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FBS1 > Functional Anatomy and Embryology > Flashcards

Functional Anatomy and Embryology Flashcards

1
Q

Unilateral contraction of the abdominal external oblique muscle causes which movement?

A

Contralateral rotation

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2
Q

What forms the posterior wall of the inguinal canal?

A

Transversalis fascia

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3
Q

From which artery does the right gastric artery arise in most people?

A

Common hepatic artery

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4
Q

At which level does the thoracic aorta become the abdominal aorta?

A

T12

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5
Q

Which of these is intraperitoneal?

a) Ascending colon
b) Transverse colon
c) Descending colon
d) Rectum

A

Transverse colon

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6
Q

Which embryological structure forms the gallbladder?

a) Foregut
b) Midgut
c) Hindgut
d) Allantois

A

Foregut

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7
Q

Where are components of Herring bodies synthesised?

A

Preoptic and paraventricular nuclei of hypothalamus

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8
Q

Nuclei of which cells are most frequently stained in neurohypophysis?

A

Pituicytes and endothelial cells

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9
Q

Which adenohypophysis cells stain deep blue with trichrome/PAS stains?

A

Basophils

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10
Q

One possible role for chromaphobes in adenohypophysis?

A

Stem cells

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11
Q

What hormones are released from neurohypophysis?

A

ADH and Oxytocin

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12
Q

What hormones released from basophils?

A

TSH, ACTH, FSH, LH

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13
Q

What hormones released from acidophils?

A

Growth hormone and prolactin

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14
Q

Which cells are regulated by releasing hormones from hypothalamus?

A

Basophils

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15
Q

How do releasing hormones from hypothalamus reach pituitary?

A

Hypophyseal portal system

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16
Q

What do both calcitonin and parathyroid hormone regulate?

A

Ca homeostasis

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17
Q

How is parathyroid structure typical of most endocrine glands?

A

Cells arranged in cords alongside an extensive capillary bed

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18
Q

What structural features of thyroid gland is unusual?

A

Follicles

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19
Q

Thyroid parafollicular cells produce?

A

Calcitonin

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20
Q

What is unique to thyroid gland amongst all endocrine organs?

A

Hormone stored in inactive form outside cell

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21
Q

Mature hormones produced by thyroid follicular cells are called?

A

T3 +T4

Tri-iodothyronine and tetra-iodothyronine

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22
Q

Which AA is mature thyroid hormones related to?

A

Tyrosine

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23
Q

Inactive hormone precursor produced by thyroid follicular cells is?

A

Thyroglobulin (thyroid colloid)

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24
Q

What hormone is produced by parathyroid cells?

A

Parathyroid hormone

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25
Q

What region(s) of adrenal gland arise from neural crest in embryo?

A

Adrenal medulla

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26
Q

Which organ is adrenal glands fibrous capsule continuous with?

A

Kidney

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27
Q

Which region(s) of adrenal gland are regulated by sympathetic input?

A

Adrenal medulla

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28
Q

Which region(s) of adrenal gland arise from part of lining of abdominal cavity (coelom) in embyro?

A

Adrenal cortex

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29
Q

Which region(s) in adrenal glands are controlled by ACTH from pituitary?

A

Zona fasciculata, Zona reticularis

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30
Q

What do delta cells secrete?

A

Somatostatin

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31
Q

What proportion of islet cells produce insulin?

A

80%

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32
Q

Which technique can be used to detect insulin producing cells in an islet?

A

Immumohistochemistry

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33
Q

Which techniques could be used to detect changes in an individual carrying familial (Type 1) diabetes?

A

PCR

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34
Q

What is embryonic origin of adenohypophysis?

A

Up growth roof of buccal cavity

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35
Q

Embryonic origin of neurohypophysis?

A

Down growth from floor of hypothalamus

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36
Q

Where are Herring bodies found in neurohypophysis?

A

Aggregations of vesicles within axons

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37
Q

Where does endocytosis protein come from and what is it’s fate?

A

Blood being filtered from renal corpuscle

Absorbed into cells of proximal convoluted tubule and destroyed by lysosomes

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38
Q

Permeability of collecting ducts regulated by ADH only 9AA long. If hormone is present in bloodstream, would you expect it to be present:

a) Ultrafiltrate collected in Bowman’s capsule?
b) Lumen of collective tubule?
c) In urine?

A

Yes
No
Yes

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39
Q

Apart from bladder, where is urinary epithelium found?

A

Ureter and urethra

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40
Q

What are medullary rays?

A

Bundles of collecting tubules and ducts

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41
Q

Function of medullary rays?

A

Draining nephrons

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42
Q

Where are medullary rays located?

A

In medulla

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43
Q

What is the difference between the proximal and distal plane?

A

Proximal - towards trunk

Distal - away from trunk

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44
Q

What is the difference between ipsilateral and contralateral?

A

Ipsilateral - in same side

Contralateral - on opposite side

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45
Q

What is another name for external and internal rotation?

A

Lateral and Medial rotation

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46
Q

What is inversion and eversion?

A

Inversion - turn plantar surface of foot medially

Eversion - turn plantar surface of foot laterally

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47
Q

What are the the 3 epithelial cell shapes?

