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full review - bio mcat Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

nucleoid region is the

A

DNA region in prokaryotes

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2
Q

nucleolus makes

A

ribosomes

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3
Q

where is the nucleolus?

A

sits in nucleus, no membrane

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4
Q

peroxisomes collect and…

A

break down material

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5
Q

rough ER accepts

A

mRNA to make proteins

covered in ribosomes

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6
Q

smooth ER function?

A

detox and makes lipids

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7
Q

golgi apparatus function?

A

modifies/distributes proteins

ONLY in eukaryotes

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8
Q

vesicular transport?

A

COPII –> FORWARD

COPI <— RETURN

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9
Q

cisternal maturation

A

vesicles travel in retrograde

new cis made

cis/medial/trans/exit

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10
Q

centrioles are…

A

9 groups of microtubules

pull chromosomes apart

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11
Q

lysosomes function?

A

demo and recycling center

made by golgi apparatus

single membrane

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12
Q

plasmids are found in…

A

prokaryotes

carry dna but NOT for survival

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13
Q

cytoskeleton is made of…

A

microfilaments

microtubules

intermediate filaments

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14
Q

microfilaments are made of…

A

actin

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15
Q

microtubules are made of

A

tubulin

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16
Q

intermediate filaments are made of

A

keratin = vimentin

desmin = lamin

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17
Q

types of tissue

A

epithelia

connective

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18
Q

simple epithelia

A

one layer

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19
Q

stratified epithelia

A

multiple layers

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20
Q

pseudostratified epithelia

A

one layer

looks like multiple, but really just ONE

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21
Q

cuboidal epithelia

A

cube shape

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22
Q

columnar epithelia

A

long and narrow

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23
Q

squamous epithelia

A

flat, scale-like

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24
Q

connective tissue comprised of 5 things

A

strome (support/extracellular matrix)

bone

cartilage

tendon

blood

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25
Q

obligate aerobe bacterial requires

A

oxygen

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26
Q

obligate anaerobe

A

dies in oxygen

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27
Q

facultative anaerobe toggle b/w…

A

aerobic and anaerobic

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28
Q

aerotolerant anaerobe does not…..

A

use oxygen but tolerates it

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29
Q

gram positive bacteria is….

A

PURPLE

thick peptidoglycan/lipoteichoic acid cell wall

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30
Q

gram negative bacteria is…

A

PINK-RED (safarin)

thin peptidoglycan cell wall and outer membrane

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31
Q

bacteria shapes

A

bacilli (rod)

cocci (sphere)

spirilla (spiral)

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32
Q

genetic recombination steps

A

transformation

conjugation

transduction

transposons

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33
Q

transformation gets…

A

genetic info from environment

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34
Q

conjugation is the transfer of…

A

genetic info via conjugation bridge

F+ –> F- or Hfr –> recepient

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35
Q

transduction uses…

A

bacteriophage for transfer

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36
Q

transposons have genetic info that can…

A

insert/remove themselves

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37
Q

eukaryote

A

ETC in mitochrondria

large ribosomes

reproduce via mitosis

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38
Q

prokaryote

A

ETC in cell membrane

small ribosomes

no nucleus

reproduce via binary fission

plasmids carry DNA material

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39
Q

plasmids that integrate into genome are….

A

EPISOMES

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40
Q

prions are…

A

infectious proteins

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41
Q

prions trigger…

A

misfolding such as alpha-helical –> beta-plated sheet

lowered solubility

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42
Q

viroid

A

plant pathogens

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43
Q

capsid is the

A

protein coat on a virus

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44
Q

envelope in viruses

A

some viruses have a lipid envelope

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45
Q

viral genome may be…

A

DNA or RNA

single or double stranded

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46
Q

virion

A

individual virus particles

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47
Q

bacteriophages

A

bacteria virus

tail sheath injects DNA/RNA

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48
Q

if virus is single-stranded, explain pos and neg senses

A

positive sense: can be translated by host cell

neg sense: RNA replicase must synthesize a complimentary strand –> translated

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49
Q

retrovirus

A

single stranded RNA

reverse transcriptase needed to make DNA

e.g. HIV

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50
Q

bacteriophage life cycles

A

lytic or lysogenic

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51
Q

lytic life cycle

A

virions made until cell lyses

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52
Q

lysogenic life cycle

A

virus integrates into genome as provirus / prophage

goes dormant until stress activates it

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53
Q

general overview of cell cycle

A

G1
G0
G1 checkpt
G2
S
G2 checkpt
M

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54
Q

positive growth signals

A

1) CDK + cyclin create a complex

2) phosphorylate Rb to Rb + P

3) Rb changes shape, releases E2F

4) cell division continues

CDK = cyclin-dependent kinase

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55
Q

negative growth signals

A

1) CDK inhibitors block phosphorylation of Rb

2) so E2F stays attached

3) cell cycle halts

E2F = regulate expressions of genes in G1 and S phases

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56
Q

sex is determined by

A

23rd pair of chromosomes

XX = female

XY = male

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57
Q

x-linked disorders

A

males express, females can be carriers

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58
Q

y-chromosomes

A

little genetic info

SRY gene = sorry you’re male

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59
Q

semen is

A

sperm + seminal fluid

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60
Q

what makes viscous fluid to clean out urethra?

A

bulbourethral glands

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61
Q

what do seminal vesicles and the prostate gland do?

A

make alkaline fluid to help sperm survive acidic environment of female reproductive tract

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62
Q

SEVE(N) UP is the

A

sperm pathway mnemonic

Seminiferous tubules
Epididymis
Vans deferens
Ejaculatory duct
Urethra
Penis

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63
Q

site of spermatogenesis?

A

seminiferous tubules

nourished by sertoli cells

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64
Q

epidiymis stores…

A

sperm

sperm gain motility

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65
Q

vans deferens function?

A

raise/lower testes

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66
Q

mitosis

A

PMAT: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

ploidy of 2n throughout

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67
Q

prophase - mitosis

A

DNA condenses

centrioles migrate to opp poles

microtubules form

nuclear envelope disappears

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68
Q

metaphase - mitosis

A

chromosomes “meet in the middle”

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69
Q

anaphase - mitosis

A

sister chromatids separate and move to opp poles

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70
Q

telophase - mitosis

A

chromosomes decondense

nuclear membrane forms

cytokinesis occurs

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71
Q

meiosis overview

A

PMAT x2

ploidy goes from 2n to n

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72
Q

what is nondisjunction?

A

when sister chromatids don’t separate properly during anaphase

results in aneuploidy

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73
Q

prophase I

A

chromosomes condense

nuclear membrane dissolves

homologous chromosomes form bivalents

crossing over occurs

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74
Q

metaphase I

A

spindle fibers from opposing centrosomes connect to bivalents (at centromeres)

align them along middle of the cell

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75
Q

anaphase I

A

homologous pairs move to opp poles of the cell

DISJUNCTION

accounts for law of segregation

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76
Q

telophase I

A

chromosomes decondense

nuclear membrane may reform

cell divides (cytokinesis)

two haploid daughter cells form –> cells are unequal sizes

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77
Q

prophase II

A

chromosomes condense

nucl membrane dissolves

centrosomes move to opp poles (perpendicular to before)

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78
Q

metaphase II

A

spindle fibers from opposing centrosomes attach to chromosomes (at centromere)

align them along cell equator

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79
Q

anaphase II

A

spindle fibers contract and separate sister chromatids

chromatids (now chromosomes) move to opp poles

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80
Q

telophase II

A

chromosomes decondense

nuclear membrane reforms

cell divide (cytokinesis) to form 4 HAPLOID DAUGHTER CELLS

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81
Q

ovaries have follicles that produce….

