Full Section 3

Question 1

Muscle spindles

Answer 1

Sensory receptors sensitive to change in length of the muscle and the
rate of that change.

Question 2

Golgi tendon organ

Answer 2

A specialized sensory receptor located at the point where skeletal
muscle fibers insert into the tendons of skeletal muscle; sensitive to
changes in muscular tension and rate of tension change.

Question 3

3 Stages of Motor Development

Answer 3

• During stage 1 (cognitive), you may need to use simple instructions and break down the skill into smaller steps so your clients will be
  able to understand the goals of the movement.
• During stage 2 (associative), you may need to help refine your
  clients’ skills through practice and regular feedback.
• During stage 3 (autonomous), you may be able to teach your clients
  new versions of the skill to further challenge them.

Question 4

Osteokinematic

Answer 4

Bone movement

Question 5

Arthrokinematic

Answer 5

Movement at the joint surface

Question 6

Synovial joints

Answer 6

Unique with a synovial capsule containing other connective tissue, such as ligaments + fascia that provide support.

Question 7

Synovial joints

Answer 7

Gliding (plane), condyloid, hinge, saddle, pivot, + ball-and-socket joints

Question 8

Skeletal system

Answer 8

A description of the bones of the body. 206 bones with 177 are used in voluntary movement.

Question 9

Axial skeleton

Answer 9

A division of the skeletal system consisting of the skull, rib cage, + vertebral column. Approximately 80 bones in the axial skeleton.

Question 10

Appendicular Skeleton

Answer 10

A division of the skeletal system consisting of the arms, legs, + pelvic girdle. Encompasses approximately 126 bones.

Question 11

Remodeling

Answer 11

Process by which bone is constantly renewed by the resorption + formation of the bone structure.

Question 12

Osteoclasts

Answer 12

Special cells that break down + remove old bone tissue

Question 13

Osteoblasts

Answer 13

Special cells that form + lay down new bone tissue

Question 14

Long bones

Answer 14

Long, cylindrical shaft w/irregular or widened ends.

• Humerus (i.e., the upper arm bone)
• Femur (i.e., the thigh bone)

Question 15

Short bones

Answer 15

Similar in length + width + appear somewhat cubical in shape

• Carpals of the wrist
• Tarsals of the ankle

Question 16

Flat bones

Answer 16

Thin, protective surfaces that provide broad surfaces for muscles to attach.

• Scapulae (i.e., the shoulder blades)
• Sternum (i.e., the breast plate)
• Ribs

Question 17

Irregular bones

Answer 17

Unique shape + function from all other bone types

• Vertebrae (i.e., spinal column)

Question 18

Sesamoid bones

Answer 18

Small, often round bones embedded in a joint capsule found in locations where a tendon passes over a joint.

Question 19

Depressions

Answer 19

Flattened or indented portions of bone

Question 20

Processes

Answer 20

Projections protruding from the bone where tendons + ligaments can attach.

Question 21

According to current research, what is the optimal range of daily protein intake to maximize muscle protein synthesis?

Answer 21

1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight

Question 22

Which component of blood is primarily responsible for clotting mechanisms?

Answer 22

Platelets contain clotting factors and are responsible for blood clotting, which is needed for healing after an injury.

Question 23

During the course of a training session, a client remarks that he is “cutting out all carbs” from his diet and just eating protein and vegetables to lose weight. How might you best respond to this, while staying within your scope of practice as a fitness professional?

Answer 23

Carbohydrates are an important source of fuel for our body, and it is unnecessary to avoid them for weight loss. Cutting carbs may lead to inadequate fuel for optimal training, which can compromise weight-loss efforts.

Question 24

A client asks you how she could lose fat as quickly as possible for a beach vacation next weekend. Which of the following is the best way to respond to her question?

Answer 24

Explain that fat loss takes time and is best achieved with a moderate calorie deficit sustained over a period of time. Rapid weight loss usually results in loss of water weight and lean muscle mass, and it is not advisable.

Question 25

In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur?

Answer 25

Sagittal

Question 26

Which of the following solutions would allow an individual to achieve a greater depth during the lowering phase of the squat if ankle stiffness is the cause?

Answer 26

Limited ankle dorsi-flexion, as a result of ankle stiffness, may limit the depth of a squat during the lowering phase. This can be addressed through stretching of the plantar flexor muscle and may be accommodated during a squat by placing a small weight or board under the heels.

Question 27

How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described?

Answer 27

A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted?

Question 28

What is the purpose of the Current Good Manufacturing Practices?

Answer 28

To provide guidelines to help ensure quality and purity of products?

Question 29

Pronation of the foot describes what multi-planar movements?

Answer 29

Pronation of the foot includes eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction.

Question 30

What term is used to describe muscle tension that is created without a change in muscle length and no visible movement of the joint?

Answer 30

During an isometric muscle contraction, muscle tension is created without a change in length and with no visible movement of the joint.

Question 31

Which substrate provides nearly all the energy for activity at and above VT2?

Answer 31

Glucose via glycolysis provides most of the energy for high-intensity exercise.

Question 32

Which of the following would be an example of nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT)?

Answer 32

NEAT is the calories burned through activities that are not structured exercise. (House Cleaning)

Question 33

Which heart chamber receives deoxygenated blood and pumps it to the lungs?

Answer 33

The right ventricle receives deoxygenated blood from the right atrium and pumps it to the lungs.

Question 34

Which of the following is true about the biologically active forms of vitamins?

Answer 34

Biologically active forms are most effective for augmenting body levels. Active forms of vitamins are more efficient.

Question 35

Where in the digestive system are most fluids absorbed?

Answer 35

Absorption occurs in the small and large intestines; however, most of the fluid absorption occurs in the small intestine.

Question 36

Which of the following muscles are responsible for normal resting state (quiet) breathing?

Answer 36

Normal quiet inspiration uses the diaphragm primarily; whereas, secondary muscles such as scalenes are responsible for heavy breathing, and the abdominals and internal intercostals are responsible for expiration.

Question 37

What best describes an essential amino acid?

Answer 37

An amino acid that must be obtained via diet, as it is not produced by the body

Question 38

Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat?

Answer 38

Having more mitochondria in their muscle

Fat is broken down in the mitochondria, so having more mitochondria in the muscle can enable a person to oxidize more fat

Question 39

Which of the following nutrition topics are within the scope of practice for a Certified Personal Trainer?