A

Squamous
Cuboidal
Columnar

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48
Q

What are the 3 layer structures of epithelial cells?

A

Simple
Pseudostratified - all cells contact with basement membrane
Stratified - only cells located basally have contact with basement membrane

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49
Q

What are the 3 types of surface specialisation of epithelial cells?

A

Ciliated - e.g. airways
Brush border (microvilli) - held erect by cytoskeleton
Keratinized - e.g. skin

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50
Q

Where are transitional epithelium cells found?

A

ONLY in urinary system

Stratified squamous

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51
Q

What is the difference between exocrine and endocrine glands?

A

Exocrine - secrete to free surface

Endocrine - secrete to bloodstream

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52
Q

During the development of glands, do epithelial cells break through the basal lamina?

A

No

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53
Q

What are the 3 types of exocrine secretion?

Brief explanation of each

A

Merocrine - secretory vesicle produced and fuse with plasma membrane to release contents
Apocrine - Part of apical cyto lost with secretory products
Holocrine - Breakdown and discharge of entire secretory cell (skin sebaceous glands)

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54
Q

What are the 5 types of cell junctions?

brief descrip of each

A

Tight junctions - seals neighbouring cells together, prevent leakage of molecules
Adherens junctions - joins actin bundle in 1 cell to bundle in another
Desmosomes - joins intermediate filaments in neighbouring cells
Gap junctions - passage of small diffusible ions + molecules
Hemidesmosome - anchors intermediate filaments to basal lamina

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55
Q

What is the strongest type of cell junction?

A

Desmosome

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56
Q

Which cell junctions are:

a) Anchoring
b) Non-anchoring

A

a) Desmosomes, Hemidesmosomes

b) Adherens junctions, Tight junctions, Gap junctions

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57
Q

What are the 3 superficial layers of skin?

A

Epidermis
Dermis
Superficial fascia (Hypodermis)

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58
Q

What muscle keeps the mouth closed?

A

Temporalis muscle

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59
Q

What is the serous membrane and what are the 3 structures in the body?

A

Consists of mesothelium and is double layered
Pleura (lungs)
Pericardium
Peritoneum - lines cavity of abdomen + covering of abdominal organs

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60
Q

What are the 2 sections the body drains to in the lymphatic system?

A

Top right bit (inc right arm) - subclavian veins

Rest of body - thoracic duct into left subclavian vein

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61
Q

What the 5 types of connective tissues?

A 
Mesenchyme - embryo only
Loose (areolar) - mesentery + hyperdermis
Dense 
Reticular 
Adipose
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62
Q

How many types of fibrillar collagens are there and where commonly found?

A 
4
Type 1 - skin, bone, tendons,
Type 2 - cartilage
Type 3 - blood vessels, skin
Type 4 - only basement membrane
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63
Q

Which type of fibrillar collagen doesn’t form a triple helix?

A

Type 4

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64
Q

What is GAG and what are proteoglycans?

A

Glycosaminoglycans

GAGs attached to proteins

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65
Q

What are the indigenous cells of connective tissue and what gives rise to them?

A

Mast cells - His secretion, origin immune system
Fibroblasts - ECM producer
Adipocytes - leptin secretion, fat storage, passive hormone uptake
Mesenchymal stem cells produces fibroblast + adipocytes

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66
Q

What are the immigrant cells of connective tissue?

A 
(Immune system cells)
Neutrophils
Monocytes/Macrophages
Dendritic cells
Eosinophils
Basophils
Lymphocytes
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67
Q

What type of cells make up cartilage of bone?

A

Chondroblasts

Secrete ground substance and collagen

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68
Q

What is the perichondrium?

A

Connective tissue that envelops cartilage when it’s not at a joint
Separates cartilage from blood + nerve supply

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69
Q

What is the axial skeleton and what is the rest called?

A

Skull, thoracic cavity

Appendicular skeleton

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70
Q

What is a sesamoid bone?

A

Developed in tendons where passes over angular structure

e.g. patella

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71
Q

What are the 3 general sections of a long bone called?

A

Proximal epiphysis
Diaphysis (shaft of bone)
Distal epiphysis

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72
Q

What is endochondral ossification?

A

Growing cartilage replaced by bone to form growing skeleton
Cartilaginous template and bony collar forms around it which cuts off blood supply + nutrients
Cell swell up + die + calcify

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73
Q

What is intramembranous ossification?

A

Bone tissue created directly over mesenchymal tissue

e.g. flat bones of skull or in healing of bone fractures

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74
Q

What are the 2 types of tissue in mature bone?

A

Compact

Trabecular (spongy)

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75
Q

What are the 3 classifications of joints?

A

Fibrous
Cartilaginous
Synovial

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76
Q

What are the 3 types of fibrous joints?

A

Sutures - only between skull bones
Syndesmoses - interosseous membranes, immovable joints where bones are joined by connective tissue
Gomphoses - only between bones and teeth (fibrous periodontal ligament)

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77
Q

What are the 3 types of suture joints?

A

Squamous
Serrated
Denticulate

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78
Q

What are the 2 types of cartilaginous joints and brief descrip of each?