A

ova

controlled by FSH and LH

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82
Q

oogenesis

A

production of female gametes

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83
Q

estrogen is the response to

A

FSH that develops reproductive tract, thickens uterine wall

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84
Q

progesterone is the response to

A

LH

maintains/protects endometrium

“estrogen establishes / progresterone protects the endometrium”

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85
Q

pathway for female reproductive system

A

egg
peritoneal sac
fallopian tube/oviduct

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86
Q

GnRH is

A

gonadotropin-releasing hormones

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87
Q

FSH is the

A

follicle stimulating hormones

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88
Q

what does the FSH do

A

in males: triggers spermatogenesis, stimulates sertoli cells

females: stimulates development of ovarian follicles

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89
Q

LH is the

A

lutenizing hormones

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90
Q

LH in males/females

A

males: causes interstitial cells to make testosterone

females: induces ovulation

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91
Q

fertilization —>

A

morula

blastula

gastrulation

neurulation

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92
Q

fertilization occurs in the

A

ampulla of fallopian tube

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93
Q

during fertilization, sperm’s acrosomal enzymes penentrate…

A

corona radiate and zona pellucia

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94
Q

after corona radiate/zona pellucia are pentrated…

A

acrosomal enzymes inject pronucleus

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95
Q

during fertilization, cortical rxn releases Ca2+ which depolarizes the…

A

ovum membrane and makes it impenetrable

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96
Q

what is a morula?

A

early solid mass of cells

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97
Q

blastula implants in the

A

endometrial lining

fluid filled blastocoel

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98
Q

trophoblast becomes the

A

chorion / placenta

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98
Q

inner cell mass –>

A

organism

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99
Q

archenteron leads to….

A

blastopore during gastrulation

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100
Q

what forms during gastrulation?

A

ectoderm

mesoderm

endoderm

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101
Q

ectoderm forms

A

the nervous system, skin, hair, nails, mouth, anus

“attract-oderm” –> skin/hair are things people are attracted to

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102
Q

mesoderm forms

A

muscoskeleton, circulatory system, gonads, adrenal cortex

“move-oderm” –> involved in moving things such as muscles, RBC, steroids

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103
Q

endoderm forms

A

endocrine glands, GI tract, respiratory tract, bronchi, bladder, stomach

“in-doderm” –> things are INSIDE

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104
Q

during neurulation:

mesoderm develops a (x) then (x) induces (y)

A

x = notochord

y = ectoderm

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105
Q

ectoderm –> neural folds….

A

–> neural tube

neural folds –> neural crest cells –> PNS

neural tube –> CNS

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106
Q

totipotent stem cells:

A

“total”

can be any type of cell

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107
Q

pluripotent stem cells can be any cell except…

A

those found in placental structures

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108
Q

multipotent stem cells are

A

more specialized

can be multiple types of cells

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109
Q

adult stem cells are…..

A

multipotent and require treatment w/ transcription factors

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110
Q

fetal hemoglobin (HbF)

A

increased oxygen affinity than HbA (adult hemoglobin)

oxygen and co2 exchange via diffusion

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111
Q

umbilical vein transports…

A

oxygen from

PLACENTA to the baby

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112
Q

umbilical artery brings…

A

oxygen away from the baby towards placenta

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113
Q

twins

A

fraternal = dizygotic

identical = monzygotic

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114
Q

cell specialization:

A

determination

differentiation

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115
Q

cell determination:

A

cell commits to becoming a certain type of cell

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116
Q

cell differentiation follows

A

determination

selectively transcribe genes appropriate for cell’s specific function

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117
Q

induction is when

A

a group of cells influence the fate of nearby cells

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118
Q

types of cell signaling

A

autocrine

paracrime

juxtacrine

endocrine

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119
Q

fetal shunts that skip lungs

A

foramen ovale: R atrium –> L atrium

ductus arteriousus: pulmonary artery –> artery

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120
Q

fetal shunts that skip liver

A

umbilical vein –> inferior vena cava

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121
Q

afferent neurons

A

Ascend spinal cord

sensory neurons that bring signals to CNS

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122
Q

interneurons are

A

between other neurons

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123
Q

efferent neurons

A

Exit spinal cord

motor neurons

goes away from the CNS

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124
Q

temporal summations

A

same space / different time

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125
Q

spatial summations

A

different space / same time

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126
Q

glial cells

A

astrocytes

ependymal cells

microglia

schwann cells

oligendrocytes

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127
Q

astrocytes form the

A

blood-brain barrier

controls solutes moving from bloodstream to nervous tissue

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128
Q

ependymal cells form the

A

barrier b/w cerebrospinal fluid and the interstitial fluid of the CNS

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129
Q

microglia function

A

digest waste in CNS

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130
Q

schwann cells are in the

A

PNS and make myelin

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131
Q

oligendrocytes are in the

A

CNS and make myelin

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132
Q

white matter:

A

myelinated sheaths

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133
Q

grey matter:

A

cell bodies and dendrites

unmyelinated

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134
Q

brain has what white and grey matter in…

A

white matter - inside

grey matter - outer

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135
Q

where is the white and grey matter in the spinal cord?

A

grey matter inside

white matter outside

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136
Q

monosynaptic reflex arc

A

sensory neuron –> motor neuron

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137
Q

polysynaptic reflex arc

A

sensory neuron –> interneuron –> motor

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138
Q

what is the CNS comprised of

A

brain and spinal cord

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139
Q

PNS is comprised of

A

somatic and peripheral nervous systems

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140
Q

somatic nervous system is

A

voluntary

sensory (afferent)
motor (efferent)

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141
Q

autonomic nervous system is divided into

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems

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142
Q

sympathetic nervous system

A

flight or flight

bronchi relax

bp increase

decreased peristalsis

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143
Q

neurotransmitters in sympathetic nervous system

A

preganglionic: acetylcholine

postganglionic: epi / norepi

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144
Q

preganglionic neuron travels from its

A

origin in brain or spinal cord —> ganglion

ganglion = collection of cytons outside cns

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145
Q

postganglionic neuron begins in and travels from

A

ganglion to the

smooth muscle/gland being innervated

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146
Q

parasympathetic NS

A

rest and digest

reduce bronchi

conserve energy

increase persistalsis

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147
Q

parasympathetic NS neurotransmitters

A

preganglionic: acetylcholine

postganglionic: acetylcholine

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148
Q

neurotransmitter removed from synaptic cleft via either

A

breakdown by enzymes

reuptake

diffusion out of cleft

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149
Q

what are peptide hormones made of

A

AAs

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150
Q

peptide hormones formation

A

1) cleaved from larger polypeptide

2) golgi modifies and activates hormone

3) put in vesicles released via exocytosis

4) polar - can’t pass through membrane so GPCR (extracellular receptor) is used

common 2nd messengers: cAMP, Ca2+, IP3

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151
Q

example of peptide hormones

A

insulin

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152
Q

steroid hormones are made in the

A

gonads and adrenal cortex

from cholesterol

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153
Q

steroid hormones don’t dissolve, they must be….