Answer 39

Fitness professionals are authorized to provide clients with general nutrition guidelines and direct them to credible nutrition resources for additional information.

Question 40

What are the two components of the central nervous system?

Answer 40

The central nervous system contains the brain and the spinal cord. All the other answer choices are parts of the peripheral nervous system.

Question 41

What is the primary muscle type of the heart?

Answer 41

The heart is composed of cardiac muscle.

Question 42

Which of the following is the best example of a complete protein source?

Answer 42

Milk is an animal protein and provides all the essential amino acids, so it is considered a complete protein.

Question 43

Sagittal

Answer 43

The sagittal plane is described as an imaginary line that bisects the body into right and left sides.

Question 44

What type of vessel is responsible for carrying blood back to the heart?

Answer 44

Arteries carry blood away from the heart and transition to arterioles (small arteries), which are connected to venules (small veins) by capillaries. From there, via veins, blood is transported back to the heart.

Question 45

At what age is total peak bone mass reached?

Answer 45

30?

Question 46

When glucose is broken down via glycolysis, what molecule is created that could also be oxidized under aerobic conditions?

Answer 46

2 carbon molecules of pyruvate

Question 47

In which of the following pairs are both foods considered to be allergens?

Answer 47

Both dairy and shellfish are considered to be allergens, as are soy, wheat, egg, peanuts, tree nuts, and fish.

Question 48

What is the most appropriate response from a Certified Personal Trainer if a client insists on using a steroid or other harmful substance?

Answer 48

In these situations, it is important to say “no” and refer out when necessary.

Question 49

What are the three branched chain amino acids (BCAAs)?

Answer 49

These also make up three of the nine essential amino acids.

Question 50

Which of the following vitamins or groups of vitamins plays a key role in energy metabolism?

Answer 50

Most of the B vitamins (e.g., B12, folate, niacin, pantothenic acid, riboflavin, and thiamin) play a role in energy metabolism.

Question 51

What is the definition of energy balance?

Answer 51

Energy balance is defined as a state in which total caloric intake from all sources is matched to the daily energy needs of the body.

When daily food intake is matched to energy needs

Question 52

What type of input may provide a runner with a cue to contract the evertor muscles to avoid an inversion injury?

Answer 52

Proprioception uses information from the mechanoreceptors (i.e., muscle spindles, Golgi tendon organs, and joint receptors) to provide information about body position, movement, and sensation as it pertains to muscle and joint force.

Question 53

What anatomical term is used to describe something that is relatively closer to the mid-line of the body?

Answer 53

Medial is the anatomical term that describes something that is relatively closer to the mid-line of the body.

Question 54

Iodine has a major role in which bodily process?

Answer 54

Iodine helps form the thyroid hormones. It is often added to table salt.

Question 55

In order to optimally load muscle during the eccentric phase, the fitness professional should recommend which of the following?

Answer 55

Lower the weight faster to reduce time under tension?

Question 56

When a person loses body weight, what is the only way that mass is lost?

Answer 56

As metabolism converts food and stored tissue to ATP, carbon dioxide is formed as the main waste product. The body then exhales that CO2, and the energy once contained in stored body mass is released back into the environment within the CO2’s molecular bonds.

Question 57

The pancreas secretes which of the following hormones?

Answer 57

secretes both insulin and glucagon.

Question 58

The pathway for hormones secreted by the endocrine system may be described by which of the following?

Answer 58

The gland secretes the hormone, which travels through the bloodstream to reach a target cell, where it binds to a receptor and influences a particular action.

The endocrine system consists of host organs, which secrete a hormone that is then transported to a target cell or organ via the bloodstream.

Question 59

During normal walking, the pelvis rotates in what plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase?

Answer 59

Normal walking and running, the pelvis rotates in the transverse plane to facilitate the necessary momentum for the swing phase of gait, where leg and thigh are advanced forward.

Question 60

Calcium is of principal importance for what?

Answer 60

The vast majority of calcium in the body is found in our bones.

Question 61

Food in the stomach is processed and then passes into what anatomical structure?

Answer 61

Once the food in the stomach is thoroughly digested, contractions from the stomach push it through a valve (i.e., the pyloric sphincter) into the duodenum of the small intestine.

Duodenum of the small intestine

Question 62

Where in the heart is the sinoatrial node located?

Answer 62

The sinoatrial node is located in the right atrium, where it initiates the electrical signal that causes the heart to beat.

Question 63

What is a characteristic of a type II muscle fiber?

Answer 63

Type II fibers are primarily used for movements requiring both speed and power.

Question 64

How many Essential Amino Acids (EAAs) are there?

Answer 64

The nine essential amino acids must be obtained in the diet.

Question 65

Which of the following components of total daily energy expenditure (TDEE) is responsible for the most energy expenditure throughout the day?

Answer 65

Resting Metabolic Rate (RMR) is responsible for around 60-75% of total daily energy expenditure.

Question 66

Which of the following protein structures is important for muscular contractions by providing a binding site?

Answer 66

Troponin

Question 67

Which of the following blood pressure values would be classified as normal according to the American Heart Association?

Answer 67

According to the American Heart Association, a systolic reading less than 120 and a diastolic less than 80 is considered normal.

Question 68

Which of the following is the functional unit of a muscle cell?

Answer 68

the physical site where muscle contractions occur.

Question 69

Which term describes the movement of bones, such as flexion and extension?

Answer 69

the description of bone movement (e.g., flexion and extension).

Question 70

What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system?

Answer 70

peripheral nervous system (PNS) consists of nerves that connect the CNS to the rest of the body and the external environment.

Question 71

A client asks you how she could lose fat as quickly as possible for a beach vacation next weekend. Which of the following is the best way to respond to her question?

Answer 71

Explain to the client that fat loss takes time and is best achieved with a moderate calorie deficit sustained over a period of time. Rapid weight loss is usually due to loss of water weight and lean muscle mass, and this can compromise weight maintenance in the future.

Question 72

Action

Answer 72

People in this stage have been exercising but for less than 6 months.

Question 73

A Certified Personal Trainer has been listening to a client’s goals. After the client is done speaking, the trainer restates the goals back to the client. What best describes the approach the trainer is using?

Answer 73

Reflective listening involves restating what the client has said in order to truly understand what they mean.