A

Primary: synchondroses - plate of hyaline cartilage between opposing surface, x movement
Secondary: symphyses - apposing surface covered by hyaline, separated by fibrocartilage, partial movement

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79
Q

What is the tidemark barrier?

A

Between cartilage + bone

Osteoblasts from bone can damage cartilage

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80
Q

What are the 3 basic features of synovial joints?

+ 2 present in some cases

A

Ends of bones covered in articular (hyaline) cartilage
Joint cavity
Synovial membrane - lines joint capsule ONLY
(Disc)
(Bursae)

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81
Q

What are the 7 classifications of the synovial joints?

A 
Hinge
Pivot
Ball + socket
Saddled shape
Ellipsoid
Condyloid
Plane
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82
Q

What are the 3 types of muscle tissue and which one(s) are voluntary?

A

Striated skeletal muscle - voluntary
Striated cardiac muscle - involuntary
Non-striated smooth muscle - involuntary

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83
Q

What is the difference between ligament and tendon?

A

Ligament - bone to bone

Tendon - muscle to bone

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84
Q

What are the 2 types of muscle contraction?

A

Isotonic - concentric: muscle shortens during force production
eccentric: muscle produces force but length increases
Isometric - exert force with no change in length

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85
Q

What are the 3 layers of connective tissue that hold muscle fibre in place?

A

Epimysium - tough, outermost layer, surround whole muscle
Perimysium - surrounds bundles of muscle fibres to create fascicle
Endomysium - surrounds each muscle fibre within fasciculus

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86
Q

What are myoblasts?

A

Embryonic precursors of myocytes

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87
Q

What does mitotically quiescent mean?

A

Not normally dividing

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88
Q

What are the muscle’s equivalent stem cells?

A

Satellite cells - multipotent, on surface muscle fibres

activate to enter cell cycle + become myoblasts

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89
Q

What is the:

a) A band?
b) I band?

A

a) Anisotropic band, thick myosin filament

b) Isotropic band. thin actin filament

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90
Q

What is the centre of the sarcomere called?

A

H band/zone

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91
Q

What is Duchenne muscle dystrophy?

A

X-linked disorder

Defective gene for protein dystrophin

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92
Q

What is the embryological origin of the axial and appendicular muscle?

A

Somites

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93
Q

What is the embryological origin of the head muscles?

A

Unsegmented cranial mesoderm

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94
Q

What is the embryological origin of the trunk muscles?

A

Segmented paraxial mesoderm

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95
Q

What are the 2 cell types in neural tissue?

A

Neuron/nerve cells - transmit electrical impulses

Support cells - support nerve cells, bring nutrients and remove waste products

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96
Q

What are the 4 types of glial cells?

A

Astrocytes
Microglia
Ependymal cells
Oligodendrocytes

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97
Q

What are neuroglial/glial cells?

A

Non-neuronal cells in nervous system

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98
Q

What are ganglia?

A

Nerve cell bodies of neurons that lie outside CNS collected into groups

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99
Q

What is the fissure between the 2 cerebral hemispheres of the brain called?

A

Corpu colosum

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100
Q

What is the foramina in the skull?

A

Where nerves enter and leave brain and spinal cord

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101
Q

What are the 3 meninges of the brain?

A

Dura mater (periosteal, meningeal)
Arachnoid mater
Pia mater

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102
Q

What is the difference between lossy and lossless compression?

A

Lossy - can’t go back to original

Lossless - can go back to original image without losing original information

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103
Q

What is the general alpha decay equation?

A

Unstable radioactive nuclei of an element ==> mass number - 4, atomic number -2, + 1 helium atom

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104
Q

What is the general beta - decay equation?

A

neutron ==> proton + beta - + antineutrino
Atomic no increase by 1
Neutron number decrease by 1
Mass number unchanged

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105
Q

What is the general beta + (positron) decay equation?

A

proton ==> neutron + positron + neutrino
Atomic no decrease by 1
Neutron no increase by 1
Mass number unchanged

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106
Q

What is the difference between dorsal and ventral?

A

Both relate to surface
Dorsal - back/upper side of an organism
Ventral - front/lower side of an organism

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107
Q

What is recanalisation?

A

Restoring flow to an interrupted channel

e.g. to pharynx and oesophagus

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108
Q

What is oesophageal stenosis?

A

Walls x recannulate properly, walls too thick

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109
Q

What is oesophageal duplication?

A

Duplication of tube

Bacterial growth

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110
Q

What is atresia?

A

Blockage of tube during recanalisation

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111
Q

What is reversed rotation of the midgut?

A

Duodenum in front of large bowel

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112
Q

What is non rotation of the midgut?

A

When cranial and caudal limbs pulled back into abdominal cavity
Large intestine on left

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113
Q

What is mixed rotation of the midgut?

A

Cranial and caudal limbs go opposite directions

Caecum top right of abdomen

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114
Q

What is a volvulus?

A

Loop of intestine twists around itself and the mesentery that supports it

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115
Q

What is omphalocele?

A

Intestines, liver/ other organs stick outside of belly through belly button
Has covering of umbilical cord around it

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116
Q

What is gastroschisis?