A

carried by proteins

they are nonpolar

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154
Q

steroid hormones activate

A

nuclear receptors

and directly act on DNA

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155
Q

steroid hormones example

A

estrogen / testosterone / cortisol

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156
Q

amino acid-derivative hormones share traits from

A

both peptide and steroid hormones

e.g. catecholamines use GPCR, thyroxine bind intracellularly

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157
Q

GPCR

A

g-protein coupled receptor

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158
Q

epinephrine is a

A

ligand 1st messenger

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159
Q

at the end of the GPCR process…

A

phosphodiesterase deactivates cAMP

GTP hydrolyzed back to GDP

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160
Q

direct hormones act directly on

A

target tissue / organ

e.g. insulin

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161
Q

tropic hormones require an

A

intermediary

only affect other endocrine tissues

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162
Q

examples of tropic hormones

A

GnRH

LH

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163
Q

type 1 diabetes

A

no insulin

glucose can’t enter cells

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164
Q

type 2 diabetes

A

desensitized insulin receptor

glucose is unable to enter cells

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165
Q

air pathway

A

nose
pharynx
larynx
trachea
bronchi
bronchioles
alveoli

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166
Q

what happens in the pharynx

A

food / air travels through

air is warmed / humidified

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167
Q

larynx takes only…

A

air in

epiglottis covering

contains vocal cords

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168
Q

trachea has ciliated….

A

epithelium that collect debris

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169
Q

bronchi connects…

A

windpipe to lungs

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170
Q

bronchioles

A

the smallest of the branches of the bronchi

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171
Q

alveoli are

A

sacs where diffusion occurs

surfactant reduces surface tension

prevents collapse

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172
Q

pulmonary veins + oxygen bring

A

oxygen from lungs to heart

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173
Q

pulmonary artery brings oxygen from

A

heart to lungs

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174
Q

what happens during inhalation?

A

neg pressure breathing

active process

diaphragm + external intercostal muscles contract

intracellular space increases, thoracic cavity increase, pressure decreases

increase lung volume, decrease lung pressure

air rushes in

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175
Q

exhalation is a (what) process, muscles (do what)

what happens to lung volume and pressure

A

passive process

muscles relax

lung vol decrease, increase lung pressure

air leaves lungs

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176
Q

active exhalation

A

internal intercostal + abd muscles help force air out

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177
Q

spirometer measures

A

lung capacity

can not measure total volume

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178
Q

total lung capacity

A

max vol of air in lungs

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179
Q

residual volume

A

residual after exhalation

air stays in lungs to keep alveoli from collapsing

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180
Q

vital capacity

A

difference b/w minimum and maximum volume of air in the lungs

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181
Q

tidal volume

A

volume inhaled and exhaled in a normal breath

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182
Q

expiratory reserve volume

A

volume of additional air that can be forcibly exhaled following normal exhalation

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183
Q

inspiratory reserve volume

A

volume of additional air that can be forcibly inhaled following normal inhalation

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184
Q

vibrissae is…

A

in the pharynx

protects from pathogens

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185
Q

lysosomes are in the…

A

nasal cavity/saliva

attack gram POSITIVE peptidoglycan

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186
Q

mast cells function

A

antibiotics on surface

inflammation

allergic rxns

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187
Q

what else serves as protection from pathogens?

A

mucous membranes

mucocillary escalation

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188
Q

what happens to the bicarbonate buffer when pH decreases

A

increased respiration to blow off carbon dioxide

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189
Q

what happens to the bicarbonate buffer when pH increases?

A

decreased respiration

traps carbon dioxide

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190
Q

what happens to the medulla oblongata when carbon dioxide increases

A

increased respiration (exchanging gases)

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191
Q

what happens to the medulla oblongata when the oxygen lowers?

A

hypoxemia

increased ventilation (air in/out)

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192
Q

electrical conduction pathway

A

SA node (Pacemaker) –> AV node –> Bundle of His –> Purkinje fibers

“Stab A Big Pickle”

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193
Q

blood pressure

A

systole / diastole

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194
Q

systole

A

ventricular contraction, AV valves close

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195
Q

diastole

A

ventricular relaxation, SV close, blood atria –> ventricles

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196
Q

normal BP range

A

90/60 to 120/80

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197
Q

what is BP maintained by?

A

baroreceptors and chemoreceptors

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198
Q

what can reduce blood pressure?

A

increased ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide)

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199
Q

lower BP causes which hormones to increase

A

increased aldosterone

increased anti-diuretic hormone (vasopressin)

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200
Q

when blood osmolarity increases, what hormone is released

A

ADH (anti-diuretic hormone)

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201
Q

cardiac output =

A

heart rate x stroke volume

CO = HR x SV

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202
Q

arteries are

A

thick/muscular/elastic

allow for recoil and propel blood forward

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203
Q

arterioles

A

small muscular arteries

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204
Q

capillaries are….

A

1 cell thick endothelial wall

easy diffusion of gases (o2, co2) and waste (NH3, urea)

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205
Q

veins are

A

thin/inelastic

may stretch to accommodate blood but NO recoil

surrounding muscles help pump blood through

contains valves

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206
Q

what are venules?

A

small veins

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207
Q

what are antigens?

A

surface proteins on RBCs

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208
Q

Rh factor is

A

protein that is found on the surface of RBCs

Rh+ is dominant

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209
Q

erythrocytes are formed in the

A

bone marrow

AKA red blood cells (RBCs)

NO nucleus/mitochondria/organelles

contain hemoglobin to carry oxygen

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210
Q

blood is considered a

A

connective tissue

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211
Q

thrombocytes are…

A

aka platelets

cell fragments

allow for coagulation

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212
Q

hydrostatic pressure moves fluid out of the blood vessel and into the…

A

interstitial fluid around it

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213
Q

osmotic pressure is the pressure generated by solutes as they…

A

draw water into the bloodstream

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214
Q

oxygen is carried by

A

hemoglobin

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215
Q

carbon dioxide is carried by

A

hemoglobin (sometimes)

most exist in bloodstream as bicarbonate HCO3- (buffer)

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216
Q

when the endothelial lining of a blood vessel is damaged…

A

the collagen and tissue factor underlying the endothelial cells are exposed

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217
Q

prothrombin –>

A

thrombin

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218
Q

fibrinogen –>

A

fibrin

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219
Q

what breaks down clots?

A

plasmin

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220
Q

innate immunity have defenses that are always….

A

active but are NON-SPECIFIC

e.g. skin/mucus/stomach acid/tears/etc

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221
Q

adaptive immunity are defenses that…

A

take time to activate and are SPECIFIC to the invader

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222
Q

skin, mucus, lysozyme and what else are part of non-cellular innate immune system?

A

complement system

interferons

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223
Q

explain why skin is an innate defense

A

physical barrier

secretes antimicrobial enzymes like DEFENSINS

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224
Q

mucus function in innate immune system

A

on mucus membranes

traps pathogens in

in respiratory system –> mucous is propelled upward by cilia via MUCOCILARY ESCALATOR

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225
Q

lysozymes are found in

A

in tears and saliva

antimicrobial compound

innate immune system

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226
Q

complement system can punch holes in…

A

bacteria’s cell walls

osmotically unstable –> lysis

triggers opsonization

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227
Q

inteferons are given off by

A

virally infected cells

InterFERE w/ viral replication + dispersion

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228
Q

macrophages, MHC-I, MHC-II and what else are part of cellular innate defenses

A

dendritic cells

natural killer cells

granulocytes

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229
Q

macrophages ingest pathogens and present them on….

A

MHC-II and secrete cytokines

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230
Q

MHC-1 is present in all

A

nucleated cells

displays endogenous antigen to cytotoxic CD8+ T-cells

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231
Q

MHC-II is present in…

A

professional antigen-presenting cells

display exogenous antigen to help CD4+ T-cells

e.g. macrophages, dendritic cells, some B-cells, certain activated epithelial cells

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232
Q

dendritic cells are

A

antigen-presenting cells in skin

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233
Q

natural killer cells attack cells low on….

