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Block 6 Week 5 > "Fun" facts > Flashcards

"Fun" facts Flashcards

1
Q

Where is Botulinum toxin commonly found?

A

canned foods, honey

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2
Q

Sulfur granules

A

Actinomyces israelii

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3
Q

gram positive, coagulase NEGATIVE bacteria that causes UTIs in sexually active females

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

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4
Q

gram positive, coagulase NEGATIVE bacteria that is associated with infection following indwelling medical devices (i.e. catheter, IV line)

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

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5
Q

What toxin mediated reaction can be caused by Staph aureus?

A

Toxic shock syndrome

**also caused by Strep pyogenes

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6
Q

What are two ALPHA-hemolytic streptococci? What are two BETA-hemolytic streptococci?

A

Alpha: pneumoniae and viridans
Beta: agalactiae and pyogenes

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7
Q

Most common cause of meningitis in newborns

A

Streptococcus agalactiae

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8
Q

Very common cause of UTI

A

Enterococcus faecalis

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9
Q

Fried rice food poisoning

A

Bacillus cereus

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10
Q

Spores from goat milk

A

Bacillus anthracis

**easy on the goat cheese

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11
Q

Anaerobic spore formers

A

Clostridium

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12
Q

Only gram + bacteria with endotoxin

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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13
Q

acid fast gram positive staining

A

Nocardia

Mycobacteria

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14
Q

Chinese letter appearance

black colonies on potassium tellurite

A

Cornyebacterium diphtheriae

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15
Q

Chocolate agar

A

Influenza

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16
Q

X and V factors required

A

Influenza

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17
Q

Growth on charcoal yeast agar w iron and cysteine

A

Legionella pneumophilia

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18
Q

Requires cysteine for growth

A

Franciscella tularensis

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19
Q

Stool cultures are metallic green

A

E. Coli

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20
Q

Currant jelly sputum

A

Klebsiella

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21
Q

Cat and dog bites

A

Pasteurella multocida

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22
Q

Tick bite on a rabbit farm

A

Francisella tularensis

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23
Q 
MOPS
Meningitis
Otitis Media
Pneumonia
Sinusitis
A

Influenza type B

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24
Q

Urea breath test

A

Helicobacter pylori

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25
Q

Guillain-Barre Syndrome

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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26
Q

Unpasteurized milk

A

Campylobacter jejuni

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27
Q

Fleas

A

Yersinia pestis

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28
Q

Blue-green colonies with a fruity odor

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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29
Q

Ribosylates Gs, keeps AC active, and increases cAMP

A

Vibrio cholerae

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30
Q

Alkaline (basic) urine, stones

A

Proteus mirabilis

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31
Q

bloody diarrhea, non-motile

A

Shigella

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32
Q

Cat scratch

A

Bartonella henselae

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33
Q

Goat cheese

A

Brucella

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34
Q

Lives inside of macrophages

Atypical pneumonia

A

Legionella pneumophila

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35
Q

Strict gram negative anaerobe

A

Bacteroides fragilis

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36
Q

Motile gram - rod causing gastroenteritis

A

Salmonella

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37
Q

Parrot keeper

Atypical pneumonia

A

Chlamydia psittaci

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38
Q

Strong immune response, few bacteria

A

Tuberculoid leprosy

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39
Q

Weak immune response, many bacteria

A

Lepromatous leprosy

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40
Q

Dark field microscopy

A

Treponema pallidum (syphilis)

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41
Q

Weil’s disease

A

Leptospira interrogans

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42
Q

Extracellular elementary bodies, intracellular reticular bodies

A

Chlamydia pneumoniae

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43
Q

No cell wall, no cholesterol in membranes

A

Mycoplasma

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44
Q

Relapsing fever, body louse

A

Borrelia recurrentis

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45
Q

3 spirochetes

A

Borrelia (burgdorfi, recurrentis)
Leptospira interrogans
T. pallidum

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46
Q

Erythema migrams, ticks

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

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47
Q

Weil-Felix test

A

Rickettsia rickettsii

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48
Q

Two obligate intracellular parasites

A

Rickettsia

Chlamydia

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49
Q

Given w Cilastatin to slow renal degradation

A

Carbapenems

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50
Q

Given orally for C. diff

A

Vancomycin

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51
Q

Used topically for gram negative bacteria

A

polymyxin

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52
Q

Used for anaerobes and some protozoan parasites

A

metronidazole

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53
Q

Primary drug for TB, leprosy (mycobacteria)