Question 74

Which subtopic of psychology deals with how the environment affects exercise behavior?

Answer 74

Sport and exercise psychology focuses on aspects such as understanding participants’ motives and barriers to physical activity, ways the environment affects exercise behavior, social influences on exercise, psychological benefits of exercise, and the psychological factors that affect long-term exercise adherence.

Question 75

Which type of support describes the actions that a person takes to help another person engage in exercise?

Answer 75

Instrumental?

Question 75

Individuals in this stage of change may sporadically engage in physical activity but without any form, structure, or consistency.

Answer 75

Preparation - may exercise here and there, but they are not consistent.

Question 76

Which of the following most closely resembles a SMART goal?

Answer 76

This goal is specific, measurable, attainable, realistic, and timely.

• I want to lose 20 pounds over the next 8 months

Question 77

Which communication technique allows the fitness professional to show appreciation of a client’s strengths?

Answer 77

Affirmations are positive statements about a client’s character strengths.

Question 78

At which stage of change are self-efficacy levels generally the highest?

Answer 78

Maintenance -

These individuals generally have the highest self-efficacy, as they have been engaging in the behavior for over 6 months.

Question 79

When a client makes a statement that supports their current behavior, what is this called?

Answer 79

Sustain talk is when a client argues for the status quo.

Question 80

Extrinsic motivation is characterized by which of the following?

Answer 80

Centered around rewards and recognition. It relies on looking forward to something if a specific behavior is achieved.

Question 81

Social support is best described by which statement?

Answer 81

Social support refers to the intentional actions taken by people to assist others in achieving a specific behavior.

Question 82

What is the correct order of the Stages of Change?

Answer 82

People move from pre-contemplation to contemplation to preparation to action and then to maintenance.

Question 83

When a client makes a plan, such as, “When I am done with work, I will run for 30 minutes,” what are they doing?

Answer 83

Implementation intentions link goal-directed behaviors with good opportunities to act.

Question 84

Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support?

Answer 84

Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities

Question 85

At the beginning of an exercise session, a client has shared that they are in a bad mood and would rather skip the session. Which of the following observations should the fitness professional share with the client?

Answer 85

Exercise is known to improve mood, even with bouts as short as 10 minutes, so exercise is a good remedy.

Question 86

The intensity and direction of someone’s effort describes which of the following?

Answer 86

Motivation refers to the intensity and direction of someone’s effort.

Question 87

Which of the following is a question that may provoke resistance?

Answer 87

This question may lead the person to defend the status quo.

What don’t you want to change?

Question 88

A benefit of being part of an exercise group includes comradery, which is described by which of the following statements?

Answer 88

Comradery is about forming connections with people, which can be done through an exercise group

Participants are forming connections with people who are attempting to achieve similar results, while experiencing feelings of friendship, closeness, and loyalty.

Question 89

A Certified Personal Trainer is speaking with a client who is not currently doing any consistent aerobic training. They ask how ready the client is to do aerobic training once a week for 30 minutes, using a scale of 1 to 10, with 1 representing “not at all ready” and 10 representing “completely ready.” If the client is at a 9, what stage of change are they in?

Answer 89

This person has done some aerobic training here and there, but not consistently, and they are ready to change.

Preparation

Question 90

A Certified Personal Trainer asks a client who is not currently doing any aerobic training how ready they are to do aerobic training one time per week for 30 minutes using a scale of 1 through 10, with 1 representing not at all ready and 10 representing completely ready. They say they are at a 1; what stage of change are they in?

Answer 90

This person does not do any aerobic training and is not ready to do so; therefore, they are in the pre-contemplation stage.

Question 91

If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client make an action plan to enhance their confidence that they can exercise on their own, what determinant of behavior are they targeting?

Answer 91

Self-efficacy refers to confidence to perform a given behavior.

Question 92

What is a client-centric coaching style that helps enhance their desire to change by resolving ambivalence?

Answer 92

The purpose of motivational interviewing is to help clients resolve ambivalence.

Question 93

In a group exercise setting within a fitness facility, which person should greet all members, make everyone feel welcome, and ensure that participants have the right equipment and attire to participate safely?

Answer 93

Certified personal trainer

Question 94

Loaning some exercise bands to a client who is scheduled to go on vacation is an example of which type of social support?

Answer 94

Providing someone with workout bands is a tangible way to support their exercise behavior, and it is considered an example of instrumental support.

Question 95

A client has been journaling their behavior. They find that if they get home and sit on the couch to watch television, they do not end up exercising. But if they bring their gym clothes to work with them and change before leaving the office, they are more likely to exercise. Which behavior change technique are they using?

Answer 95

Coping planning?

Question 96

The role of psychology in fitness and wellness is strongly rooted in which area?

Answer 96

One of the most important things about psychology and its relationship with fitness and wellness is the role it plays in the behavioral change process.

Question 97

Not having someone to exercise with would be an example of which type of barrier?

Answer 97

Not having someone to exercise with is an example of lacking social support.

Question 98

When it comes to exercise, older adults find which of the following to be the most motivating?

Answer 98

Being a part of a social group

Question 99

When family members are not supportive of exercise-related behaviors, it can be viewed as which of the following?

Answer 99

If family members are not supportive of exercise behavior, it can become a significant barrier.

Question 100

A known relationship between sleep and exercise is demonstrated by which statement?

Answer 100

Increasing physical activity to at least 150 minutes per week at a moderate intensity can decrease symptoms of insomnia

Question 101

A client has thoughts that they cannot exercise on their own, that they look silly doing it, and that other people are watching them. They believe these thoughts to be true. What is occurring?

Answer 101

Stopping?

Question 102

Which barrier is most often cited as a top barrier among most individuals?

Answer 102

Lack of time is often cited as a top barrier to exercise.

Question 103

A client is asked to record what exercises they perform, how much they eat, and how much they sleep. Which of these strategies is the client using?

Answer 103

Self monitoring - This is a technique used to help a client record specific behaviors, which helps enhance adherence.

Question 104

What stage of change is a person in if they are planning to begin exercising soon and have taken steps toward it?

Answer 104

People in this stage are getting prepared to exercise and may even be doing so sporadically.

Question 105

Which of the following is an example of a client’s intrinsic motivation for exercise?

Answer 105

Intrinsic motivation is characterized by enjoyment and fun.

