurse observes a fine rash on the patient’s skin. The most appropriate nursing action would be to:

A. Withhold the moderation and notify the physician
B. Administer the medication and notify the physician
C. Administer the medication with an antihistamine
D. Apply corn starch soaks to the rash

A

A. Withhold the moderation and notify the physician

ANSWER (A). Initial sensitivity to penicillin is commonly manifested by a skin rash, even in individuals who have not been allergic to it previously,

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19
Q
  1. The most appropriate time for the nurse to obtain a sputum specimen for culture is:

A. Early in the morning
B. After the patient eats a light breakfast
C. After aerosol therapy
D. After chest physiotherapy

A

A. Early in the morning

ANSWER (A). Obtaining a sputum specimen early in this morning ensures an adequate supply of bacteria for culturing and decreases the risk of contamination from food or medication.

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about chest X-ray is false?

A. No contraindications exist for this test
B. Before the procedure, the patient should remove all jewelry, metallic objects, and buttons above the waist
C. A signed consent is not required
D. Eating, drinking, and medications are allowed before this test

A

A. No contraindications exist for this test

ANSWER (A). Pregnancy or suspected pregnancy is the only contraindication for a chest X-ray. However, if a chest X-ray is necessary, the patient can wear a lead apron to protect the pelvic region from radiation. Jewelry, metallic objects, and buttons would interfere with the X-ray and thus should not be worn above the waist. A signed consent is not required because a chest X-ray is not an invasive examination. Eating, drinking and medications are allowed because the X-ray is of the chest, not the abdominal region.

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21
Q
  1. After 5 days of diuretic therapy with 20mg of furosemide (Lasix) daily, a patient begins to exhibit fatigue, muscle cramping and muscle weakness. These symptoms probably indicate that the patient is experiencing:

A. Hypokalemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Anorexia
D. Dysphagia

A

A. Hypokalemia

ANSWER (A). Fatigue, muscle cramping, and muscle weaknesses are symptoms of hypokalemia (an inadequate potassium level), which is a potential side effect of diuretic therapy. The physician usually orders supplemental potassium to prevent hypokalemia in patients receiving diuretics. Anorexia is another symptom of hypokalemia. Dysphagia means difficulty swallowing.

22
Q
  1. The primary purpose of a platelet count is to evaluate the:

A. Potential for clot formation
B. Potential for bleeding
C. Presence of an antigen-antibody response
D. Presence of cardiac enzymes

A

A. Potential for clot formation

Answer: (A) platelet are disk shaped blood available for promoting hemostasis and assisting with blood coagulation after injury. It also is used to evaluate the patient’s potential for bleeding; however, this is not its primary purpose. The normal count ranges from 150,000 to 350,000/mm3. A count of 100,000/mm3 or less indicates a potential for bleeding; count of less than 20,000/mm3 is associated with spontaneous bleeding

23
Q
  1. Before administering the evening dose of a prescribed medication, the nurse on the evening shift finds an unlabeled, filled syringe in the patient’s medication drawer. What should the nurse in charge do?

A. Discard the syringe to avoid a medication error
B. Obtain a label for the syringe from the pharmacy
C. Use the syringe because it looks like it contains the same medication the nurse was prepared to give
D. Call the day nurse to verify the contents of the syringe

A

A. Discard the syringe to avoid a medication error

ANSWER (A) Discard the syringe to avoid a medication error. As a safety precaution, the nurse should discard an unlabeled syringe that contains medication. The other options are considered unsafe because they promote error.

24
Q
  1. Which of the following constitutes a break in sterile technique while preparing a sterile field for a dressing change?

A. Using sterile forceps, rather than sterile gloves, to handle a sterile item
B. Touching the outside wrapper of sterilized material without sterile gloves
C. Placing a sterile object on the edge of the sterile field
D. Pouring out a small amount of solution (15 to 30 ml) before pouring the solution into a sterile container

A

C. Placing a sterile object on the edge of the sterile field

ANSWER (C). The edges of a sterile field are considered contaminated. When sterile items are allowed to come in contact with the edges of the field, the sterile items also become contaminated.