A

Intestines protrude from anterior abdominal wall
Lateral to umbilicus
No covering

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117
Q

What makes up the foregut?

A 
Lower resp tract (larynx)
Stomach
Duodenum
Liver + pancreas
Biliary apparatus
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118
Q

What makes up the midgut?

A 
Duodenum distal to opening of bile duct
Jejunum
Ileum
Caecum + appendix
Ascending colon
Proximal 2/3 of transverse colon
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119
Q

What makes up the hindgut?

A 
Distal 1/3 of transverse colon
Descending colon
Sigmoid colon
Rectum
Superior part of anal canal
Epithelium of urinary bladder + most of urethra
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120
Q

Under what ligament does the left side of the greater sac connect to the right?

A

Falciform ligament

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121
Q

Under what ligament does the greater sac connect to the lesser sac?

A

Gastrohepatic ligament

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122
Q

What is the lesser omentum?

A

Double layer of peritoneum that extends from liver to lesser curvature of stomach + 1st prt of duodenum

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123
Q

What is the greater omentum?

A

Double layer of peritoneum that extends from greater curvature of stomach and sits in front of intestine
When lifted, releases transverse colon

124
Q

What is the difference between parietal and visceral peritoneum?

A

Parietal - covers abdominal and pelvic cavities

Visceral - covers each organ individually

125
Q

In the subdivisions of the abdomen, what are the vertical lines called?

A

Lateral lines

126
Q

In the subdivisions of the abdomen, what are the horizontal lines called (from top to bottom)?

A

Transpyloric plane - transversely through pylons
Subcostal plane
Transtubercular plane - passes 2 tubercles that lie on crest of ileum

127
Q

What costal cartilages does the rectus abdominis arise from and where does it attach?

A

Costal cartilage of ribs 5,6,7

Attaches to ridge between pubic crest

128
Q

What 2 layers is the superficial fascia of the abdomen made up of?

A

Camper’s fascia - full fat

Scarpa’s fat - membraneous layer

129
Q

What is the innervation of rectus abdominis?

A

T7-T12

130
Q

What is the innervation of external oblique?

A

T7-T12

131
Q

What is the innervation of internal oblique?

A

T7-L1

132
Q

What is the innervation of transverse abdominis?

A

T7-L1

133
Q

Which way does internal oblique pull the trunk?

A

To same side

134
Q

Which direction do these muscles go around rectus abdominis?

a) External oblique
b) Internal oblique
c) Transverse abdominis

A

a) In front, bottom end folds under on self, forms inguinal ligament
b) Splits in 2, half in front, half goes behind
c) Behind

135
Q

What percentage of hernias are umbilical?

A

14-20%

136
Q

What is the difference between femoral and inguinal hernias?

A

Femoral - lies lateral to pubic tubercle, below inguinal ligament
Inguinal - lies medial to pubic tubercle, originates above inguinal ligament

137
Q

In the development of the spermatic cord, what does Camper’s fascia become?

A

Dartos muscle, as lose fat as go around testes

138
Q

In the development of the spermatic cord, what does Scarpa’s fascia become?

A

Colles fascia, becomes continuous with deep fascia

139
Q

In the development of the spermatic cord, what does external oblique become?

A

External spermatic fascia

140
Q

In the development of the spermatic cord, what does internal oblique become?

A

Cremasteric muscle + fascia

Takes some of muscle fibres

141
Q

In the development of the spermatic cord, what does transverse fascia become?

A

Internal spermatic fascia

142
Q

What is the difference between a direct and an indirect hernia?

A

Direct - through inguinal triangle, through superficial ring, weakened muscles of abdominal wall
Indirect - through deep and superficial ring

143
Q

What is a….?

a) Hypertonic stomach
b) Hypotonic stomach
c) Atonic stomach
d) Steer Horn stomach

A

Look at shapes on stomach and spleen notes

a) Fundus is much bigger
b) Overstretched stomach
c) Stomach is long
d) Long, transverse, seen in endomorphs

144
Q

What is a…..?

a) Ectomorph
b) Endomorph
c) Mesomorph

A

a) Tall, slim person
b) Short, stumpy person
c) The norm person

145
Q

What are the 5 parts of the stomach?

A 
Cardia - where oesophagus meets stomach
Fundus - normally gas filled
Body - HCl, pepsinogen, intrinsic factor
Pyloric antrum - gastrin
Pylorus - where sphincter is
146
Q

Why does the carida of the stomach secrete mucus?

A

Protect oesophagus from acidic stomach content

147
Q

Why is the duodenum positioned above the stomach?

A

If below, gravity would move chyme into duodenum + cause it to become overloaded

148
Q

What does the stomach absorb?

A

Water
Electrolytes
Alcohol
Aspirin - can cause leakage of blood vessels in stomach wall

149
Q

How long does food remain in the stomach for? (approx)

A

4 hours

150
Q

What 3 layers does the mucosa of the stomach consist of?

A

Columnar epithelium - absorbing
Lamina propria - contain gastric glands
Muscularis mucosa - movement within lumen to propel gut contents

151
Q

What 5 layers does the submucosa of the stomach have?

