CHN Flashcards
- For prevention of hepatitis A, you decided to conduct health education activities. Which of the following is IRRELEVANT?
A. USE OF STERILE SYRINGE AND NEEDLES
B. safe food preparation and food handling by vendors
C. Proper disposal of human excreta and personal hygiene
D. Immediate reporting of water pipe leaks and illegal water connections.
A. USE OF STERILE SYRINGE AND NEEDLES
ANSWER (A): HEPATITIS A IS TRANSMITTED THROUGH THE FECAL ORAL ROUTE. HEPA B IS TRANSMITTED THROUGH INFECTED BODY SECRETIONS LIKE BLOOD AND SEMEN.
- Which biological used in Expanded Program on Immunization (EPI) should NOT be stored in the freezer?
A. DPT
B. Oral polio vaccine
C. Measles vaccine
D. MMR
A. DPT
Answer: (A) DPT. DPT is sensitive to freezing. The appropriate storage temperature of DPT is 2 to 8° C only. OPV and measles vaccine are highly sensitive to heat and require freezing. MMR is not an immunization in the Expanded Program on Immunization.
- A 3-year old child was brought by his mother to the health center because of fever of 4-day duration. The child had a positive tourniquet test result. In the absence of other signs, which is the most appropriate measure that the PHN may carry out to prevent Dengue shock syndrome?
A. Insert an NGT and give fluids per NGT.
B. Instruct the mother to give the child Oresol.
C. Start the patient on intravenous fluids STAT.
D. Refer the client to the physician for appropriate management.
B. Instruct the mother to give the child Oresol.
Answer: (B) Instruct the mother to give the child Oresol. Since the child does not manifest any other danger sign, maintenance of fluid balance and replacement of fluid loss may be done by giving the client Oresol.
- The pathognomonic sign of measles is Koplik’s spot. You may see Koplik’s spot by inspecting the?
A. Nasal mucosa
B. Buccal Mucosa
C. Skin of the abdomen
D. Skin on the antecubital surface
B. Buccal Mucosa
- Among the following diseases which is airborne
A. Viral conjunctivitis
B. Acute poliomyelitis
C. Diphtheria
D. Measles
D. Measles
- Which is the BEST control measure for AIDS?
A. Being faithful to a single sexual partner
B. Using condom during each sexual contact
C. Avoiding sexual contact with commercial sex workers
D. Making sure that one’s sexual partner does not have signs of AIDS
A. Being faithful to a single sexual partner
- The most frequent causes of death among clients with AIDS are opportunistic diseases. Which of the following opportunistic infections is characterized by tonsillopharyngitis?
A. Respiratory candidiasis
B. Infectious mononucleosis
C. Cytomegalovirus disease
D. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
B. Infectious mononucleosis
- A barangay PINOY had an outbreak of German measles. To prevent congenital rubella, what is the BEST advice that you can give to woman in the first trimester of pregnancy in the barangay Pinoy?
A. Advice them on the signs of German measles
B. Avoid crowded places, such as market and movie houses.
C. Consult at the health center where rubella vaccine may given.
D. CONSULT A PHYSICIAN WHO MAY GIVE THEM RUBELLA IMMUNOGLOBULIN.
D. CONSULT A PHYSICIAN WHO MAY GIVE THEM RUBELLA IMMUNOGLOBULIN.
- You were invited to be the resource person in a training class for food handlers. Which of the following would you emphasize regarding prevention of staphylococcal food poisoning?
A. All cooking and eating utensils must be thoroughly washed.
B. Food must be cooked properly to destroy staphylococcal microorganisms.
C. Food handlers and food servers must have a negative stool examination result.
D. Proper handwashing during food preparation is the best way of preventing the condition.
D. Proper handwashing during food preparation is the best way of preventing the condition.
Answer: (D) Proper handwashing during food preparation is the best way of preventing the condition. Symptoms of this food poisoning are due to staphylococcal enterotoxin, not the microorganisms themselves. Contamination is by food handling by persons with staphylococcal skin or eye infections.
- In a mothers’ class, you discussed childhood diseases such as chicken pox. Which of the following statements about chicken pox is correct?
A. The older one gets, the more susceptible he becomes to the complications of chicken pox.
B. single attack of chicken pox will prevent future episodes, including conditions such as shingles.
C. To prevent an outbreak in the community, quarantine may be imposed by health authorities.
D. Chicken pox vaccine is best given when there is an impending outbreak in the community.
A. The older one gets, the more susceptible he becomes to the complications of chicken pox.
Answer: (A) The older one gets, the more susceptible he becomes to the complications of chicken pox. Chicken pox is usually more severe in adults than in children, Complications, such as pneumonia, are higher in incidence in adults.
- Complications to infectious parotitis (mumps) may be serious in which type of clients?
A. Pregnant Women
B. Elderly Client’s
C. Young adult males
D. Young infants
C. Young adult males
- In immunizing school entrants with BCG, you are not obligated to secure parental consent. This is because of the legal document.
