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MCAT Practice Full Lengths > Full Length #3 > Flashcards

Full Length #3 Flashcards

1
Q

when the human body is going through starvation, you can generate glucose from:

A
  • glycerol: can synthesize glucose via gluconeogenesis
  • glycogen
  • amino acids - can be used as substrated for gluconeogenesis
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2
Q

why is it that after several weeks of starvation, acetyl-CoA is primarily converted into ketone bodies?

A
  • in starvation, large amouns of acetyl-CoA are generated by the degradation of fatty acids
  • oxaloacetate concentration is depleted because it is used to synthesize glucose
  • so although excess acetyl CoA is made during starvation, very little of it can be incorporated into the Krebs cycle because of low oxaloacetate concentrations
  • instead the acetyl CoA is used to produce ketone bodies
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3
Q

increased expressivity

A

expressivity is the measure of the severity of a disease or the intensity of a phenotype

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4
Q

pentrance

A

a measure of the number of persons with an allele for a condition that display the condition

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5
Q

mortality

A

measure of the death rate in a population

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6
Q

morbidity

A

measure of illness

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7
Q

meissner’s corpuscle

A

tactile processing units in the skin

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8
Q

A patient who has gained 40 pounds in the past 3 months complains of fatigue to her physician. She found to have a goiter and a decreased metabolic rate. Based on this information, the patient most likely has a deficiency of

A

thyroxine

  • is a thyroid hormone that plays an important role in regulating metabolism
  • hasa goiter, which is an increase in mass of the thyroid
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9
Q

aldosterone

A

synthesized in the adrenal gland

  • regulates electrolyte excretion and intravascular volume
  • affects sodium, potassium, total fluid in the body, and blood pressure
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10
Q

estrogen

A

development of female secondary sexual characteristics

-breasts, endometrium, regulation of the menstural cycle

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11
Q

which of the following would be expected in methanol poisoning?

A

metabolic acidosis

-methanol produces formic acid, which will increase arterial [H+]

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12
Q

metabolic alkalosis

A

caused by the loss of an acid of the gain of a base

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13
Q

hypoventilation

A

results from metabolic alkalosiss in order to help the body retain acid

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14
Q

what do amino acids do during isoelectric focusing?

A

they migrate towards a pH near their pI

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15
Q

where is the anode in an amino acid?

A

the end of the gel with a low pH

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16
Q

where is the cathode in the amino acid?

A

the end with of the gel with a high pH

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17
Q

when an amino acid is at a pH about its pI, what will it do?

A

migrate towards the anode

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18
Q

when an amino acid is at a pH below its pI, what will it do?

A

migrate towards the cathode

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19
Q

silent mutation

A

if a codon is replaced with another condon but still codes for the same amino acid

ex: if the GAT codon is changed to GAC condon by replacing thymine with cytosine and the aspartic acid is still coded for

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20
Q

frameshirt mutation

A

an insertion or deletion

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21
Q

missense mutation

A

point mutation that results in a coding for a different amino acid

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22
Q

nonsense mutation

A

point mutation that results in a premature stop codon

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23
Q

lysosome

A

contain numerous enzymes which can break down proteins

also key in recycling

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24
Q

peroxisome

A

role in metabolism

  • break down fatty acids to be used for forming membranes and fuel for respiration
  • transfer hydrogen from compounds to oxygen to create hydrogen peroxide and then convert hydrogen peroxide into water
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25
Q

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

A

think of a factory!!

make cellular products like hormones and lipids
-distributes those products throughout the cell

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26
Q

founder effect

A

the evolutionary phenomenon where certain areas of the world show much higher frequency of particular alleles than other areas

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27
Q

bottleneck effect

A

random culling of a gene pool due to a natural disaster or overhunting

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28
Q

genetic drift

A

the likelihood that the gene pool of a small population will be significantly altered by random mutations

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29
Q

how is mitochondrial DNA passed down?

A

only through the mother’s egg since sperm cells do not have any organelles

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30
Q

all organelles in the embryonic cell come from who

A

the mother

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31
Q

persistent virus

A

needs to keep its host ccell alive and in good working order in order to survive

  • do not kill their host cells bc they rely on them
  • obligate parasites
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32
Q

the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction can be influenced by which of the following?

A

temperature, pH, salinity

  • activity of an enzyme is highly influenced by its environment
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33
Q

which of the following is a method of replication for epithelial cells?

A

mitosis

epithelial cells are identical to one another
epithelial cells are constantly shed from the body and have to be replaced

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34
Q

what levels of protein structure is characterized by alpha-helices and beta sheets?

A

secondary

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35
Q

primary structure

A

simply the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain

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36
Q

secondary structure

A

local folded structure that form within a polypeptide

-alpha helix and beta pleated sheets

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37
Q

tertiary structure

A

3D structure of a polypeptide

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38
Q

quaternary structure

A

multiple polypeptide chains (subunits)

protein consisting of more than one amino acid chain

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39
Q

when the body is readying itself for action, what system is taking over?