A 
Loose connective tissue
Blood vessels
Lymphatics
Nerves - prt of enteric NS
Glands
152
Q

What is Meissner’s plexus?

A

Submucosal plexus

Derived from myenteric plexus, which is derived from plexuses of parasymp nerves around superior mesenteric arteries

153
Q

What are the 2 layers in the muscularis externa?

And nerve supply?

A

Outer longitudinal
Inner circular
Myenteric (Auerbach’s) plexus

154
Q

What is the serosa?

A

Peritoneum membrane wrapping around gut

155
Q

What extra layer does the stomach wall have in addition to the layers in the muscularis externa?

A

Inner oblique layer

156
Q

What is the rugae of the stomach?

A

Longitudinal folds of the mucosa

157
Q

What is the incisura angularis of the stomach and what is above it anatomically?

A

Sharp angle in stomach

Abdominal aorta

158
Q

What is the difference between intraperitoneal and retroperitoneal?

A

Intraperitoneal - completely surrounded in peritoneum, flexible
Retroperitoneal - partly covered in peritoneum, rigid

159
Q

What areas of the stomach does the left lobe of the liver cover?

A

Cardia, and prt of fundus

160
Q

What organ(s) is behind the stomach?

A

Pancreas, left kidney

161
Q

What is the parasympathetic innervation of the stomach?

A

Vagus nerve
Left crosses in front of oeso ==> Anterior vagal trunk
Right goes behind oeso ==> Posterior vagal trunk

162
Q

What is the sympathetic innervation of the stomach?

A

Splanchnic nerve

T6-T9

163
Q

What is hepatomegaly?

A

Enlargement of liver - is palpable

164
Q

What organ is the bare area of the liver in direct contact with?

A

Diaphragm

165
Q

What flexure of the colon leaves an indentation on the visceral surface of the liver?

A

Hepatic flexure - junction between ascending colon and transverse colon

166
Q

What ligament divides the right and left lobes of the liver?

A

Falciform ligament

167
Q

How many functional lobes can the liver be divided into and what are they called?

A

8

Couinaud’s Divisions

168
Q

What are the lobes in the H division of the liver?

A

Caudate
Quadrate
Left
Right

169
Q

What are the ligaments at the top of the liver?

A

Left triangle ligament
RIght triangle ligament
Coronary ligament

170
Q

What manoeuvre is used to cut off blood supply to liver?

A

Pringle maneouvre

171
Q

What is Calot’s triangle?

A

Identifies cystic artery + cuts off blood supply when need to remove gall bladder

172
Q

What vein is the …… drained by?

a) Foregut
b) Midgut
c) Hindgut

A

a) Splenic vein
b) Superior mesenteric - joins splenic + joining of both forms hepatic portal vein
c) Inferior mesenteric vein - joins splenic

173
Q

Where do the oesophageal veins drain to?

A

Upwards to azygos vein in thorax

174
Q

What part of the duodenum does the bile and pancreatic duct terminate?

A

2nd part

175
Q

What is the sphincter of Oddi?

A

Smooth muscle surrounding end portion of common bile duct and pancreatic duct

176
Q

What is the greater duodenal papilla?

A

Where the common bile duct and pancreatic duct open into the duodenum

177
Q

What is the hepatopancreatic ampulla/ampulla of Vater?

A

Union of bile duct and pancreatic duct

178
Q

Where is the
a) Head
b) Tail
of the pancreas located?

A

a) Curve of duodenum - under superior mesenteric artery

b) Extends to spleen

179
Q

What are the indentations of the rectum?

A

1 fold right

2 folds left

180
Q

What are the female rectal pouch(es)?

A 
Rectouterine pouch (Pouch of Douglas) - uterus and rectum
Vesicouterine pouch - uterus and bladder
181
Q

What are the male rectal pouch(es)?

A

Rectovesical pouch - rectum and bladder

182
Q

How many sections is the rectum divided into and and what is the peritoneum covering of each?

A

3
Upper third - peritoneum on front and sides
Middle third - peritoneum in front only
Lower third - devoid of peritoneum

183
Q

What is the ischiorectal fossa?

A

Wraps around anal canal

184
Q

What is the pudendal canal/Alcock’s canal?

A

Structure in pelvis through where internal pudendal artery, internal pudendal veins, + pudendal nerve pass.

185
Q

What is the perineal body?

A

Area to allow anchoring of muscle fibres

186
Q

What structure attaches at the anal coccygeal body?

A

External anal sphincter muscle

187
Q

When does the puborectalis muscle relax?

A

During defecation,

Changes angle between rectum + anal canal by straightening junction

188
Q

What is the area under the last fold of the rectum?

A

Rectal ampulla

189
Q

What is the name of the line that indicates the end of the rectum?
(What is name of region under this line)

A

Pectinate line

Proctodeum

190
Q

Which part of the anal canal has longitudinal folds of mucosa (anal columns)?

A

Upper anal canal

191
Q

What is the name of the line where the internal sphincter of the anal canal ends?

A

Hilton’s white line

192
Q

What area does the proctoscope see?