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25. A natural body defense that plays an active role in preventing infection is: A. Yawning B. Body hair C. Hiccupping D. Rapid eye movements
B. Body hair ANSWER (B). Hair on or within body areas, such as the nose, traps and holds particles that contain microorganisms. Yawning and hiccupping do not prevent microorganisms from entering or leaving the body. Rapid eye movement marks the stage of sleep during which dreaming occurs.
26
26. All of the following statement are true about donning sterile gloves except: A. The first glove should be picked up by grasping the inside of the cuff. B. The second glove should be picked up by inserting the gloved fingers under the cuff outside the glove. C. The gloves should be adjusted by sliding the gloved fingers under the sterile cuff and pulling the glove over the wrist D. The inside of the glove is considered sterile
D. The inside of the glove is considered sterile ANSWER D). The inside of the glove is always considered to be clean, but not sterile.
27
27. Which of the following nursing interventions is considered the most effective form or universal precautions? A. Cap all used needles before removing them from their syringes B. Discard all used uncapped needles and syringes in an impenetrable protective container C. Wear gloves when administering IM injections D. Follow enteric precautions
B. Discard all used uncapped needles and syringes in an impenetrable protective container ANSWER (B). According to the Centers for Disease Control (CDC), blood-to-blood contact occurs most commonly when a health care worker attempts to cap a used needle. Therefore, used needles should never be recapped; instead they should be inserted in a specially designed puncture resistant, labeled container. Wearing gloves is not always necessary when administering an I.M. injection. Enteric precautions prevent the transfer of pathogens via feces.
28
28.All of the following measures are recommended to prevent pressure ulcers except: A. Massaging the reddened area with lotion B. Using a water or air mattress C. Adhering to a schedule for positioning and turning D. Providing meticulous skin care
A. Massaging the reddened area with lotion ANSWER (A). Nurses and other health care professionals previously believed that massaging a reddened area with lotion would promote venous return and reduce edema to the area. However, research has shown that massage only increases the likelihood of cellular ischemia and necrosis to the area.
29
29. Which of the following blood tests should be performed before a blood transfusion? A. Prothrombin and coagulation time B. Blood typing and cross-matching C. Bleeding and clotting time D. Complete blood count (CBC) and electrolyte levels.
B. Blood typing and cross-matching ANSWER (B). Before a blood transfusion is performed, the blood of the donor and recipient must be checked for compatibility. This is done by blood typing (a test that determines a person's blood type) and cross-matching (a procedure that determines the compatibility of the donor's and recipient's blood after the blood types has been matched). If the blood specimens are incompatible, hemolysis and antigen-antibody reactions will occur.
30
30. The best way of determining whether a patient has learned to instill ear medication properly is for the nurse to: A. Ask the patient if he/she has used ear drops before B. Have the patient repeat the nurse's instructions using her own words C. Demonstrate the procedure to the patient and encourage to ask questions D. Ask the patient to demonstrate the procedure.
D. Ask the patient to demonstrate the procedure. ANSWER (D). Return demonstration provides the most certain evidence for evaluating the effectiveness of patient teaching.
31
31. Which of the following types of medications can be administered via gastrostomy tube? A. Any oral medications B. Capsules whole contents are dissolve in water C. Enteric-coated tablets that are thoroughly dissolved in water D. Most tablets designed for oral use, except for extended duration compounds.
D. Most tablets designed for oral use, except for extended duration compounds. ANSWER (D). Capsules, enteric-coated tablets, and most extended duration or sustained release products should not be dissolved for use in a gastrostomy tube. They are pharmaceutically manufactured in these forms for valid reasons, and altering them destroys their purpose. The nurse should seek an alternate physician's order when an ordered medication is inappropriate for delivery by tube.
32
32. .A patient who develops hives after receiving an antibiotic is exhibiting drug: A. Tolerance B. Idiosyncrasy C. Synergism D. Allergy
D. Allergy ANSWER (D). A drug-allergy is an adverse reaction resulting from an immunologic response following a previous sensitizing exposure to the drug. The reaction can range from a rash or hives to anaphylactic shock. Tolerance to a drug means that the patient experiences a decreasing physiologic response to repeated administration of the drug in the same dosage. Idiosyncrasy is an individual's unique hypersensitivity to a drug, food, or other substance; it appears to be genetically determined. Synergism, is a drug interaction in which the sum of the drug's combined effects is greater than that of their separate effects.
33
33. In which step of the nursing process would the nurse ask a patient if the medication she administered relieved his pain? A. Assessment B. Analysis C. Planning D. Evaluation