A. PD 996
B. RA 7846
C. Presidential Proclamation no. 6
D. Presidential proclamation no. 46.
A. PD 996
- Which immunization produces a permanent scar?
A. DPT
B. BCG
C. Measles vaccination
D. Hepatitis B vaccination
B. BCG
- A 4-week old baby was brought to the health center for his first immunization. Which can be given to him?
A. DPT 1
B. OPV 1
C. Infant BCG
D. Hepatitis B Vaccine 1
C. Infant BCG
- You will not give DPT 2 if the mother says that the infant
A.Seizures a day after DPT 1.
B. Fever for 3 days after DPT 1.
C. Abscess formation after DPT 1.
D. Local tenderness for 3 days after DPT 1.
A.Seizures a day after DPT 1.
Answer: (A) Seizures a day after DPT 1. Seizures within 3 days after administration of DPT is an indication of hypersensitivity to pertussis vaccine, a component of DPT. This is considered a specific contraindication to subsequent doses of DPT.
- A 2-month old infant was brought to the health center for immunization. During assessment, the infant’s temperature registered at 38.1°C. Which is the best course of action that you will take?
A.Go on with the infant’s immunizations.
B.Give Paracetamol and wait for his fever to subside.
C. Refer the infant to the physician for further assessment.
D. Advise the infant’s mother to bring him back for immunization when he is well.
A.Go on with the infant’s immunizations.
Answer: (A) Go on with the infant’s immunizations. In the EPI, fever up to 38.5°C is not a contraindication to immunization. Mild acute respiratory tract infection, simple diarrhea and malnutrition are not contraindications either.
- A 4-month old infant was brought to the health center because of cough. Her respiratory rate is 42/minute. Using the Intergrated Management of child Illness (IMCI) guidelines of assessment, her breathing is considered
A. Fast
B. Slow
C. Normal
D. Insignificant
C. Normal
Ans. (C). Normal. In IMCI a respiratory rate of 50/minute or more is fast breathing for an infant aged 2 to 12 months.
- Which of the following signs will indicate that a young child is suffering from severe pneumonia?
A. Dyspnea
B. Wheezing.
C. Fast breathing
D. Chest indrawing
D. Chest indrawing
Chest indrawing. In IMCI, chest indrawing is used as the positive sign of dyspnea, indicating severe pneumonia.
- Using IMCI guidelines, you classify a child as having severe pneumonia. What is the best management for this child?
a. Prescribe an antibiotic
b. Refer him urgently to the hospital
c. Instruct the mother to increase fluid intake
d. Instruct the mother to continue breastfeeding
b. Refer him urgently to the hospital
- Based on assessment, you classified a 3-month old infant with the chief complaint or diarrhea in the category of SOME DEHYDRATION. Based on IMCI management guidelines, which of the following will you do?
A. Bring the infant to the nearest facility where IV fluids can be given.
B. Supervise the mother in giving 200 to 400 ml. of Oresol in 4 hours:
C. Give the infant’s mother instructions on home management.
D. Keep the infant in your health center for close observation.
B. Supervise the mother in giving 200 to 400 ml. of Oresol in 4 hours:
- A mother is using Oresol in the management of diarrhea of her 3 year old child. She asked you what to do if her child vomits. You will tell her to
A. Bring the child to the nearest hospital for further assessment
B. Bring the child to the health center for intravenous fluid therapy.
C. Bring the child to the child to the health center for assessment by the physician
D. Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving Oresol more slowly.
D. Let the child rest for 10 minutes then continue giving Oresol more slowly.
ANSWER (D) Edema. Edema, a major sign of kwashiorkor, is caused by decreased colloidal osmotic pressure of the blood brought about by hypoalbuminemia. Decreased blood albumin level is due a protein-deficient diet.
- A 1½ year old child was classifies as having 3rd degree protein energy malnutrition, kwashiorkor. Which of the following signs will be most apparent in this child?
A. Voracious appetite
B. Wasting
C. Apathy
D. Edema
D. Edema
- Assessment of a 2yr old child revealed “baggy pants”. Using the IMCI guidelines, how will you manage this child?
A. Refer the child urgently to a hospital for confinement.
B. Coordinate with the social worker to enroll the child in a feeding program.
C. Make a teaching plan for the mother, focusing on menu planning for her child.
D. Assess and treat the child for health problems like infections and intestinal parasitism.
A. Refer the child urgently to a hospital for confinement.
- Food fortification is one of the strategies to prevent micronutrient deficiency conditions. R.A. 8976 mandates fortification of certain food items. Which of the following is among these food items?
A. Sugar
B. Bread
C. Margarine
D. Filled milk
A. Sugar
Answer: (A) Sugar. R.A. 8976 mandates fortification of rice, wheat flour, sugar and cooking oil with Vitamin A, iron and/or iodine.