A

Looks at anal canal + rectal ampulla

Sees area of proctodeum

193
Q

Which anal sphincter is under somatic control?

A

External anal sphincter

194
Q

What area does the superior rectal artery supply?

A

Supplies rectum + upper half of anal canal

195
Q

What artery does middle rectal artery branch from?

A

Internal iliac artery

196
Q

What artery supplies below the pelvic floor and pectinate floor?

A

Inferior rectal artery - branch of internal pudendal artery

197
Q

What is an internal hemorrhoid?

A

Swelling of vein into anal canal above pectinate line

198
Q

What is an external hemorrhoid?

A

Swelling of vein below pectinate line

If examining patient, see bulges in 11, 3, 7 o clock positons

199
Q

Where are the stretch receptors of the anal canal arise from?

A

Parasymp S2-4

200
Q

What nerve carries somatic sensation from anal sphincter + ischioanal fossa?

A

Pudendal nerve

201
Q

Where does the foregut end?

A

After entry of common bile duct

202
Q

Where does midgut end?

A

2/3 of way along transverse colon

203
Q

Where does the hindgut end?

A

Halfway down anal canal

204
Q

What are the intraperitoneal organs?

A

Stomach, spleen, liver, bulb (start) of duodenum, jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, sigmoid colon

205
Q

What are the retroperitoneal organs?

A

Remainder of duodenum, cecum + ascending colon, descending colon, pancreas, kidneys

206
Q

For the parts bowel that aren’t covered in peritoneum , what are they hinged on?

A

The Mesentery
Hinged on posterior abdominal wall
From duodenal jejunal flexure to ileocaecal joint
15cm long

207
Q

What are the 3 divisions of the SI and where does it start and end?

A

Duodenum (<5%)
Jejunum (<40%)
Ileum (<60%)
Runs from pyloric sphincter to ileocecal junction

208
Q

How many parts of the duodenum are there?

A

4

209
Q

What are the folds in the duodenum called?

A

Pliegues circulares

210
Q

Which part of the duodenum is crossed by the superior mesenteric artery and vein?

A

3rd part

211
Q

What ligament holds up the duodenal jejunal flexure?

A

Suspensory ligament AKA Ligament of Treitz

Connected to diaphragm

212
Q

What are the names of the mucus glands in the duodenum?

A

Brunner’s glands

213
Q

What type of arteries are vasa recta?

A

Anatomical end arteries

X anastomotic connections to each other

214
Q

What are the blood vessels like in the jejunal mucosa?

A

Long vasa recta
Short arterial arcades
Mesentery has v little fat so can see blood vessels easily

215
Q

What are the blood vessels like in the ileal mucosa?

A

Short vasa recta
Complex arterial arcades
Fat-filled mesentery

216
Q

What are Peyer’s patches and where are they found?

A

Islands of lymphoid tissue in ileum wall

GALT - gut associated lymphoid tissue

217
Q

Which part of the small intestine has little pliegues circulares?

A

Ileum

218
Q

What lymphatic nodes drain:

a) Foregut?
b) Midgut?
c) Hindgut?

A

a) Coeliac node
b) Superior mesenteric node
c) Inferior mesenteric node

219
Q

What are the 3 main structural features of the large intestine?

A 
Teniae coli - 3 longitudinal strips, thickening of longitudinal muscle of muscularis externa
Haustra - sac-like divisions
Epiploic appendages (Omentus appendages) - fat-filled pouches
220
Q

What is a diverticula?

A

Outpouching of gut wall of muscularis in LI

Common in sigmoid colon

221
Q

What does the large intestine absorb and where does it start and end?

A

Absorbs H2O + electrolytes

Starts caecum + end upper half anal canal

222
Q

Where is the vermiform appendix attached to?

A

Attached to caecum

223
Q

Where is the initial pain of appendicitis and where does it move to?

A

Umbilical region

Right iliac fossa when infection of inflamed appendix reaches parietal peritoneum

224
Q

Where is Mcburney’s point and where is the maximal appendix pain?

A

Line drawn from anterior, superior iliac spine to umbilicus

2/3 down from umbilicus

225
Q

Where do the preganglionic nerves arise from for the:

a) Foregut?
b) Midgut?
c) HIndgut?

A

a) T5-T9 ==> coeliac ganglion
b) T10-T12 ==> mesenteric ganglion
c) T12, L1-2 ==> inferior mesenteric ganglion

226
Q

In the gut, does symp/parasymp innervation promote gut movement?

A

Parasymp

227
Q

What 5 endocrine organs produce hormones that are proteins + peptides?

A 
Hypothalamus
Pituitary
Parathyroid
GI tract
Pancreas
228
Q

What organs produce steroid hormones?

A

Adrenal glands
Gonads
Placenta (e.g. oestrogen)

229
Q

What is a monomeric receptor?

A

Single unit crosses plasma M e.g. EGF receptor

230
Q

What is a multimeric receptor?

A

Several membrane spanning subunits + extracellular subunits e.g. insulin receptor

231
Q

How does blood reach the anterior pituitary glands?

A

Via capillary loops though either long/shrt hypophyseal portal vessels

232
Q

What are the 5 types of endocrine cells in the anterior pituitary glands?