A

MHC including virally infected cells and cancer cells

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234
Q

granulocytes - innate immune system

A

neutrophils

eosinophil

basophils

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235
Q

neutrophils are activated by

A

bacteria

conduct phagocytosis

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236
Q

eosinophil is activated by

A

parasites and allergens

increase histamines

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237
Q

basophils are activated by allergens and inhibit…

A

blood clotting

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238
Q

humoral immunity centers on antibody production by…

A

B-cells

kills antigens while they are floating around in the fluid (humor)

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239
Q

B-cells aka B-lymphocytes are made/mature in…

A

bone marrow

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240
Q

antibodies (Ig) are produced by

A

plasma cells which are activated by b-cells

target antigens

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241
Q

hypermutation is the mutation of the

A

antigen binding site on an antibody

results in varrying affinities of antibodies for a specific microbe

5 diff isotypes (IgM, IgD, IgG, IgE, IgA)

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242
Q

opsonization is antibodies marking….

A

pathogens for destruction

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243
Q

agglutination is when

A

pathogens clump together into insoluble complexes

caused by opsonizing pathogens

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244
Q

memory b-cells lie in wait for a

A

2nd exposure to pathogen

2ndary response is more rapid and vigorous

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245
Q

humoral immunity includes:
b-cells, antibodies, hypermutation and…

A

opsonization

agglutination

memory b cells

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246
Q

cell-mediated (cytotoxic) immunity centers on

A

T cells

responds to cells once they have been infected by the antigen

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247
Q

cell-mediated immunity include:
t cells, pos/neg selection, helper t-cells, cytotoxic t-cells, suppressor t-cells, memory t-cells and…

A

autoimmune conditions

allergic rxns

immunization

passive immunity

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248
Q

t-cells

A

aka t-lymphocytes

made in bone marrow, mature in thymus

coordinate immune system and directly kill infected cells

cell-mediated immunity

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249
Q

positive/negative selection

A

maturation of t-cells

faciliated by thymosin

occurs in thymus

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250
Q

positive selection - adaptive immunity

A

mature IN ONLY t-cells that respond to the presentation of antigen on MHC

posiTive - t cells

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251
Q

negative selection (part of adaptive immunity)

A

causes apoptosis in t-cells that are self-reactive

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252
Q

helper t-cells

A

Th or CD4+

respons to antigen on MHC-II

coordinate rest of immune system

secretes lymphotkines to activate immune defense

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253
Q

Th1 secrete

A

interferon gamma

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254
Q

Th2 activates b cells in

A

parasitic infection

255
Q

cytotoxic t-cells

A

aka Tc, CTL, or CD8+

“killer cells”

respond to antigen on MCH-1 and kills virally infected cells

256
Q

suppressor t-cells

A

aka Treg

down-regulate immune response after an infection + promote self-tolerance

defective suppressor t-cells –> leading to autoimmune conditions

257
Q

memory t-cells serve a similar function to

A

memory b-cells

258
Q

autoimmune conditions

A

a self-antigen is recognized as foreign

then immune system attacks normal cells

259
Q

allergic rxns occur when

A

nonthreatening exposures incite an inflammatory response

260
Q

immunization induces….

A

active immunity

activation of b-cells that produce antibodies

261
Q

passive immunity is the transfer of

A

antibodies to an individual

e.g. breast milk

262
Q

what is the lymphatic system?

A

circulatory system that consists of one-way vessels w/ intermittent lymph nodes

263
Q

lymphatic system provides for

A

mounting immune responses

264
Q

lymphatic system connects to the…

A

cardiovascular system via the thoracic duct in the posterior chest

265
Q

lymphatic system equalizes fluid distribution and….

A

transports fats / fat-soluble compounds in chylomicrons

266
Q

edema results when the lymphatic system is overwhelmed…

A

and can’t drain excess fluid from tissues

267
Q

intracellular digestion is the oxidation of….

A

glucose and fatty acids to make energy

268
Q

extracellular digestion is the process by which

A

nutrients are obtained from food

occurs in alimentary canal

269
Q

mechanical digestion is the

A

physical breakdown of large food molecules into smaller particles

270
Q

chemical digestions is the enzymatic cleavage of…

A

chemical bonds

such as peptide bonds in protein or the glycosidic bonds of starches

271
Q

peristalsis is the rhythmic contractions of the….

A

gut tube

increase parasympathetic NS

decrease sympathetic NS

272
Q

feeding behavior hormones

A

ADH + aldosterone: increase thirst

glucagon + ghrelin: increase hunger

leptin + CCK: increase satiety

273
Q

what is the duodenum?

A

first part of small intenstine

basic (pH = 8.5)

site of majority of chem digestion

274
Q

enzymes in duodenum

A

disaccharidases

aminopeptidase + dipeptidase

enteropeptidase

275
Q

disaccharidases are brush-border enzymes that break down….

A

maltose, isomaltose, lactose, sucrose into monosaccharides

276
Q

aminopeptidase + dipeptidase are

A

brush-border peptidases

277
Q

enteropeptidase activates

A

trypsinogen and procarboxypeptidases

278
Q

hormones in duodenum

A

secretin

cholecystokinin (CCK)

279
Q

secretin is a

A

peptide hormone

stimulated release of pancreatic juices and slows motility

280
Q

cholecystokinin stimulates bile release from

A

gallbladder

release of pancreatic juices and satiety

281
Q

digestive pathway

A

oral cavity

pharynx

esophagus

stomach

small intestine

large intestine

rectum

282
Q

what happens in the oral cavity

A

mastication (starts mech digestion)

salivary amylase + lipase start chem digestion of food

food is formed into a bolus + swallowed

283
Q

the pharynx connects the mouth to the

A

esophagus

epiglottis prevents food from entering the larynx

284
Q

esophagus propels food to the stomach using….

A

peristalsis

285
Q

top third of esophagus has skeletal…

A

muscle and is under somatic control

286
Q

bottom third of esophagus has

A

smooth muscle

under autonomic control

287
Q

middle third of esophagus has combo of both

A

skeletal and smooth muscles

under autonomic control

288
Q

stomach has what kind of pH

A

acidic pH (pH = 2)

289
Q

four parts of the stomach

A

fundus

body

antrum

pylorus

290
Q

pepsin breaks down

A

proteins

pepsin is an enzyme

291
Q

secretory cells lining stomach

A

mucous cells

chief cells

parietal cells

g-cells

292
Q

mucous cells produce

A

bicarbonate-rich mucus to protect stomach wall from acid

293
Q

chief cells secrete

A

pepsinogen (a protease activated by the acidic environment)

294
Q

parietal cells secrete

A

HCl and intrinsic factor (needed for vitamin B-12 absorption)

295
Q

g-cells secrete

A

gastrin

gastrin is a peptide hormone that increase HCl secretion and gastric motility

296
Q

after processing in the stomach, food particles are now….

A

chyme

297
Q

chyme exits through pyloric sphincter into –>

A

DUODENUM

298
Q

jejunum and ileum of the small intestine are primarily involved in

A

absorption

small intestine is lined w/ villi (covered with microvilli)

299
Q

each villi is comprised of

A

capillary bed: absorbs water-soluble nutrients

lacteal: absorbs fat, sends to lymphatic system

300
Q

large intestine absorbs

A

water and salts, forms feces

301
Q

vitamin absorption

A

fat-soluble: only A, D, E, K enter lacteal

water-soluble: all others enter plasma directly

302
Q

cecum is the

A

outpocketing that accepts fluids from small intestine thru the ileocecal valve

site of attachment of the appendix

303
Q

colon structure

A

ascending / transverse / descending / sigmoid

304
Q

gut bacteria produces which vitamins

A

vitamin K and biotin (vitamin B7)

305
Q

accessory organs originate from

A

endoderm

306
Q

pancreas contain acinar cells which produce pancreatic juices that contain:

A

bicarbonate

pancreatic amylase

pancreatic peptidases

pancreatic lipase

307
Q

liver synthesizes

A

bile, albumin, clotting factors

process nutrients

detox (NH3 –> urea) as well as alcohol and drugs

308
Q

liver receives blood from the…

A

abd portion of the digestive tract via hepatic portal vein

309
Q

gallbladder stores and concentrates

A

bile

310
Q

CCK stimulates bile release into….