A

Rifampin

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54
Q

Used for spirochetes, rickettsiae, chlamydia

A

tetracycline

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55
Q

Lincosamide that can cause C. diff

A

clindamycin

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56
Q

Inhibits synthesis of mycolic acids, used for TB

A

isoniazid

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57
Q

Viral meningitis

A

enteroviruses

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58
Q

Hep A and Hep E are acquired this way;

no hepatitis, liver damage

A

fecal-oral

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59
Q

blueberry muffin rash

A

Rubella

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60
Q

breakbone fever - joint and muscle pain, also pain behind the eyes

A

Dengue fever

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61
Q

crows

A

West Nile virus

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62
Q

Hep A is a + strand non-enveloped picornavirus; Hep C is a + strand enveloped flavivirus; Hep B and D are DNA viruses; Hep E is a calicivirus (+ strand non-enveloped)

A

Ok

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63
Q

SARS

A

coronavirus

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64
Q

Negri bodies

A

Rhabdovirus

65
Q

Filovirus

A

ebola

66
Q

Koplick spots, maculopapular rash

A

measles

67
Q

croup, barking cough

A

parainfluenza virus

68
Q

pneumonia + bronchiolitis in infants

A

RSV

69
Q

Deer mice

A

Hantavirus

70
Q

ticks, bleeding from GI, nose, uterus, respiratory tract

A

Crimean Congo hemorrhagic fever

71
Q

domestic livestock

A

Rift valley fever virus

72
Q

Hamsters

A

lymphocytic choriomeningitis

73
Q

Nigeria

A

Lassa fever virus

74
Q

double stranded RNA virus

A

Reovirus (Rotavirus)

75
Q

Caribbean, weakened/stiff legs, Increased Ca++

A

HTLV

76
Q

Why is rubella an unusual togavirus?

A

not transmitted by a creature, but via respiratory droplets

77
Q

Used for treatment or prophylaxis of Influenza A2

A

amantadine

78
Q

Neuraminidase inhibitors for Influenza A and B

A

zanamivir

oseltamivir

79
Q

Flavivirus that causes neurological abnormalities

A

St. Louis encephalitis

80
Q

CNS probs, horses

A

EEE, WEE, ZEE

81
Q

33 degrees C

A

Rhinovirus

82
Q

Hand-foot-and-mouth disease

A

Coxsackie A

83
Q

Non-bloody diarrhea

A

Rotavirus

84
Q

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

Starts with vision probs

A

JC virus

85
Q

Slapped cheek syndrome

A

parvovirus B19

86
Q

What genes does HPV transform? What does this block?

A

E6 and E7; blocks tumor suppressors p53 and pRb

87
Q

Protects against HPV 6, 11, 16, 18

A

gardasil

88
Q

conjunctivitis

A

adenoviruses

89
Q

Acyclovir

A

Herpes

90
Q

Temporal lobe encephalitis

A

HSV-1 in adults; HSV-2 in infants

91
Q

Owl’s eye intranuclear inclusion bodies, giant cells

A

CMV

92
Q

Ganciclovir

A

CMV (not acyclovir bc no viral thymidine kinase)

93
Q

thymidine kinase

A

acyclovir

94
Q

heterophile antibody

A

EBV

95
Q

Treat with interferon alpha

A

Hep B

96
Q

Voriconazole

A

Aspergillosis

97
Q

lanosterol 14-alpha demethylase

A

azoles

98
Q

Inhibit squalene epoxidase

A

allylamines

99
Q

allylamines

A

dermatophyte infection

100
Q

Used with AmpB for cryptococcal meningitis

A

Flucytosine

101
Q

Flucytosine

A

inhibits DNA/RNA synth

102
Q

inhibits Beta-glucan synthesis

A

echinocandins

103
Q

polyenes

A

nystatin

amphotericin B

104
Q

nephrotoxicity

A

AmpB

105
Q

spongiform encephalopathy

A

prions

106
Q

diethylcarbazamine

A

Wuchereria bancrofti

107
Q

Tonic paralysis of musculature

Activates Glutamate coupled Cl- channels

A

Ivermectin

108
Q

Swollen scrotum

A

Wuchereria bancrofti

109
Q

skin nodules, blindness

A

Onchocerca volvulus

110
Q

string test, larva in stool

A

strongyloides stercoralis

111
Q

eosinophilia

A 
strongyloides
trichinella spiralis
ancyclostoma duodenale
ascaris lumbricoides
schistosoma
taenia solium
112
Q