Question 106

Which type of professionals are qualified to counsel individuals who are diagnosed with depression, using exercise as a supplemental treatment?

Answer 106

A psychologist or psychiatrist is qualified to counsel individuals diagnosed with depression.

Question 107

What stage of change is a person in if they are not planning on exercising within the next 6 months?

Answer 107

Precontemplation refers to not planning to exercise within the next 6 months.

Question 108

Which of the following is a question that may provoke resistance?

Answer 108

What makes you think you are not at risk?

Question 109

Unrealistic goals can become a barrier when which of the following happens?

Answer 109

If goals are not realistic, then they should be adjusted.

Question 110

A client who has been training for 6 months has recently moved farther from the fitness facility. Which barrier should she be preparing to overcome?

Answer 110

Living farther from a fitness facility can make exercise less convenient.

Question 111

Which of the following describes attitude?

Answer 111

The degree to which a person has a favorable or unfavorable evaluation of a behavior

Question 112

Social physique anxiety is best defined by which statement?

Answer 112

Someone with social physique anxiety has anxiety about their physical appearance or is insecure about how they look to others or how they believe others perceive their body.

When someone feels insecure about how they think others are viewing their body

Question 113

Which source of social support for exercise is the most influential for children and adolescents?

Answer 113

Parents

Question 114

Which leadership component refers to the leader being a great example for how to live a healthy and balanced life, which includes being optimistic, empathetic, and knowledgeable?

Answer 114

Leader’s qualities

These are qualities of the leader. The leader should offer a great example in how to lead a healthy and balanced life, which includes being optimistic, empathetic, and knowledgeable.

Question 115

Empathy is best described as?

Answer 115

Empathy is defined as the ability to identify with another person’s feelings, attitudes, or thoughts.

Question 116

A client is asked, “Why do you want to lose weight?” This is an example of what kind of question?

Answer 116

An open-ended question allows a client to give more information.

Question 117

Changing leadership style based on the size of a group would be an example of which component of leadership?

Answer 117

Situational factors dictate if the approach to leadership should be adjusted.

Question 118

Having an informal role in an exercise group is demonstrated by which example?

Answer 118

Informal roles may include inspiring the group, providing mentorship to new members, or planning social gatherings.

Question 119

What type of imagery involves focusing on exercise form?

Answer 119

Technique imagery involves focusing on form.

Question 120

Research has demonstrated that moderate-intensity exercise is best for which of the following?

Answer 120

Most psychological benefits are realized with moderate-intensity exercise.

Question 121

Mortality

Answer 121

A state or a risk of death or dying

Question 122

Morbidity

Answer 122

The state of having a disease

Question 123

HIIT High-intensity interval training

Answer 123

An exercise training method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity broken up by relatively short rest periods.

Question 124

De-conditioned

Answer 124

A state of lost physical fitness, which may include muscle imbalances, decreased flexibility, and a lack of core and joint stability.

Question 125

Health risk assessment (HRA)

Answer 125

A screening tool used to evaluate the benefits and the risks associated with starting any type of exercise that is strenuous in nature.

Question 126

Contraindication

Answer 126

A specific situation where a medication, procedure, or exercise should be avoided because it may prove to be harmful to the individual.

Question 127

Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)

Answer 127

A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual’s physical readiness to engage in structured exercise.

Question 128

False-positive screenings

Answer 128

A screening where the results of the health risk assessment might indicate a need for medical clearance, when one is in fact not needed.

Question 129

Health history questionnaire (HHQ)

Answer 129

A questionnaire with lists of questions that pertain to health history and habits, such as exercise history, eating behaviors, and general lifestyle.

Question 130

Exercise habits

Answer 130

length of time (i.e., history), the nature or type, frequency, duration, and intensity

Question 131

Injury types & what it means

Answer 131

Ankle sprains. These have been shown to decrease muscle activation of the gluteus medius and gluteus maximus muscles. In turn, this can lead to poor control of the lower extremities during many functional activities, which can eventually lead to injury (Bullock-Saxton, 1994; Friel et al., 2006).
Knee injuries involving ligaments. A knee injury can cause a decrease in activation to muscles that stabilize the patella (kneecap) and lead to further injury. Noncontact knee injuries are often the result of ankle or hip dysfunction because the knee is caught between the ankle and the hip. If the ankle or hip joint begins to function improperly, this results in altered movement and force distribution of the knee. Over time, this can lead to further injury (Fong et al., 2011; Shultz et al., 2015).
Low-back injuries. These injuries can cause decreased activation to stabilizing muscles of the core, resulting in poor stabilization of the spine. This can further lead to dysfunction and pain (Hides et al., 2011; Stuber et al., 2014).
Shoulder injuries. These injuries cause altered muscle activation of the rotator cuff muscles, which can lead to instability of the shoulder joint during functional activities (Gombera & Sekiya, 2014; Yanagawa et al., 2008).
Other injuries. Additional injuries can include (but are not limited to) repetitive hamstring strains, groin strains, patellar tendonitis (jumper’s knee), plantar fasciitis (pain in the heel and bottom of the foot), shin splints, biceps tendonitis (shoulder pain), and headaches.

Question 132

Which screening tool is used to evaluate the benefits and risks associated with starting any type of exercise that is strenuous in nature?

Answer 132

Health Risk Assessment

Question 133

Which of the following health indicators is reflected in the PAR-Q+ and pre-participation process?

Answer 133

Desired exercise intensity

Question 134

Resting heart rate (RHR)

Answer 134

The number of heart beats per minute while at complete rest.

Question 135

Thermoregulation

Answer 135

The physiological process by which the body maintains a relatively constant internal body temperature, including events like sweating to cool the body and shivering to warm the body

Question 136

Peripheral Vasodilation

Answer 136

The action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body

Question 137

TRUE OR FALSE? Fitness assessments that do not require physical exertion (such as the measurement of RHR, blood pressure, or body composition) should always be conducted after more vigorous fitness assessments (such as those that measure aerobic fitness, strength, or power output).

Answer 137

False

Question 138

What term is used to describe the physiological process by which the body maintains a relatively constant internal temperature?

Answer 138

Thermo-regulation

Question 139

Heart Rate (HR)

Answer 139

The measurement of the number of times a heart beats within a specified time period (usually 1 minute).

Question 140

Blood Pressure (BP)

Answer 140

The outward pressure exerted by the blood on the vessel walls; reported as systolic/diastolic.