A

billary tree which merges w/ pancreatic duct

311
Q

excretory (urine) pathway

A

bowman’s space

proximal convoluted tubule

descending limb of the loop of Henle

ascending limb of the loop of Henle

distal convoluted tubule

collecting duct

renal pelvis

ureter

bladder

urethra

312
Q

kidney contains

A

a cortex and medulla

313
Q

kidney produces urine which dumps into ureter at the….

A

renal pelvis

urine then collects in the bladder until excreted through the urethra

314
Q

nephron is the functioning unit of the

A

kidney

315
Q

renal portal system is comprised of

A

two capillary beds in series (glomeruli + nephron)

316
Q

blood flow (via renal portal system)

A

renal artery

afferent arterioles

glomureli

efferent arteriole

vasa recta (surround nephron)

renal vein

317
Q

filtration via kidney

A

bowman’s capsule moves solutes from blood –> filtrate

318
Q

filtration direction and rate are determined by

A

hydrostatic and oncotic pressure differentials b/w glomerulus and bowman’s space

319
Q

secretion is the movement of solutes from blood to

A

filtrate anywhere other than Bowman’s capsule

320
Q

reabsorption is the movement of

A

solutes from filtrate to blood

320
Q

pH can be regulated by the kidney with…

A

bicarbonate and H+

321
Q

aldosterone is the (what hormone) made in where

A

steroid hormone made in the adrenal cortex in response to angiotensin 2 or high K+

derived from cholesterol

322
Q

aldosterone increases

A

Na+ reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct

increases water reabsorption

increased BP, no change in blood osmolarity (RESULT)

323
Q

ADH (vasopressin) is a peptide hormone synthesized by

A

hypothalamus and released by posterior pituitary

increase permeability of collecting duct to water which water reabsorbs

result: increased BP and decreased blood osmolarity, concentrated urine

324
Q

proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) is the site of

A

bulk reabsorption of glucose, AA, solube vitamins, salt, water

site of secretion for H+, K+, NH3, urea

325
Q

descending limb of the loop of henle is permeable to….

A

water but NOT salt

filtrate moves into the more osmotically concentrated renal medulla

water is reabsorbed from filtrate

326
Q

contercurrent multiplier system

A

vasa recta and nephron flow in opp directions

creating a countercurrent multiplier system

allows maximal reabsorption of water

327
Q

ascending limb of the loop of henle is permeable to

A

salt but NOT water

salt is reabsorbed passively/actively

328
Q

the diluting segment is in the outer medulla b/c

A

salt is actively reabsorbed in this site

filtrate becomes hypotonic compared to the blood

329
Q

distal convoluted tubule (DCT) is responsive to

A

aldosterone

site of salt reabsorption + waste product excretion like the PCT

330
Q

collecting duct is responsive to both

A

aldosterone and ADH

has variable permeability

allows reabsorption of the right amount of water depending on body’s needs

331
Q

detrusor muscle is the

A

muscular lining of the bladder

parasympathetic control

332
Q

internal urethral sphincter is made of

A

smooth muscle

parasympathetic control

333
Q

external urethral sphincter is made of

A

skeletal muscle

voluntary muscle

334
Q

skin layers

A

epidermis

dermis

hypodermis (subcutaneous layer)

335
Q

epidermis - types of cells/layers

A

stratum basale
stratum spinosum
startum granulosum
stratum luciderm
stratum corneum

336
Q

stratum basal

A

stem cells –> keratinocytes

337
Q

stratum spinosum

A

lagerhans cells

338
Q

stratum granulosum

A

keratinocytes die

339
Q

stratum luciderm

A

only on thick, hairless skin

340
Q

stratum corneum

A

multi thin layers, flat keratinocytes

341
Q

langerhans cells are macrophages that are

A

antigen-presenting cells in skin

342
Q

melanin is produced by

A

melanocytes

protects skin from DNA damages caused by ultraviolet radiation

343
Q

dermis is which layers

A

papillary and reticular layers

344
Q

merkel cells are responsible for

A

deep pressure + texture

345
Q

free nerve endings are responsible

A

for pain

346
Q

meissner’s corpuscles are responsible for

A

light touch

347
Q

ruffini endings are responsible for

A

stretching

348
Q

pacinian corpuscles are responsible for

A

deep pressure and vibration

349
Q

hypodermis is the

A

fat and connective tissue

connects skin to body

350
Q

thermoregulation is responsible for

A

sweating

piloerection

shivering

vasodillation/vasoconstriction

351
Q

sweating is

A

evaporative cooling

352
Q

piloerection is

A

warming

353
Q

shivering is

A

warming

354
Q

vasodillation/vasoconstriction

A

cool/warm

355
Q

skeletal muscles function

A

support + movement, blood propulsion, thermoregulation, striated

voluntary (somatic) control

multinucleated

356
Q

red fibers

A

skeletal muscle

slow twitch / support / carry out oxidative phosphorylation

357
Q

white fibers is part of what kind of muscle

A

skeletal muscle

fast-twitch

active / anaerobic metabolism

358
Q

smooth muscle is found in which systems

A

respiratory, reproductive, cardiovascular, digestive systems

involuntary (autonomic) control

uninucleated

can display myogenic activity w/o neural input

359
Q

cardiac muscle is the

A

contractile tissue of the heart

involuntary (autonomic) contro

uninucleated (sometimes binucleated)