encysted larva, striated muscle

A

Trichinella spiralis

113
Q

How do you get strongyloides?

A

step on poop

114
Q

black fly

A

Onchocerca volvulus

115
Q

penetrate the feets

A

strongyloides

hookworms

116
Q

itchy itchy from cat and dog hookworms

A

cutaneous larva migrans

117
Q

iron supplement

A

hookworms

118
Q

itchy butt

A

pinworms (enterobius vermicularis)

119
Q

blebbed egg

flattened egg with spikes!

A

schistosoma

120
Q

Big old worm in the stool (Dr. Hunter had this)

A

Ascaris lumbricoides

121
Q

cyst in brain, dog owner

A

echinococcus granulosus

122
Q

praziquantel

A

schistosoma

taenia solium larva

123
Q

proglottids in stool

A

taenia saginata/solium

124
Q

cercarea, snails, water

A

schistosoma

125
Q

larva swimming in the vitreous humor of the eyeball

A

cysticercosis

taenia solium larva

126
Q

can exist as trophozoites and cysts

A

protozoa

127
Q

P. vivax/ovale dormant liver infections

A

primaquine (extraerythrocytic)

128
Q

Schizont

A

malaria inside RBCs

129
Q

tsetse fly

A

Trypanosoma gambiense/rhodesiense

130
Q

suramin

A

trypanosomes

interferes with lots of enzymes (esp for energy)

131
Q

nifurtimox

A

oxidative damage to DNA

Chagas disease

132
Q

sand fly

A

Leishmaniasis

133
Q

only flagellate protozoa with no cyst form

A

trichomonas vaginalis

134
Q

WATERY diarrhea caused by protozoa

A

cryptosporidium parvum

135
Q

Winterbottom’s sign

A

Trypanosoma gambiense/rhodesiense

136
Q

na stibogluconate

A

leishmaniasis

137
Q

FATTY foul-smelling diarrhea caused by protozoa

A

giardia

138
Q

BLOODY diarrhea caused by protoza

A

entamoeba histolytica

139
Q

sporulated oocyst

A

cryptosporidium parvum

140
Q

blocks fumarate reductase (enzyme specific to helminths)

A

thiabendazole

141
Q

Ca+ influx causes muscle contraction

A

praziquantel

142
Q

for chloroquine-resistant P. falciparum?

A

pyrimethamine-sulfadoxine

143
Q

lung and liver fluke infections

A

bithionol

144
Q

inhibits PABA to DHF

A

sulfadoxine

145
Q

can cause hemolytic anemia

A

chloroquine

primaquine

146
Q

inhibits DHF to THF

A

pyrimethamine

147
Q

binds to DNA, damages mitochondria, inhibits protein synthesis

A

Primaquine

148
Q

microsporum, trichophyton, epidermophyton

A

dermatophytes (tinea)

149
Q

spherules in lungs, SW US

A

Coccidioides immitis

150
Q

bat droppings

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

151
Q

cysts with dark oval bodies

A

Pneumocystis jerovecii

152
Q

tuberculate macroconidia

A

histoplasma capsulatum

153
Q

India ink stain, encapsulated yeast

A

cryptococcus neoformans

154
Q

pigeon droppings

A

cryptococcus neoformans

155
Q

pentamidine

A

pneumocystis pneumonia

156
Q

coencytic hyphae, sporangium with sporangiospores

A

mucormycoses

157
Q

branching septate hyphae, condia with spherical conidial heads

A

aspergillus

158
Q

hyphae + pseudohyphae

A

candida

159
Q

candicidin

A

vaginal candidiasis

Block 6 Week 5 (11 decks)

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