Question 141

Systolic Blood Pressure (SBP)

Answer 141

The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded.

Question 142

Diastolic Blood Pressure (DBP)

Answer 142

The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when heart is at rest or between beats; the second (bottom) number recorded.

Question 143

Arterial system

Answer 143

The system of arteries carrying blood away from the heart.

Question 144

Brachial artery

Answer 144

The primary artery of the upper arm, which is often used as a site for measuring blood pressure.

Question 145

Systolic Blood Pressure (SBP)

Answer 145

The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting

Question 146

Diastolic blood pressure

Answer 146

The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is at rest or between beats

Question 147

Blood pressure

Answer 147

The outward pressure exerted by the blood on the vessel walls

Question 148

Why does NASM recommend fitness professionals measure resting heart rate (RHR) at the radial pulse versus the carotid pulse?

Answer 148

The vagus nerve lies adjacent to the carotid artery, and pressure on this nerve can slow a client’s heart rate response.

Question 149

Anthropometry

Answer 149

The field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion.

Question 150

Body Mass Index (BMI)

Answer 150

The measurement of a person’s weight relative to his or her height, which is used to estimate the risks of obesity.

Question 151

Circumference measurement

Answer 151

The measurement that determines the overall dimension (girth) of a body segment, which can be used to estimate body composition or the prevalence of obesity.

Question 152

BMI measurements

Answer 152

Metric formula: BMI = weight (kg) ÷ [height (m)]2
Imperial formula: BMI = 703 × weight (lb) ÷ [height (in.)]2

Question 153

Calculating BMI score example

Answer 153

Calculate Mary’s BMI score using either formula if she currently weighs 160 lb (72.57 kg) and stands 5 ft 7 in. or 67 in. (1.70 m).

Answer: BMI = 25.1

The lowest risk for disease lies within a BMI range of 22 to 24.9

Question 154

BMI classification

Answer 154

<18.5

Increased

Underweight

18.5–24.9

Low

Healthy weight

25.0–29.9

Increased

Overweight

30.0–34.9

High

Obese

35.0–39.9

Very high

Obesity II

≥40.0

Extremely high

Obesity III

Question 155

Waist circumference

Answer 155

A measurement that represents the narrowest circumference taken around the mid-line of the body at the approximate height of the umbilicus (belly button).

Question 156

Waist-to-hip ratio (WHR)

Answer 156

The relative score expressing the ratio of the waist circumference to the hip circumference, which correlates to the risk for developing cardiovascular disease.

Question 157

Gluteal fold

Answer 157

The area where the fold of the buttocks joins the back of the thigh.

Question 158

Circumference measurement sites

Answer 158

Site

Description of Location

Image

Neck

Measure just below the larynx (across the Adam’s apple for men).

Question 159

Chest

Answer 159

Chest

Measure across the fullest part of chest.

Question 160

waist

Answer 160

Measure at the narrowest point of the waist, below the rib cage and just above the top of the hipbones. If there is no apparent narrowing of the waist, measure at the navel.

Question 161

Hips

Answer 161

With feet together, measure circumference at the widest portion of the buttocks.

Question 162

Hips

Answer 162

With feet together, measure circumference at the widest portion of the buttocks.

Question 163

Thigh

Answer 163

While standing, legs 10 cm (4 in.) apart, measure the largest circumference immediately below the gluteal fold.

Question 164

Calves

Answer 164

Measure the calf at its fullest part, taken between the ankle and the knee.

Question 165

Arm

Answer 165

Measure the upper arm at its fullest part, taken at midpoint between the shoulder and elbow.

Question 166

Skinfold measurements

Answer 166

A technique used to estimate body fat in which calipers are used to pinch the skin in certain areas of the body.

Question 167

Jackson + Pollock 7-site protocol

Answer 167

Measures the thickness of skin-folds at seven different places within the body to estimate body fat percentage.

Question 168

Jackson + Pollock 3-site protocol

Answer 168

Measures the thickness of skinfolds at three different places within the body to estimate body fat percentage.

Question 169

Four-site Durnin - Womersley protocol

Answer 169

Measures the thickness of skinfolds at four different places (biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac) within the body to estimate body fat percentage.

Question 170

Bioelectrical Impedance analysis

Answer 170

A body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body.

Question 171

Archimedes’ principle

Answer 171

The assumption stating that the volume of fluid displaced is equivalent to the volume of an object fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the volume below the surface.

Question 172

What is the field of study of the measurement of living humans for purposes of understanding human physical variation in size, weight, and proportion?

Answer 172

Anthropometry

Question 173

Which of the following represents the measurement of a person’s weight relative to their height?

Answer 173

Body mass index BMI

Question 174

Which principle assumes that the volume of fluid displaced by an object is equivalent to the volume of the object fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the volume below the surface?

Answer 174

Archimedes’ principle

Question 175

Cardio-respiratory fitness

Answer 175

The ability of the circulatory and respiratory systems to provide the body with oxygen during activity.

Question 176

Cardio-respiratory assessments

Answer 176

Protocols intended to measure the aerobic fitness of an individual.

Question 177

Mitochondria

Answer 177

The part of the cell that uses nutrients to create energy for the cell; commonly known as the powerhouse of the cell.

Question 178

YMCA 3-minute step test

Answer 178

An aerobic test that measures the cardiovascular fitness of an individual based on a 3-minute bout of stair-stepping at a specific cadence.

Question 179

Recovery heart rate (RHR)

Answer 179

The number of heartbeats measured after exercise ceases, which provides some indication of an individual’s fitness level (i.e., more conditioned people recover more rapidly).

Question 180

It reflects the body’s ability to deliver oxygen to the exercising muscles and use it in mitochondria to manufacture energy aerobically.

Answer 180

A higher VO2max score reflects greater oxygen utilization and a greater capacity for physical work.
VO2max usually peaks at around ages 25 years to the early 30s, but it is highly trainable,implying that an active person in their 40s could have a higher VO2max than during their sedentary 20s.
VO2max decreases by approximately 5% per decade in fit individuals (an average of 0.5% per year) and around 10% per decade in unfit individuals (an average of 1.0% per year) (Kenney et al., 2015).