360
Q

skeletal system is derived from

A

mesoderm

361
Q

axial skeleton is comprised of the

A

skulls

vertebral column

ribcage

hyoid bone

362
Q

appendicular skeleton is comprised of

A

bones of limbs, pectoral girdle, pelvis

363
Q

compact bone function

A

strength and density

364
Q

spongy bone (cancellous) is the

A

lattice-like structure of bony spicules known as trabeculae

cavities filled w/ bone marrow

365
Q

bone marrow

A

red: filled with hemtopoietic stem cells

yellow: fat

366
Q

long bones are shafts called

A

DIAPHYSIS that flare to form metaphyses

terminate in epiphyses

367
Q

epiphyses contain

A

epiphyseal (growth) palte

368
Q

periosterum is the

A

connective tissue surrounding bone

369
Q

ligaments attach bones

A

to other bones

370
Q

tendons attach bones to

A

muscles

371
Q

bone matrix is comprised of

A

osteons which are the primary structural unit of compact bone

372
Q

osteons are the chief structural unit of compact bone consisting of……

A

concentric bone layers called lamellae

373
Q

lamellae surround a long hollow passageway called

A

the Haversian canal

374
Q

b/w concentric rings are lacunae where

A

osteocytes reside connected with cancaliculi

375
Q

bone remodeling cells

A

osteoblasts build bone

osteroclasts reabsorb bone

376
Q

during bone remodeling, parathyroid hormone

A

increases resorption of bone and blood calcium

377
Q

during bone remodeling, vitamin D increases…

A

reabsorption of bone and blood calcium

378
Q

during bone remodeling, calcitonin increases…

A

bone formation, decrease blood calcium in blood

379
Q

cartilage is

A

firm and elastic

matrix is chondrin

secreted by chondrocytes

avascular + NOT innervated

380
Q

immovable joints are formed together to form

A

sutures

381
Q

movable joints are strengthened by

A

ligaments and contains a synovial capsule

382
Q

synovial fluid is secreted by

A

synovium

lubricated joints

383
Q

bones form from cartilage through

A

endochondral ossification

384
Q

skull bones form directly from

A

mesenchyme in intramembranous ossification

385
Q

sarcomeres are basic

A

contractile unit of striated muscule

THICK myosin and THIN actin filmanets

386
Q

troponin and tropomyosin found on the thin filament and

A

regulate actin-myosin interaction

387
Q

Z lines define the

A

boundary of each sarcomere

388
Q

M line is the

A

middle of sarcomere

389
Q

I-band is only the

A

actin filaments

390
Q

H-zone is filled only with the

A

myosin filaments

391
Q

A-band contains both

A

actin and myosin

only part that maintains a constant size during contraction

392
Q

sarcomeres attach end-to-end to become

A

myofibrils

each myocyte contains many myofibrils

393
Q

sarcoplasmic reticulum is filled with

A

Ca2+

and is a modified endoplasmic reticulum

394
Q

sarcolemma is the

A

cell membrane of a myocyte

395
Q

t-tubules is connected to

A

sarcolemma and carried signals

396
Q

contraction begins at the

A

neuromuscular junction

397
Q

efferent neurons releases acetylcholine that binds to

A

receptors on the sacrolemma, causing depolarization

398
Q

depolarization spreads down the sarcolemma to

A

T-tubules, triggering the Ca2+ release

399
Q

Ca2+ binds to troponin, causing a shift in tropomyosin and

A

exposure of the myosin-binding sites on the acting filament

400
Q

shortening of the sarcormere occurs as myosin heads…

A

bind to the exposed sites on actin

forms cross bridges and pulls the actin filament along the thick filament

“sliding filament model”

401
Q

muscles relax when acetylcholine is

A

degraded by acetylcholinesterase

terminated signal and allows Ca2+ to return to the SR (sarcoplasmic reticulum)

402
Q

ATP binds to myosin head, allowing it to release from

A

actin

403
Q

simple twitch

A

single muscle fiber responds to brief stimulus

404
Q

frequency summation is the addition of multiple…

A

simple twitches before muscle fully relaxes

405
Q

oxygen debt is the difference b/w

A

oxygen needed and the oxygen present

406
Q

creatine phosphate adds a

A

phosphate group to ADP, forming ATP

407
Q

myoglobin is a heme-containing protein that

A

is a muscular oxygen reserve

408
Q

what are alleles?

A

alt form of a gene

409
Q

dominant allel only requires

A

1 copy in order to be expressed

410
Q

recessive allele requires

A

two copies in order to be expressed

411
Q

genotype is the combination of

A

alleles one has at a given locus

412
Q

homozygous genotype

A

have two of the same allele

413
Q

heterozygous genotype

A

having two diff alleles

414
Q

phenotype

A

observable manifestation of a genotype

415
Q

complete dominance

A

only one dominant allele

416
Q

codominance

A

more than one dominant allele

417
Q

incomplete dominance

A

no dominant alleles

heterozygotes have intermediate phenotypes

418
Q

penetrance is the proportion of individuals carrying a

A

particular allele that also express an associated phenotype

419
Q

expressivity is the

A

varying phenotypic outcomes of a genotype

420
Q

genetic leakage is the flow of genes b/w…

A

species via hybrid offspring

421
Q

genetic drift is when the composition of the

A

gene pool changes and a result of chance

422
Q

founder effect:

A

bottlenecks that suddenly isolate a small population

INBREEDING

423
Q

taxonomic system

A

King Philip Came Over From Great Spain

Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species

424
Q

point mutations is the substituting of

A

one nucleotide for another

425
Q

frameshift mutations is moving the

A

3 letter reading frame

426
Q

silent result of nucleotide mutations

A

no effect on protein

427
Q

missense result of nucleotide mutations replace…..

A

one AA with another

428
Q

nonsense result of nucleotide mutations

A

STOP codon replaces in an AA

429
Q

insertion/deletion result of nucleotide mutations

A

shift in the reading frame

leading to a change in all downstream AAs

430
Q

chromosomal mutations are

A

much larger mutations, affecting whole segments of DNA

431
Q

deletion is a type of chromosomal mutation where

A

large segment of DNA is lost

432
Q

duplication is when a segment of DNA is…

A

copied multiple times

433
Q

inversion - chromosomal mutations

A

segment of DNA is reversed

434
Q

insertion is a chromosomal mutation where a

A

segment of DNA is moved from one chromosome to another

435
Q

translocation is a chromosomal mutation where a

A

segment of DNA is swapped with a segment of DNA from another chromosome

436
Q

law of segregation is when an organism has

A

two alleles for each gene

segregated during Anaphase I

b/c of this gametes carry only one allele for a trait

437
Q

law of independent assortment is the

A

inheritance of one allele does not influence the probability of inheriting a given allele for a diff trait

except for linked genes

438
Q

punnett squares

A

monohybrid cross accounts for ONE gene

dihybrid crosses account for TWO genes

sex-linked cross is linked to the x-chromosome

439
Q

recombination frequency is the likelihood of

A

two alleles being separated during crossing over in mieosis

farther = increased likelihood of separation

440
Q

hardy-weinberg principle is if a population meets certain criteria then allele…

A

frequencies will remain constant

441
Q

hardy-weinberg equation

A

P + q = 1

P^2 + 2Pq + q^2 = 1

P = dominant allele fre
q = recessive allele freq

442
Q

griffith experiment

A

demonstrated transformation

heat-killed smooth (virulent) strain of bacteria still transformed rough strain into smooth

443
Q

avery-macleod-mccarty experiment

A

degradation of DNA –> cessation of bacterial transformation

degradation of proteins did not

444
Q

hershey-chase experiment

A

confirmed DNA is the genetic material b/c only radiolabeled DNA could be found in bacteriophage-infected bacteria

444
Q

what is natural selection?

A

mechanism for evolution = natural seleection

445
Q

modern synthesis model

A

neo-darwinism

mutation and recombination are mechanisms of variation

differential reproduction

446
Q

inclusive fitness is where if a population meet certain criteria then…

A

the allele frequencies will remain constant

(aimed at a lack of evolution)

447
Q

punctuated equilibrium considers evolution to be a very slow…

A

process w/ intermittent rapid bursts of evol activity

448
Q

stabilizing selection is a mode of natural selection which

A

keeps phenotypes in a narrow range exclusing extremes

449
Q

directional selection moves average phenotype…

A

toward an extreme

450
Q

disruptive selection moves toward two phenotypes at the…

A

extremes

leads to speciation

mode of nat sel

451
Q

adaptive radiation

A

rapid emergence of multiple species from a common ancestor (each has a niche)

452
Q

isolation is when organisms are

A

reproductively isolated from each other by pre- or postzygotic mechanisms

453
Q

molecular clock model is the degree of difference in the

A

genome b/w two species + is related to the amt of time since two species broke off from a common ancestor

454
Q

what happens in G1

A

make mRNA and proteins to prep for mitosis

455
Q

G0

A

a cell will enter G0 if division IS NOT NEEDED

456
Q

G1 checkpt

A

cell decides if it should divide

p53 in charge

457
Q

S stage

A

DNA replicated

458
Q

G2

A

cell growth

makes organelles

459
Q

G2 checkpoint

A

check cell size

organelles

460
Q

M stage

A

mitosis and cyotkinesis

461
Q

Rh- person will only create anti-Rh antibodies after….