A

sympathetic nervous system

  • heart increase= more blood, more oxygen
  • increases the blood supply to active muscle during exercise by dilating blood vessels in muscles while the blood vessels elsewhere in the body are constricted
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40
Q

what are the hypothalamic hormones

A 
ADH
corticotropin-releasing hormone 
gonadotropin releasing hormone 
GHRH 
oxytocin 
somatostatin
thyrotopin releasing hormone
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41
Q

ADH

A

regulates water levels in the body

affects blood pressure and volume

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42
Q

Cortiocotropin-releasing hormone

A

stimulates anxiety

suppresses appetite

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43
Q

gonadotropin releasing hormone

A

stimulates release of hormones that act on testes and ovaries to initiate and maintain reproductive function
-increase in puberty to trigger sexual maturation

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44
Q

growth hormone releasing hormone

A

controls normal physical development in children, metabolism in adults
-increased by sleep, stress, exercise, and low blood glucose

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45
Q

oxytocin

A

synthesized by the hypothalamus and released via the posterior pituitary
controls aspects of some human behavior and key aspects of reproductive system

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46
Q

somatostatin

A

works in inhibit other hormones (growth and thyroid stimulating hormones)
-in the CNS

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47
Q

thyrotropin-releasing hormone

A

stimulates production of thyroid hormone

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48
Q

which cellular component has the most prominent role in the cleavage and contractility of the cytoplasm during such movement?

A

microfilaments

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49
Q

intermediate filaments

A

structurall important in the cytoskeleton

50
Q

microtubules

A

key for maintaining cell shape

51
Q

centrioles

A

microtubule organizing centers

52
Q

what regions of the antibody are involved in the binding of antigenic hormones

A

variable region of the light chain and variable region of the heavy chain

53
Q

what does the constant region of the heavy chain do?

A

involved in cellular recognition

54
Q

what does the constant region of the light chain do?

A

binds tightly to the constant region of the heavy chain

55
Q

when an amino acid reaces its pI, what is it considered?

A

a zwitterion

the molecule is electrically neutral - carboxylate group is (-) and the ammonium group is (+)

56
Q

to attain neutrality and reach the pI, the ammonium group has to be protonated, how can you achieve this?

A

lowering the pH

57
Q

what part of the cell cycle do cells spend most of their time in?

A

inter phase (composed of G1, 2, G2)

58
Q

what are some microscopic clues that the cell is in the M phase?

A
  • dissolution of the nuclear membrane
  • visible chromatin in various states (w/in the nucleus, lining up the equatorial plate, being pulled to opposite poles of the cell)
59
Q

what kind of cells undero meiosis?

A

sex cells

60
Q

cell cycle explained

A

G1 - growth
S - DNA synthesis
G2 growth and preparation for mitosis
M- Mitosis

61
Q

Mitosis

A

prophase
metaphase
anaphase
telophase

62
Q

if Vmax is the same but Km is higher, what kind of inhibition

A

competitive inhibition

competitive chopsticks

63
Q

If Vmax is lower but the Km is the same what kind of inhibition

A

non competitive inhibition

noncompetitive scissors

64
Q

what do cells that use direct phosphorylation use for energy store?

A

creatine phosphate for easy energy transfer to ADP and other molecules

65
Q

what are the modifications that occur during post transcriptional processing?

A
  • addition of the 5’ cap
  • splicing of exons and removal of introns
  • polyadenylation
66
Q

what is the function of the nucleolus

A

site of production of rRNA transcription and processing

-size of nucleolus in a cell will be proportional to the amount of protein produced by the cell - the more protein a cell needs to produce, the more ribosomes it will acquire, the larger its nucelolus

67
Q

where is pepsin produced?

A

the stomach

68
Q

where is glucokinase produced?

A

liver specific form of the first glycolytic enzyme

69
Q

where is amylase produced?

A

in the salivary glands and in the pancreas

70
Q

where is trypsinogen

A

produced in the pancreas

71
Q

what and where is he mitral valve?

A

the mitral valve is between the left atrium and left ventricle
it prevents backflow of blood into the left atrium

72
Q

prefrontal cortex

A

deals with processing and displaying negative emotions

73
Q

cerebellum

A

coordinates and regulates muscular activity

74
Q

pons

A

primarily involved with arousal, controlling autonomic functions, sleep

75
Q

medulla oblongata

A

primarily involved with controlling autonomic functions and coordinated body movements

76
Q

what does the independent variable in a study refer to?