Question 181

YMCA 3-minute step test

Answer 181

a cardio-respiratory assessment that assesses the aerobic fitness of de-conditioned clients by having them complete 3 minutes of continuous stepping on and off a 12-in. (30-cm) box

Question 182

3-mintue step test Instructions

Answer 182

Briefly discuss the protocol, answer all questions satisfactorily, and allow adequate warm-up, stretching, and recovery prior to conducting the test.
Ensure that proper athletic footwear is worn for the test.
Terminate the test if the individual experiences any symptoms of light-headedness, dizziness, chest pain, or excessive shortness of breath.
The client will perform 96 steps per minute. Fitness professionals can demonstrate proper step cadence by setting a metronome to 96 “clicks” per minute and allow practice trials. If the fitness professional does not have access to a metronome, they can state out loud, “up, up, down, down” to help keep the correct cadence.
Begin the 3-minute test and maintain cadence throughout the test.
After completing the test, the individual sits while the fitness professional quickly palpates the radial pulse (within 5 seconds) and measures the number of heartbeats over the ensuing 60 seconds.
Count starts at zero.
The individual should lightly paddle feet to maintain circulation.
Allow for a proper cool-down following data collection.

Question 183

Test interpretation

Answer 183

Once the 60-second HR count is collected, the individual’s fitness level can be categorized

Question 184

Rockport walk test

Answer 184

An aerobic test for de-conditioned individuals or those of low fitness levels in which they are instructed to walk as fast as possible and have their pulse taken immediately after completing 1 mile.

Question 185

1.5 mile (2.4 km) - run test

Answer 185

An aerobic test that measures cardio-respiratory endurance by having the participant cover the distance of 1.5 miles in as short a time as possible.

Question 186

Talk test

Answer 186

An aerobic test that measures the participant’s ability to talk or hold a conversation during an activity at various intensity levels.

an informal cardio-respiratory assessment used to gauge the intensity of the activity based on the client’s own unique metabolic markers and ability to hold a conversation.

Question 187

Ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)

Answer 187

The point at which the body uses an equal mix of carbohydrate and fat as fuel sources.

Question 188

Steady-state (SS) - heart rate

Answer 188

Any stage at which the physiological response of heart rate from the cardiovascular system becomes relatively constant in relation to the amount of work being performed (i.e., the heart rate response matches the level of work being performed).

Question 189

Ventilatory threshold 2 (VT2)

Answer 189

The point where glucose provides nearly all of the energy for the activity.

Question 190

Anaerobic energy - systems

Answer 190

Energy systems used to perform work in which glycogen is converted to glucose and oxygen is insufficient to break down pyruvate and create adenosine triphosphate.

Question 191

VT2

Answer 191

This measurement (VT2) is a critical measurement of athletic performance, because the intensity immediately below this level represents the exercise pace that an endurance athlete can sustain throughout their race or training to attain their best performance.

Question 192

VT2 Test

Answer 192

As an example, Amy starts her test at 8.5 mph, then adjusts it to 8.8 mph within the first 3 minutes and sustains this pace for the remainder of the run. Her heart rate responses are as follows:

Minute 16: HR = 176 bpm
Minute 17: HR = 178 bpm
Minute 18: HR = 177 bpm
Minute 19: HR = 179 bpm
Minute 20: HR = 179 bpm

Question 193

What is the most valid measurement of aerobic fitness?

Answer 193

VO2max

Question 194

Which of the following is the part of the cell that uses nutrients to create energy for the cell?

Answer 194

Mitochondrion

Question 195

What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)?

Answer 195

A screening tool used to evaluate the benefits and the risks associated with starting any type of exercise that is strenuous in nature?

Question 196

What artery is used to measure blood pressure?

Answer 196

The brachial artery is the standard site of measurement, given its ease of access and ability to hold the arm level with the position of the heart, which increases the accuracy of measurement.

Question 197

The PAR-Q+ and pre-participation process reflects what three health indicators?

Answer 197

The PAR-Q+ and pre-participation process uncover whether a client is ready to undertake an increase in physical activity

An individual’s current level of physical activity, the presence of signs and symptoms of disease, and the individual’s desired exercise intensity

Question 198

Which of the following is not a component that needs to be considered when planning a VT1 test?

Answer 198

Environmental temperature is not a factor that would need to be considered during the VT1 test.

Question 199

How can systolic blood pressure be defined?

Answer 199

The pressure in arteries and other blood vessels when the heart is contracting; the first (top) number recorded

Question 200

What term refers to the ability of a test to produce consistent and repeatable results?

Answer 200

Reliability

Question 201

When sequencing physiological assessments, which of the following would produce a better result if measured immediately after exercise rather than before exercise?

Answer 201

Flexibility is frequently assessed following a light cardio warm-up because at this time the body displays greater tissue extensibility.

Question 202

What principle is hydro-static underwater weighing based upon?

Answer 202

Archimedes’ principle is a physical law of buoyancy. It is the assumption that the volume of fluid displaced is equivalent to the volume of an object fully immersed in that fluid or to the specific fraction of the volume below the surface.

Question 203

Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure?

Answer 203

Validity refers to the degree that tests specifically measure what they are intended to measure. For example, the sit-and-reach test, which is often limited by tight hamstrings and calves, would not be a valid test to assess overall body flexibility.

Question 204

What is a body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body?

Answer 204

Bio-electrical impedance analysis (BIA)

BIA, or bio-electrical impedance analysis, is a body composition assessment technique that estimates body fat percentage by measuring the resistance to the flow of electrical currents introduced into the body.

Question 205

Static posture

Answer 205

The positioning of the musculoskeletal system while the body is motionless.

Question 206

Dynamic posture

Answer 206

Alignment of the body while in motion.

Question 207

Optimal movement

Answer 207

Moving in a bio-mechanically efficient manner that maximizes muscle recruitment and minimizes risk of injury.

Question 208

Movement impairments

Answer 208

Abnormal movement patterns that can indicate possible muscle imbalances or mobility limitation.

Question 209

Movement assessment

Answer 209

An assessment of a client’s movement patterns and postural alignment during movement or activity; also known as a dynamic postural assessment.

Question 210

Muscle imbalance

Answer 210

When muscles on each side of a joint have altered length-tension relationships.

Question 211

Mobility

Answer 211

Optimal flexibility and joint range of motion; ability to move freely.

Question 212

Performance assessment

Answer 212

Assessments used to measure overall strength, muscular endurance, power, and agility.