A 
Gonadotroph cells
Corticotroph cells
Somatotroph cells
Lactotroph cells
Thyrotroph cells
233
Q

What 2 features are involved in the control anterior pituitary?

A

Release of hypothalamic hypophysiotropic hormones

Feedback by target gland hormones

234
Q

Which part of the pituitary is connected to the hypothalamus and what is it’s posh name?

A

Posterior Pituitary - Neurohypophysis

235
Q

Which part of the pituitary is non-neuronal and what is it’s posh name?

A

Anterior pituitary - Adenohypophysis

236
Q

What are the 2 parts of the posterior pituitary?

A

Infundibulum

Pars nervosa

237
Q

What are the 3 parts of the anterior pituitary?

A

Pars tuberalis
Pars distalis
Pars intermedia

238
Q

What is the shape of the adrenal gland on the :

a) Right kidney?
b) Left kidney?

A

a) Pyramidal

b) Crescent

239
Q

What are the 3 cell zones in the adrenal cortex?

A

Zona glomerulosa - salt, mineralocorticoids - aldosterone
Zona fasciculata - sugar, glucocorticoids - cortisol
Zona reticularis - sex, sex steroids (some gluco)

240
Q

What is the release of mineralocorticoids regulated by?

A

Renin/anngiotensin

241
Q

What is the release of glucocorticoids regulated by?

A

ACTH

242
Q

What hormones does the adrenal medulla secrete?

A

Cholamines
80% adrenaline
20% noradrenaline

243
Q

What are the 4 main types in the islet of Langerhans and what do they secrete?

A

Alpha cells - 20% glucagon
Beta cells - 70% insulin
Delta cells - 5-10% somatostatin
F/pp cells - 1-2% pancreatic polypep

244
Q

What is the medial arcuate ligament?

A

Under diaphragm, goes around aorta

Connects diaphragm to spine

245
Q

Where does the quadratus lumborum attach to?

Innervation?

A

Attaches to 12th rib + arises from iliac crest of hip bone
Stabilises 12th rib during breathing
L1, 2, 3

246
Q

Where does the psoas major attach to?

Innervation?

A

Arise from vertebral bodies + intervertebral discs of L1-L5

Runs down in front of hip joint, attaches to lesser trochanter, main flexor of hip joint

247
Q

Where does the iliacus attach to?

Innervation?

A 
Inside iliac fossa + joins psoas major
Unites to form iliopsoas tendon + inserts into lesser trochanter
Femoral nerve (L2, 3)
248
Q

What is the psoas major covered by?

A

Psoas sheath

249
Q

What nerve passes through middle of psoas major?

A

Genitofemoral nerve

250
Q

What vertebral level does abdominal aorta bifurcate?

A

L4

251
Q

What vertebral level does vena cava form by merging of veins?

A

L5

252
Q

What is the difference between the ureter and the urethra?

A

Ureter - drains urine from kidney to bladder

Urethra - drains urine from bladder to outside body

253
Q

What is the hilum of the kidney?

A

Where blood vessels, nerves, lymphatics enter

Located transpyloric plane (L1)

254
Q

From the capsule of the kidney, what are the layers going outwards?

A

(Kidney capsule), Perirenal fat, renal fascia, pararenal fat

255
Q

What artery supplies the top of suprarenal glands?

A

Superior suprarenal arteries

Branch from inferior phrenic artery

256
Q

What artery supplies the bottom of the suprarenal glands?

A

Inferior suprarenal arteries

Branch from venal arteries

257
Q

Where does the middle suprarenal artery arise from?

A

Directly from abdominal aorta

258
Q

What are the arteries called in the renal columns?

A

Interlobular arteries

259
Q

What are the arteries in the cortex called?

A

Arcuate arteries

260
Q

Where is the narrowest part of the ureter?

A

Junction between renal pelvis + ureter

Pelvi-ureteric junction

261
Q

What is the name of the junction where the ureter enters the posterior wall of bladder?

A

Ureterovesical junction

262
Q

What are the 5 parts of the male urethra?

A 
Preprostatic urethra
Prostatic urethra
Membranous urethra
Bulbous urethra
Spongy/penile urethra
263
Q

When catheterising a male, what can the catheter initially get stuck in?

A

Navicular fossa

264
Q

What is cystitis?

A

Inflammation of bladder

265
Q

What are the muscles of the pelvic floor?

A

Levator ani

Coccygeus muscle

266
Q

What are the 3 muscle components of the levator ani?

A

Pubococcygeus - from pubis to around coccyx
Iliococcygeus - from ileum to around coccyx
Puborectalis - from pubis to around rectum

267
Q

What is the urogenital hiatus?

A

Hole in puborectalis so urethra and vagina can pass through muscle

268
Q

What do these sphincters surround?

a) Urethrovaginalis
b) External urethral sphincter
c) Compressor urethrae

A

a) Around both urethra and vagina
b) Around urethra (Male + Female)
c) Around front of urethra (Female)

269
Q

Where is the paraurethral (Skene’s) gland located?

A

In wall of female urethra

Lubricate distal prt of urethra, urine flow freely

270
Q

When does the internal urethral sphincter of the male contract and why?