D. Evaluation ANSWER (D). In the evaluation step of the nursing process, the nurse must decide whether the patient has achieved the expected outcome that was identified in the planning phase
34
34. All of the following are good sources of vitamin A except: A. White potatoes B. Carrots C. Apricots D. Egg yolks
A. White potatoes ANSWER (A). The main sources of vitamin A are yellow and green vegetables (such as carrots, sweet potatoes, squash, spinach, collard greens, broccoli, and cabbage) and yellow fruits (such as apricots, and cantaloupe). Animal sources include liver, kidneys, cream, butter, and egg yolks.
35
35. When transferring a patient from a bed to a chair, the nurse should use which muscles to avoid back injury? A. Abdominal muscles B. Back muscles C. Leg muscles D. Upper arm muscles
C. Leg muscles ANSWER (C). The leg muscles are the strongest muscles in the body and should bear the greatest stress when lifting. Muscles of the abdomen, back, and upper arms may be easily injured.
36
36. Thrombophlebitis typically develops in patients with which of the following conditions? A. Increases partial thromboplastin time B. Acute pulsus paradoxus C. An impaired or traumatized blood vessel wall D. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
C. An impaired or traumatized blood vessel wall ANSWER (C). The factors, known as Virchow's triad, collectively predispose a patient to thromboplebitis; impaired venous return to the heart, blood hypercoagulability, and injury to a blood vessel wall. Increased partial thromboplastin time indicates a prolonged bleeding time during fibrin clot formation, commonly the result of anticoagulant (heparin) therapy. Arterial blood disorders (such as pulsus paradoxus) and lung diseases (such as COPD) do not necessarily impede venous return of injure vessel walls.
37
37. . In a recumbent, immobilized patient, lung ventilation can become altered, leading to such respiratory complications as: A. Respiratory acidosis, atelectasis, and hypostatic pneumonia B. Appneustic breathing, atypical pneumonia and respiratory alkalosis C. Cheyne-Strokes respirations and spontaneous pneumothorax D. Kussmail's respirations and hypoventilation
A. Respiratory acidosis, atelectasis, and hypostatic pneumonia ANSWER (A). Because of restricted respiratory movement, a recumbent, immobilize patient is at particular risk for respiratory acidosis from poor gas exchange; atelectasis from reduced surfactant and accumulated mucus in the bronchioles, and hypostatic pneumonia from bacterial growth caused by stasis of mucus secretions,
38
38. .Immobility impairs bladder elimination, resulting in such disorders as A. Increased urine acidity and relaxation of the perineal muscles, causing incontinence B. Urine retention, bladder distention, and infection C. Diuresis, natriuresis, and decreased urine specific gravity D. Decreased calcium and phosphate levels in the urine
B. Urine retention, bladder distention, and infection ANSWER (B). The immobilized patient commonly suffers from urine retention caused by decreased muscle tone in the perineum. This leads to bladder distention and urine stagnation, which provide an excellent medium for bacterial growth leading to infection. Immobility also results in more alkaline urine with excessive amounts of calcium, sodium and phosphate, a gradual decrease in urine production, and an increased specific gravity.
39
39. Nurse Betty is assigned to the following clients. The client that the nurse would see first after endorsement? A. A 34 year-old post operative appendectomy client of five hours who is complaining of pain. B. A 44 year-old myocardial infarction (Ne) client who is complaining of nausea. C. A 26 year-old client admitted for dehydration whose intravenous (IV) has infiltrated. D. A 63 year-old post operative's abdominal hysterectomy client of three days whose incisional dressing is saturated with serosanguinous fluid
B. A 44 year-old myocardial infarction (Ne) client who is complaining of nausea. Answer: (B) A 44 year-old myocardial infarction (MI) client who is complaining of nausea. Nausea is a symptom of impending myocardial infarction (MI) and should be assessed immediately so that treatment can be instituted and further damage to the heart is avoided
40
40. When providing a continuous enteral feeding, which of the following actions is essential for the nurse to do? A. Place the client on the left side of the bed. B. Attach the feeding bag to the current tubing. C. Elevate the head of the bed. D. Cold the formula before administering it.
C. Elevate the head of the bed. ANSWER (C) Elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed during an enteral feeding prevents aspiration. The patient may be placed on the right side to prevent aspiration. Enteral feedings are given at room temperature to lessen Gl distress. The enteral tubing should be changed every 24 hours to limit microbial growth.
41
41. Kussmaul's breathing is; A. Shallow breaths interrupted by apnea. B. Prolonged gasping inspiration followed by a very short, usually inefficient expiration. C. Marked rhythmic waxing and waning of respirations from very deep to very shallow breathing and temporary apnea. D. Increased rate and depth of respiration.
D. Increased rate and depth of respiration. ANSWER (D) Increased rate and depth of respiration. Kussmaul breathing is also called as hyperventilation. Seen in metabolic acidosis and renal failure. Option A refers to Biot's breathing. Option B is apneustic breathing and option C is the Cheyne-stokes breathing.