Question 213

Pes planus

Answer 213

Collapsed arch of the foot; also known as flat feet.

Question 214

Overactive

Answer 214

When elevated neural drive causes a muscle to be held in a chronic state of contraction.

Question 215

Underactive

Answer 215

When a muscle is experiencing neural inhibition and limited neuro-muscular recruitment.

Question 216

Optimal movement

Answer 216

Moving in a bio-mechanically efficient manner that maximizes muscle recruitment and minimizes injury risk

Question 217

Dynamic posture

Answer 217

The alignment of the body while in motion

Question 218

Movement impairments

Answer 218

Abnormal movement patterns that can indicate possible muscle imbalances or mobility limitations

Question 219

Static posture

Answer 219

The positioning of the musculoskeletal system while the body is motionless

Question 220

Which term refers to a state where muscles on each side of a joint have altered length-tension relationships?

Answer 220

Muscle imbalance

Question 221

Static postural assessment

Answer 221

An assessment that provides insight to deviations from optimal alignment of the body in a standing posture.

Question 222

Anterior

Answer 222

On the front of the body.

Question 222

Anterior

Answer 222

On the front of the body.

Question 223

Posterior

Answer 223

On the back of the body

Question 224

Kinetic chain checkpoints

Answer 224

The five areas of the body that are monitored during movement assessments and exercise: foot/ankle, knees, lumbo-pelvic-hip complex, shoulders, and head.

Question 225

Anterior pelvic tilt

Answer 225

An excessive forward rotation of the pelvis that results in greater lumbar lordosis.

Question 226

Knee valgus

Answer 226

Knees collapse inward (knock knees) due to hip adduction and internal rotation; also known as medial knee displacement and genu valgum.

Question 227

Knee varus

Answer 227

Knees bow outward (bowlegged); also known as genu varum.

Question 228

Pes planus distortion syndrome

Answer 228

Postural syndrome characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips.

Question 229

Lower crossed syndrome

Answer 229

Postural syndrome characterized by anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine.

Question 230

Lordotic/Lordosis

Answer 230

The normal curvature of the cervical and lumbar spine regions, creating a concave portion of the spine

Question 231

Upper crossed syndrome

Answer 231

Postural syndrome characterized by a forward head and protracted (rounded) shoulders

Question 232

Potential overactive muscles

Answer 232

Pectoralis major and minor (chest muscles), Levator scapula and sternocleidomastoid (neck muscles), Upper trapezius

Question 233

Potential under active muscles

Answer 233

Middle and lower trapezius, rhomboids (mid-back muscles), Deep cervical flexors (muscle deep within the neck)

Question 234

Knee valgus

Answer 234

Knees collapse inward

Question 235

Knee varus

Answer 235

Knees bow outward

Question 236

Postural syndrome characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips

Answer 236

Pes planus distortion syndrome

Question 237

Postural syndrome characterized by anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lumbar lordosis

Answer 237

Lower crossed syndrome

Question 238

Which assessment provides insight into deviations from optimal alignment of the body in a standing posture?

Answer 238

Static postural assessment

Question 239

Overhead Squat Assessment (OHSA)

Answer 239

A movement assessment designed to assess dynamic posture, core stability, and neuro-muscular control of the whole body during a squatting motion.

Question 240

OHSA Starting Position

Answer 240

The client stands on a flat, stable surface with the feet shoulder-width apart and pointing straight ahead.
The foot and ankle complex should be in a neutral position.
Ideally, the assessment should be performed with the shoes off to better view the client’s foot and ankle complex.
The client should raise their arms completely overhead with elbows fully extended.

Question 241

Single leg squat assessment

Answer 241

A movement assessment that assesses dynamic posture, lower-extremity strength, balance, and overall coordination in a single-limb stance.

Question 242

Single-leg squat starting position

Answer 242

The client stands on a flat, stable surface, hands on the hips, and eyes focused forward.
The client lifts one foot approximately 6 in. off the floor. The stance foot, ankle and knee, and the LPHC should be in a neutral position and pointed straight ahead.

Question 243

Single-leg squat movement

Answer 243

The client squats as deep as possible (while maintaining balance) and returns to the starting position. The depth of the single-leg squat will be client dependent and will likely vary across populations. The client performs up to five repetitions before switching sides.

Question 244

Pushing Assessment

Answer 244

An assessment that challenges the upper extremities and trunk during a pushing movement to identify movement impairments and potential muscle imbalances.

The fitness professional should instruct the client to push the handles away from their body and return to the starting position.
The client should use a slow repetition tempo.
The client should perform five repetitions in a split stance, switch legs, and then perform five additional repetitions.

Question 245

Pulling Assessment

Answer 245

An assessment that challenges the upper extremities and trunk during a pulling movement to identify movement impairments and potential muscle imbalances.

The client should pull the handle toward their body and return to the starting position.
The client should use a slow repetition tempo.
The client should perform five repetitions in a split stance, switch legs, then perform five additional repetitions.

Question 246

What is typically the first movement assessment used for most clients?

Answer 246

Overhead squat assessment

Question 247

MATCH each movement impairment with the OSHA view used to assess it.

Answer 247

Lateral view

Excessive forward lean of the torso

Anterior view

Feet externally rotating (turning out)

Anterior view

Knee valgus

Lateral view

Arms falling forward

Question 248

Push-Up Test

Answer 248

A performance assessment that measures muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement.

Question 249

Bench press strength assessment

Answer 249

A performance assessment designed to estimate the one-repetition maximum of the bench press exercise.

Question 250

Squat strength assessment

Answer 250

A performance assessment designed to estimate the one-repetition maximum of the squat exercise.

Question 251

Vertical jump assessment

Answer 251

A performance assessment designed to test maximal jump height and lower extremity power.

The client should jump and touch the highest possible vane. No stepping, of any kind, is allowed prior to the jump.
The height difference between the standing reach and jumping height is calculated. Red vanes are spaced 6 inches apart, blue vanes 1 inch apart, and white vanes are spaced every 0.5 inches.
The client should take a 2-minute rest.
A second attempt should be provided. If the client increases their jump height on the second attempt, a third attempt is awarded.
The client should be reassessed at regularly scheduled intervals to measure progress.

Question 252

Long jump assessment

Answer 252

A performance assessment designed to test maximal jump distance and lower extremity power.