A

During ejaculation

Controls potential of semen entering from distal to proximal as semen highly nutritious so can cause infection

271
Q

What is the pelvic course of the urethra in…

a) Males?
b) Females?

A 
a) 
Cross over external iliac artery
Cross over obliterated umbilical artery
Cross under ductus (vas) deferens
b)
Crosses over external iliac artery
Crosses over obliterated umbilical artery
Crosses under uterine artery
272
Q

What muscle inside the bladder is folded and what is the name of the smooth area?

A

Detrusor muscle

Trigone

273
Q

What is supropubic catherisation?

A

Catheter pushed into bladder wall through anterior abdominal wall

274
Q

What are the 4 joints in the pelvis?

A

Sacroiliac joint
Sacrococcygeal joint
Pubic symphysis
Lumbosacral joint

275
Q

What is the angle of inclination of the….

a) Pelvic inlet?
b) Pelvic outlet?

A

a) 50-60 degrees with horizontal inferiorly

b) 10-15 degrees to horizontal inferiorly

276
Q

What is the name for a normal pelvic shape in…

a) Male?
b) Female?

A

a) Android

b) Gynecoid

277
Q

What is the name of a flat pelvis shape?

A

Platypelloid

X do vaginal delivery

278
Q

What is prolapse?

A

1/more of pelvic organs slip down from normal position + bulge into vagina

279
Q

What is an episiotomy?

A

Deliberate unilateral incision of perineum + posterior vaginal wall
Bypass damage at perineum body

280
Q

What is cryptorchidism?

A

Undescended testes

X surgical intervention unless haven’t descended by a year

281
Q

What are the 3 fascia in the inguinal canal in males?

A

External spermatic fascia - aponeurosis of external oblique
Cremasteric - internal oblique
Internal spermatic fascia - transverse fascia

282
Q

What are the 3 arteries in the inguinal canal in males?

A

Testicular
Cremasteric
Deferential artery

283
Q

What are the 3 veins in the inguinal canal in males?

A

Pampiniform plexus + testicular vein
Cremasteric vein
Deferential vein

284
Q

What are the 3 nerves in the inguinal canal in males?

A

Genital branch of the genitofemoral nerve
Ilioinguinal
Autonomic nerves

285
Q

What are the contents of the inguinal canal in females?

A

Round ligament of uterus
Genital branch of genitofemoral branch
Ilioinguinal nerve

286
Q

What are the seminiferous tubules?

A

In testes
Site of meiosis + synthesis of sperm
Made up of columnar Sertoli cells

287
Q

What are Leydig cells?

A

Secrete testosterone

288
Q

What are the 4 zones of the prostate gland?

A

Central zone
Peripheral zone
Fibromuscular zone
Transitional zone

289
Q

Which zone of the prostate gland does hyperplasia occur?

A

Transitional zone

290
Q

What are the erectile tissue in the penis?

A

Paired corpora cavernosa

Corpus spongiosum

291
Q

What is an ectopic pregnancy?

A

Where fertilised egg implants self outside womb

292
Q

What are the 3 layers in the uterus?

A

Perimetrium
Myometrium (muscle layers)
Endometrium (lining is shed)

293
Q

What is cleavage in embryology?

A

Series of rapid cell divisions without growth of embryo

Follows immediately after fertilisation

294
Q

What is gastrulation?

A

Process through which cells sort out to generate body plan

295
Q

What are the germ layers established in gastrulation?

A

Endoderm
Mesoderm
Ectoderm

296
Q

What is neurulation?

A

Formation of neural tube

297
Q

What are the 4 divisions of the mesoderm?

A

Intermediate mesoderm
Chordamesoderm
Paraxial mesoderm
Lateral plate mesoderm

298
Q

What type of cells synthesise elastic fibres?

A

Embryonic + juvenile fibroblasts

Puberty stop making

299
Q

How many cycles of stretch-recoil can elastin fibres endure before losing elasticity?

A

2 billion cycles

300
Q

In the humerus, what is the…

a) Intertubercular groove
b) Deltoid tuberosity

A

a) Where bicep runs down

b) Where deltoid muscle attaches

301
Q

What is the tentorium cerebelli?

A

Extension of dura mater that holds brain in place so X move around much

302
Q

What is…

a) oesophageal atresia
b) oesophageal fistulae

A

a) Gap between proximal and distal oesophagus

b) Extra connection of oesophagus to lower prt of trachea

303
Q

What percentage of groin hernias are inguinal?

A

95%

304
Q

How many peripheral nerves in spine?

A 
Cranial - 12 pairs (Vagus is 10)
Cervical - 8 pairs
Thoracic - 12 pairs
Lumbar - 5 pairs
Sacral - 5 pairs
Coccygeal - 1 pair
305
Q

What shape classification would be used to describe the hip bone?

A

Flat

306
Q

Which plane divides the body into superior and inferior parts?

A

Horizontal

307
Q

Where do direct and indirect hernias occur in relation to inferior epigastric artery?

A

Direct - medial to inf epigastric artery

Indirect - lateral to inf epigastric artery

FBS1 (5 decks)

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