A

exposure to Rh+ blood

462
Q

induction is mediated by…

A

INDUCERS aka growth factors

463
Q

b-cells are activated in…

A

spleen / lymph nodes

464
Q

b-cells express…

A

antibodies on cell surface

465
Q

COPII vesicles exports new synthesized…

A

secretory proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum/ER

466
Q

COPI vesicles facilitate traffic from…

A

Golgi to the ER and intra-Golgi transport

467
Q

glycolysis produces

A

2 NADH and 4 ATP

= 7 ATP total

468
Q

1 pyruvate makes

A

1 NADH in the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex

469
Q

glucose forms how many pyruvates in the PDC

A

2 pyruvates

470
Q

PDC generates a total of how many NADH per glucose molecule

A

2 NADH

471
Q

how many ATP are made by PDC

A

5 atp

472
Q

citric acid cycle products

A

6 NADH + 2 FADH2 + 2 GTP = 20 ATP

473
Q

total energy produced from one glucose =

A

32 ATP

474
Q

each NADH results in how many ATP

A

2.5 ATP

10 NADH –> 25 ATP

475
Q

each FADH2 results in how many ATP

A

1.5 FADH2

2 FADH2 forms 3 ATP

476
Q

oxidative phosphorylation includes

A

ETC and chemiosmosis

477
Q

ETC occurs in where

A

eukaryotes: mitochondria

prokaryotes: cell membrane

478
Q

inhibitors for citrate synthase

A

ATP
NADH
citrate
succinyl-CoA

479
Q

activator for citrate synthase

A

ADP

480
Q

isocitrate dehydrogenase is what kind of enzyme

A

rate limiting enzyme

481
Q

inhibitors for isocitrate dehydrogenase

A

ATP and NADH

482
Q

activators for isocitrate dehydrogenase

A

ADP and NAD+

483
Q

inhibitors for alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex

A

succinyl-CoA

NADH

ATP

484
Q

activator for alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex

A

ADP

485
Q

citric acid cycle occurs where

A

eukaryotes: mitochondrial matrix

prokaryotes: cytoplasm

486
Q

where does gluconeogenesis take place?

A

mainly in liver

and in kidney sometimes

487
Q

where does glycolysis take place?

A

cytoplasm

488
Q

how many carbons in glucose

A

6

489
Q

how many carbons in pyruvate?

A

3 carbons

490
Q

how many pyruvates produced by glycolysis?

A

2 pyruvates

491
Q

homologous regions are areas of

A

protein/gene sequence similarity b/w organisms from same or different species

492
Q

during replication, what attaches uncoupled dNTPS to the growing DNA strand?

A

DNA polymerase

493
Q

each dNTP (dTTP, dATP, dCTP, dGTP) composed of

A

a base, a deoxyribose sugar, 3 phosphate (PO4) groups

494
Q

what is a thymidine analog?

A

molecules can be incorporated into a growing DNA strand in place of thymidine which bonds to adenosine via 2 H bonds

495
Q

bc of the AT/CG rule of complementary base pairing, a free dNTP…

A

enters the catalytic site of DNA polymerase and forms H bonds with a complementary nucleotide on the parent strand

496
Q

the 3’ OH from the last nucleotide of the new growing strand

A

attacks the 5’ PO4 of the incoming dNTP

497
Q

during cDNA cloning, an mRNA

A

is idenified in an organism

498
Q

mRNA can be isolated and mixed with

A

complementary primers known as oligo(dT) primers (composed of thymine nucleotides)

499
Q

primers bind mRNA 3’ poly-A tails and the enzyme…

A

reverse transcriptase uses dNTPs to generate SS DNA from target mRNAs

500
Q

mRNA strand is degraded and resulting DNA is

A

amplified using DNA polymerase and PCR

501
Q

restriction enzyme can cut DNA and

A

generate complementary sticky ends that anneal when molecules mix together

502
Q

RNA polymerase function

A

synthesize various types of RNA but not used in cDNA cloning b/c mRNA is already present

503
Q
A
504
Q

x are a class of corticosteroids and include cortisol

A

glucocorticoids

released by adrenal cortex

505
Q

what do mucous cells product to protect stomach wall from acid

A

bicarbonate rich mucus

506
Q

what do chief cells in the stomach secrete

A

pepsinogen and gastric lipase

507
Q

what does insulin do

A

signals liver, muscle, fat cells to take in glucose from the blood

508
Q

insulin is secreted by what

A

beta islet cells of pancreas

509
Q

parietal cells secrete what

A

HCl and intrinsic factor

510
Q

what is the intrinsic factor needed for

A

vitamin b12 absorption

511
Q

what does active immunity do

A

activate b cells that produce antibodies

512
Q

episomes are

A

plasmids integrated into genome

513
Q

examples of episomes

A

insertion sequences and transposons

viruses

F factor

514
Q

how is cell membrane’s resting potential maintained

A

more K+ leak channels than Na+ channels

mire K+ will leave the cell compared to Na+ entering

negative charge inside

515
Q

in an electrical synapse, there is a direct physical connection between

A

the presynaptic and post synaptic neuron

516
Q

electric current in the form of ions flow

A

between cells

517
Q

where does K+ leave through

A

voltage gated K+ channels and leak channels

518
Q

gut microbiota produces

A

vitamin K and biotin (vitamin B7)

519
Q

what are white blood cells involved in mainly

A

immune responses

recognize and neutralize invaders such as bacteria and viruses

520
Q

first part of large intestine and outpocketing that accepts fluid from small intenstine is called

A

cecum

521
Q

hemoglobin disassociation curve is

A

sigmoidal bc 3 hemes quickly bind their own oxygen molecule

522
Q

AV node does what

A

part of electrical conduction system or heart that coordinates top of heart

electrically connects atria and ventricles

523
Q

lack of nucleus, mitochondria and organelles in RBCs reason

A

to carry more oxygen

524
Q

mast cells release what to create an inflammatory cascade

A

cytokines and granules

525
Q

what glycoproteins are present in ALL nucleated cells

A

MHC I

526
Q

MHC II are present in

A

specialized antigen presenting cells such as macrophages, dendritic cells, b cells

527
Q

macrophages ingest

A

pathogens and present them on MHC II

528
Q

what has four polypeptide chains (tetramer) with an iron containing heme group combined with each

A

hemoglobin

529
Q

myoglobin dissociation curve shape

A

hyperbolic

530
Q

MHC I displays what

A

endogenous antigen to cytotoxic CD8+ t cells

531
Q

b cells mature into

A

plasma cells that product antibodies

532
Q

myoglobin has how many heme groups

A

1

533
Q

fetal hemoglobin has a higher or lower p50

A

lower because of high oxygen affinity

534
Q

antigen binding region of an antibody is the

A

tip of the variable region

535
Q

what does ADH do?

A

increases permeability of collecting duct to water –> increases water reabsorption

results: higher BP + lower blood osmolarity + concentrated urine

536
Q

kidney is the only organ in the body to have

A

two capillary beds in series

537
Q

capillary beds in series in kidney do what?

A

connect arteries to veins inside nephron

538
Q

two capillary beds in kidney are

A

glomerular

peritubular

539
Q

aldosterone increases what in where

A

Na+ reabsorption

distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct

540
Q

what does aldosterone end up doing

A

increases water reabsorption and blood pressure

541
Q

what is the muscular lining of the bladder

A

detrusor muscle

542
Q

what does the detrusor muscle do

A

relaxes to store urine and contracts during urination

under parasympathetic control (rest + digest)

543
Q

site of bulk reabsorption

A

PCT (proximal convoluted tubule) in renal cortex

544
Q

what does the PCT reabsorb

A

glucose

AAs

soluble vitamins

salt

water

H+, K+, NH3, urea

545
Q

internal sphincter is made of

A

smooth muscle

under parasympathetic control

546
Q

DCT is permeable to

A

water but NOT SALT

547
Q

as filtrate moves into the more osmotically concentrated renal medulla….