42
42. Which is an example of a subjective data? A. Temperature of 38 0C B. Vomiting for 3 days C. Productive cough D. Patient stated, "My arms still hurt."
D. Patient stated, "My arms still hurt." ANSWER (D) Patient stated, "My arms still hurt.". Subjective data are apparent only to the person affected and can or verified only by that person.
43
44.A female patient who speaks a little English has emergency gallbladder surgery, during discharge preparation, which nursing action would best help this patient understand wound care instruction? A. Asking frequently if the patient understands the instruction B. Asking an interpreter to replay the instructions to the C. Writing out the instructions and having a family member read them to the patient D. Demonstrating the procedure and having the patient return the demonstration
D. Demonstrating the procedure and having the patient return the demonstration ANSWER (D) Demonstrating the procedure and having the patient return the demonstration.
44
45. Before administering the evening dose of a prescribed medication, the nurse on the evening shift finds an unlabeled, filled syringe in the patient's medication drawer. What should the nurse in charge do? A. Discard the syringe to avoid a medication error B. Obtain a label for the syringe from the pharmacy C. Use the syringe because it looks like it contains the same medication the nurse was prepared to give D. Call the day nurse to verify the contents of the syringe
A. Discard the syringe to avoid a medication error ANSWER(A) Discard the syringe to avoid a medication error. As a safety precaution, the nurse should discard an unlabeled syringe that contains medication. The other options are considered unsafe because they promote error
45
46. A patient is in the bathroom when the nurse enters to give a prescribed medication. What should the nurse in charge do? A. Leave the medication at the patient's bedside B. Tell the patient to be sure to take the medication. And then leave it at the bedside C. Return shortly to the patient's room and remain there until the patient takes the medication D. Wait for the patient to return to bed, and then leave the medication at the bedside
C. Return shortly to the patient's room and remain there until the patient takes the medication ANSWER (C) Return shortly to the patient's room and remain there until the patient takes the medication. The nurse should return shortly to the patient's room and remain there until the patient takes the medication to verify that it was taken as directed. The nurse should never leave medication at the patient's bedside unless specifically requested to do so
46
47. The physician orders an IV solution of dextrose 5% in water at 100ml/hour. What would the flow rate be if the drop factor is 15 gtt =1 ml? A. 5 gtt/minute B. 13 gtt/minute C. 25 gtt/minute D. 50 gtt/minute
C. 25 gtt/minute ANSWER (C). 100ml/60 min X 15 gtt/1ml- 25 gtt/minute
47
48. The nurse in charge is transferring a patient from the bed to a chair. Which action does the nurse take during this patient transfer? A. Position the head of the bed flat B. Helps the patient dangle the legs C. Stands behind the patient D. Places the chair facing away from the bed
B. Helps the patient dangle the legs ANSWER (B) Helps the patient dangle the legs. After placing the patient in high Fowler's position and moving the patient to the side of the bed, the nurse helps the patient sit on the edge of the bed and dangle the legs; the nurse then faces the patient and places the chair next to and facing the head of the bed.
48
49. Which of the following is a sign or symptom of a hemolytic reaction to blood transfusion? A. Hemoglobinuria B. Chest pain C. Urticaria D. Distended neck veins
A. Hemoglobinuria ANSWER (A). Hemoglobinuria, the abnormal presence of hemoglobin in the urine, indicates a hemolytic reaction (incompatibility of the donor's and recipient's blood). In this reaction, antibodies in the recipient's plasma combine rapidly with donor RBC's; the cells are hemolyzed in either circulatory or reticuloendothelial system. Hemolysis occurs more rapidly in ABO incompatibilities than in Rh incompatibilities. Chest pain and urticaria may be symptoms of impending anaphylaxis. Distended neck veins are an indication of hypervolemia.
49
50. Which of the following conditions may require fluid restriction? A. Fever B. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease C. Renal Failure D. Dehydration
C. Renal Failure ANSWER (C) In real failure, the kidney loses their ability to effectively eliminate wastes and fluids. Because of this, limiting the patient's intake of oral and I.V. fluids may be necessary, Fever, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and dehydration are conditions for which fluids should be encouraged.
50
51. All of the following are common signs and symptoms of phlebitis except: A. Pain or discomfort at the IV insertion site B. Edema and warmth at the IV insertion site C. A red streak exiting the IV insertion site. D. Frank bleeding at the insertion site
D. Frank bleeding at the insertion site ANSWER (D). Phlebitis, the inflammation of a vein, can be caused by chemical irritants (I.V. solutions or medications), mechanical irritants (the needle or catheter used during venipuncture or cannulation), or a localized allergic reaction to the needle or catheter. Signs and symptoms of phlebitis include pain or discomfort, edema and heat at the I.V. insertion site, and a red streak going up the arm or leg from the I.V. insertion site