Question 253

40-yard dash assessment

Answer 253

A performance assessment designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal speed.

Question 254

Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

Answer 254

A performance assessment designed to test lateral speed and agility.

Question 255

Pro shuttle (5-10-5) assessment

Answer 255

A performance assessment designed to test lateral acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control.

Question 256

40-yard dash assessment position

Answer 256

Two cones are spaced 40 yards (36.6 meters) apart or use an American football field with clearly indicated yard lines.
The client should stand in a ready position behind cone one.

Question 257

40-yard dash assessment movement

Answer 257

The client should sprint as quickly as possible to the 40-yard marker.
The timer should start at the first movement and end when the client hits the 40-yard mark.
The client should be reassessed at regularly scheduled intervals to measure progress.

Question 258

Pro shuttle test movement

Answer 258

The client should sprint as quickly as possible in the following pattern:
Cone one to cone two
Cone two to cone three
Cone three to cone one
The timer should start at the first movement and end when the client passes the middle cone at the end of the sprint pattern.
The client should be reassessed at regularly scheduled intervals to measure progress shuttle test movement

Question 259

What does the push-up test measure?

Answer 259

Muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement

Question 260

Which of the following assessments is designed to estimate the one-repetition maximum for the squat exercise?

Answer 260

Squat strength assessment

Question 261

Which performance assessment is designed to test lateral speed and agility?

Answer 261

Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

Question 262

Sequencing ALL assessments

Answer 262

Participation health screening / physiological assessments / body composition (anthropometric assessments), postural + movement assessments / cardio assessments / performance assessments

cardio (aerobic/VT1 and anaerobic/VT2) tests and performance assessments can be administered

Question 263

Reassessment

Answer 263

It provides positive encouragement to clients and serves as a helpful reminder for them to continue working hard toward the goals they have set.
It helps clients realize how the exercise programming provided by their Certified Personal Trainer is making a difference in their fitness level, which helps foster adherence to the exercise program.
It provides an opportunity for fitness professionals to refine or progress exercises as their clients’ abilities improve.

Question 264

Prone

Answer 264

Lying facedown

Question 265

Supine

Answer 265

Lying face-up

Question 266

Which of the following assessments can be used by Certified Personal Trainers as recruitment tools for prospective clients?

Answer 266

Static postural and overhead squat assessments

Question 267

TRUE OR FALSE? It is important for all assessments to be sequenced in a specific order to help guarantee accurate results.

Answer 267

True

Question 268

Chap 12 Highlights

Answer 268

Static posture is typically assessed in standing position and is used to identify the three postural distortions: pes planus distortion syndrome, upper crossed syndrome, and lower crossed syndrome.
Pes planus distortion syndrome is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and internally rotated and adducted hips.
Lower crossed syndrome is characterized by an anterior pelvic tilt and excessive lordosis of the lumbar spine.
Upper crossed syndrome is characterized by a forward head and protracted shoulders.
The OHSA is the first movement assessment performed for clients and serves as the basis for all other movement assessments. It evaluates dynamic posture, core stability, and neuromuscular control of the whole body during a squatting motion.
During the OHSA, note all movement impairments to identify potential muscle imbalances. From the anterior view, look for feet turning out or knees caving in. From the lateral view, look for low-back arching, excessive forward lean of the torso, or arms falling forward.
The single-leg squat assessment should be used by clients who have performed well in the OHSA, or if the fitness professional is considering single-leg exercises in their programming. This test is a good assessment of an individual’s ability to balance, which is an important functional consideration for activities of daily living and exercise programming.
Pushing and pulling assessments evaluate function of the upper extremity and concurrent core stability. They can be used as an intake assessment or an integrated part of the actual programming.
When performing pushing or pulling assessments, look for the following movement impairments: low-back arching, shoulders elevating, or head jutting forward.
Performance assessments can be used for clients looking to improve athletic performance, and measure maximal strength, power, muscular endurance, and speed and agility.
The push-up test measures muscular endurance of the upper extremities during a pushing movement.
The bench press and squat strength assessments measure maximal strength capabilities. These tests are advanced assessments for strength-specific goals and may not be suitable for clients with limited experience with resistance training.
The vertical jump and long jump assessments measure lower-body power.
The LEFT is designed to test lateral speed and agility. It is considered an advanced assessment for speed and performance-specific goals.
The 40-yard dash assessment evaluates reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed.
The pro shuttle (5-10-5) test assesses acceleration, deceleration, agility, and control. This test is most appropriate for clients with athletic goals seeking to assess agility and sprinting speed.
All assessments need to be sequenced in a specific order to help guarantee accurate results. Non-fatiguing assessments, such as a preparticipation health screening and physiological and body composition assessments, should be conducted prior to postural, movement, cardio, and performance assessments.
Fitness professionals should always use caution when implementing movement and performance assessments with their clients. Certain populations, such as overweight or obese, youths, older adults, and prenatal clients, may need to modify or avoid certain movement and performance assessments. Some assessments are not applicable because they do not relate to the client’s goals. Other assessments may cause safety concerns.

Question 269

Which movement assessment is a good assessment of a client’s balance during movement?

Answer 269

The single-leg squat is a good assessment of a client’s balance.

Question 270

Which muscles are typically under-active in association with upper crossed syndrome?

Answer 270

The lower trapezius is typically under-active in association with upper crossed syndrome.

Question 271

What depth is suggested for the overhead squat assessment?

Answer 271

Femur parallel to ground?

Question 272

What do you visualize to detect the movement impairment shoulder elevation?

Answer 272

The shoulders moving upward toward the ears characterizes shoulder elevation.

Question 273

Which muscles are typically under-active in association with lower crossed syndrome?

Answer 273

The abdominals are one group of muscles that are typically under-active in association with lower crossed syndrome.

Question 274

Which muscle would be considered under-active, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment?

Answer 274

Gluteus maximus

Question 275

Which muscle or muscles would be considered overactive, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?

Answer 275

Both the upper trapezius and levator scapula are considered overactive in association with shoulder elevation.

Question 276

Which of the following tests is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed?

Answer 276

The 40-yard dash is designed to test reaction capabilities, acceleration, and maximal sprinting speed.

Question 277

Which muscle would be considered under-active, leading to shoulder elevation during the pulling assessment?

Answer 277

The lower trapezius is considered under-active in association with shoulder elevation.