A

water is reabsorbed from filtrate

548
Q

network of capillaries located at beginning of each nephron in kidney

A

glomerulus

549
Q

what stimulates b-cells to secrete antibodies

A

helper t-cells

550
Q

unlike microfilaments and microtubules, intermediate filaments do not

A

participate in cell motility

e.g. keratin and desmin

551
Q

what do the kidneys do

A

help body pass waste as urine

filter blood before sending it back to heart

552
Q

intermediate filaments do what to cells

A

link cells together

do not have a transport role

553
Q

what detoxifies chemicals and converts NH3 to urea

A

the liver

554
Q

aldosterone increases Na+ reabsorption in the

A

DCT and collecting duct

thereby increasing water reabsorption and raising BP

555
Q

kdiney regulated pH by adjusting the levels of

A

excreted H+ and reabsorbed bicarbonate

556
Q

countercurrent multiplier system allows for

A

maximal reabsorption of water

557
Q

what flows in opp directions to create countercurrent multiplier system

A

vasa recta and loop of Henle

558
Q

diluting segment of the nephron is in the

A

outer medulla bc salt is actively reabsorbed in this site

559
Q

what inhibits GH and what’s the result

A

somatostatin (GHIH)
leads to lower insulin/glucagon

glucagon (alpha islet cells) - stored form of sugar in liver
insulin (beta islet cells)

560
Q

GHIH hormone is a

A

peptide hormone secreted by delta-islet cells of pancreas

561
Q

DCT is responsive to

A

aldosterone and is a site of salt reabsorption + waste product excretion just like the PCT

562
Q

collecting duct has what kind of permeability

A

variable

563
Q

variable permeability in collecting duct allows for

A

reabsorption of the right amount of water depending on the body’s needs

responsive to both aldosterone and ADH

564
Q

2,3-BPG has no effect on

A

myoglobin

565
Q

BPG works by binding in the space between

A

the subunits in hemoglobin (heterotetramer)

566
Q

myoglobin has just one what

A

monomer

which is why i.t. isn’t affected by 2,3-BPG

567
Q

muscles act in

A

groups to create movement

568
Q

opposing pairs of muscles

A

flexors/extensors

abductors/adductors

569
Q

an agonist is a muscle that

A

is causing the desired action

570
Q

an antagonist is a muscle that is

A

relaxed

571
Q

explains why myoglobin oxygen saturation curve is hyperbolic

A

because of only one heme group being present

NO cooperative binding

572
Q

red skeletal muscle fibers are

A

slow twitch and carry out oxphos

red color comes from myoglobin (binds oxygen)

573
Q

muscle fibers in long distance running

A

SLOW TWITCH

RED

574
Q

muscle fibers in middle distance and sprinting

A

FAST TWITCH

WHITE

575
Q

what are ruffini endings responsible for

A

sensation of skin stretching

576
Q

white skeletal muscle fibers are

A

fast twitch and carry out anaerobic metabolism

577
Q

individual virus particles found in extracellular

A

virion

578
Q

virions contain

A

nucleic acid

capsid

579
Q

what forms the supporting tissue of blood vessels and hollow internal organs?

A

smooth muscle

580
Q

hollow organs examples

A

arteries + veins

airways

uterus

entire GI tract

bladder

ureters

iris (eye)

581
Q

what does the G mean in G-protein

A

binding to GTP and GDP

582
Q

mineralocorticoids are a class of what and include which hormone

A

corticosteroids

aldosterone

released by adrenal cortex

583
Q

smooth muscle is uni or multinucleated

A

uninucleated

no striations

involuntary (autonomic control)

584
Q

cardiac muscle is uni or multinucleated

A

uninucleated

striated

under autonomic control

585
Q

what is meissner’s corpuscle

A

type of nerve ending in skin that is responsible for sensitivity to light touch

586
Q

cardiac muscles are connected with what that contains what

A

intercalated discs

gap junctions

587
Q

what includes the skull, vertebral column, ribcage and hyoid bone?

A

axial skeleton

588
Q

endocrine signalling releases signals into the

A

bloodstream to carry to target cells in distant parts of body

589
Q

what includes the limbs, pectoral girdle, and pelvis

A

appendicular skeleton

590
Q

what is tidal volume

A

volume of air inhaled and exhaled in a normal breath

591
Q

what is the hard structure of the skeleton made of

A

compact bone (aka cortical bone)

592
Q

as each drop of sweat evaporates…

A

it takes a bit of body heat away with it

593
Q

type of bone located at the ends of long bones

A

spongy bone

594
Q

where does tyrosine become catecholamines usually

A

adrenal medulla

located at center of adrenal gland, surrounded by adrenal cortex which sits on top of kidneys

595
Q

thin membrane that covers many of the bones in body

A

periosteum

596
Q

platelets, RBCs, WBCs are produced in the

A

bone marrow

597
Q

long bones provide

A

strength, structure, mobility

598
Q

DCT is responsive to

A

aldosterone and site of salt reabsorption

599
Q

ligaments attach

A

bones to other bones

600
Q

tendons attach

A

bones to muscles

601
Q

another name for bone tissue

A

osseus tissue

602
Q

nerve endings in skin responsible for sensitivity to vibration and pressure

A

pacinian corpuscles

603
Q

chief structural unit of compact bone

A

osteon

604
Q

osteon consist of

A

lamellae (concentric bone layers) which surround a hollow passageway (Haversian canal)

605
Q

free nerve endings in the skin can detect

A

temperature, mechanical stimuli (touch/pressure/stretch) or pain (nociception)

606
Q

merkel cells are

A

mechanoreceptors essential for light touch sensation

607
Q

what surround blood vessels and nerve cells throughout bones and communicate w/ bone cells through what?

A

haversian canals

canaliculi

608
Q

canaliculi are

A

small channels that link together lacunae in bones

609
Q

innate immunity are defenses that are always

A

active and non-specific

610
Q

two layers of dermis

A

papillary and reticular layers

611
Q

adaptive immunity are defenses that are always

A

active and specific

612
Q

osteoblasts do what

A

build bone

613
Q

osteoclasts do what

A

reabsorb bone

614
Q

osteoblasts mature into

A

new osteocytes

615
Q

osteocytes are

A

mature, permanent bone cells

616
Q

osteoclasts reaborb

A

old osteocytes

617
Q

cell membrane is high permeable to what and slightly permeable to what

A

K+

Na+

618
Q

movement through leak channels is controlled by

A

concentration gradients

619
Q

what is cartilage

A

connective tissue that is firm but flexible

connects bones together

620
Q

avascular and aneural applies to

A

cartilage

621
Q

avascular means

A

no blood vessels

622
Q

aneural =

A

no nerves

623
Q

chondroblasts produces

A

new matrix

624
Q

chondrocytes are

A

found in small groups within cavities (lacunae)

625
Q

what is cartilage made of

A

collagen fibers

elastic fibers

water (80%)

626
Q

cartilage being 80% water means

A

cartilage can rebound after being compressed

nourishing to cartilage cells

627
Q

norepinephrine is a

A

catecholamine

increases HR and BP

628
Q

what type of joints are fused together to form sutures?

A

immovable

629
Q

interphase includes

A

G1, S, G2 phases

where cell spends most of its life

630
Q

Na+ ions enter cell through

A

voltage-gated Na+ channels

631
Q

Ca2+ enters the presynaptic cell and allows…

A

vesicles w/ NTs inside to fuse w/ the axon terminal membrane

NTs release into synaptic cleft

632
Q
A

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