A

refers to the variable being manipulated to see if it has an effect on the result

77
Q

explain Goffman’s theory of dramaturgy

A
  • concerns an individual’s sense of self and self-presentation that changes depending on the situation
  • front stages: interactions with society, an individual knwos his/her behaviors will be openly judge
  • back stages: private areas of our lives where we do not have to “act” but rather can be our true selves
78
Q

outer ear

A

ear canal lined w hairs and glands that secrete wax

-protection and channels sound

79
Q

middle ear

A

transfer sound vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear

  • air spaces that provide routes for infections to travel
  • eustachian tube which equalizes the air presure
80
Q

inner ear

A
  • also called labyrinth
  • operates the body’s sense of balance and contains the hearing organ
  • cochlea
  • organ of Corti: the main hearing organ
81
Q

escape reinforcement

A

based on behavior eliminating an existing negative consequence

82
Q

heuristics

A

mental shortcuts

-used if a student is having trouble with both content and time on a test

83
Q

attribution theory

A

describes the way a person uses information to develop casual explanations

84
Q

Egocentrism

A

refers to the inability to take the perspective of another pereson

85
Q

Ethnocentrism

A

occurs when individuals compare their own cultural practices with others

86
Q

Self concept and identity

A

refers to the way an individual views him or herself

87
Q

cultural capital

A

any non-financial social asset that helps improve an individual’s position/status in society
-can help gain social mobility, where they improve their status/role within a society

88
Q

lyme disease

A

infection disease associated with bites from deers/ticks

89
Q

biological perspective

A

looking at psychological issues by studying the physical basis for animal and human behavior

90
Q

psychoanalytic perspective

A

focuses on an individual’s childhood, subconscious development and sexual instincts

91
Q

humanistic perspective

A

states that personality and human nature follows a hierarchy of needs
-most basic needs, such as food and water, are at the bottom, whereas philosophical needs, such as self-realization are at the pinnacle

92
Q

social cognitive perspective

A

personality is something that can be learned through observation and social interaction

93
Q

social facilitation

A

individuals are more likely to perform better on simple tasks when in the presence of others

94
Q

group think

A

the idea that when an individual participates in a group, a consensus is always the most desired result

95
Q

peer pressure

A

individual’s attitudes and values being highly influenced by the peer group surrounding them

96
Q

social loafing

A

individuals who work in a group to achieve a task exert less effort than if they were working alone to achieve the same task

97
Q

social identity theory

A

a person’s self concept is partially determined from their perceived membership in a social group

98
Q

Cerebrum

A

responsible for integration of sensory input, conscious thought and all voluntary actions

99
Q

Cerebellum

A

responsible for balance and proprioception

100
Q

The midbrain, medulla, and pons make up what

A

the brainstem

-responsible for controlling the very basic necessities for sustaining life, such as breathing, hunger, and adjusting heart rate

101
Q

game theory

A

rational behavior of interacting people

-people are rational beings who act according to their self-interest

102
Q

atruism

A

the idea of doing a good deed for someone else w/o any self-motive

103
Q

cognitive dissonance

A

individuals experience when their actions and their beliefs do not align

104
Q

when do individuals experience more cognitive dissonance?

A

if they believe it was their choice to act in a deviant behavior (high choice)

105
Q

trait perspective

A

believes that individual personality can be broken into countless stable traits that are ubiquitous across all humans and cultures

106
Q

divided attention

A

ability to process two or more responses or react to two or more different demands simultaneously

107
Q

selective attention

A

ability to select from many factors or stimuli and to focus on only the one that you want while filtering out other distractions

108
Q

inferior colliculus

A

part of the midbrain that serves as a main auditory (sound) center for the body

109
Q

hippocampus

A

learning, long term memory and emotional responses

110
Q

hypothalamus functions

A

releasing hormones
regulating body temperature
controlling appetite

111
Q

thalamus function

A

brain’s sensory relay station responsible for sorting sensory stimuli before routing to the target areas in the cortex

112
Q

inclusive fitness

A

refers to the idea that an organism improves its own genetic success through altruistic social behavior

113
Q

what kind of elements are best for conducting electricity?

A

elements with metallic character

-best for conductin electricity and lowering resistance to help shock better

114
Q

in the zwitterion form, what is the charge of the ammonium and carboxyalte group?

A

ammonium: +
carboxylate: -

115
Q

when the pH falls, what is the charge on the ammonium and the carboxylate group?

A

carboxylate: gains hydrogen ions and becomes neutral
ammonium: retain their positive charges so exist as cations

116
Q

when the pH rises above the pI, what happens to the ammonium and carboxylate group?

A

ammonium groups: lose their hydrogen to form neutral amino groups

carboxylate: remain negatively charged

117
Q

what does a logarithmic graph translate into?

A

translates into a straight line on logarithmic scales

118
Q

when light is absorbed by chlorophyll in plants, it is always true that

A

electrons are excited to a higher energy level

-always true that when an atom absorbs energy, its electrons move from their ground state to a higher excited state

119
Q

doppler effect

A

idea that the speed of both the source and detector of a wave will influence the perceived frequency of that wave

120
Q

what will affect the intensity of the wave experienced by a detector?

A

the surface area of the detector

the distance from the source

MCAT Practice Full Lengths (4 decks)

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