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MCAT Practice Full Lengths > Full Length #2 > Flashcards

Full Length #2 Flashcards

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MCAT flashcards
1
Q

what does active transport mean?

A

moving against a gradient

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2
Q

primary active transport

A

directly uses a source of chemical energy (ex. ATP) to move molecules across a membrane against their gradient
ex: sodium-potassium pump

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3
Q

secondary active transport

A

uses an electrochemical gradient (generated by active transport) as an energy source to move molecules against their gradient
-does not directly require a chemical source of energy

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4
Q

passive transport

A

does not require the cell to expend any energy

-substance diffusing down its concentration gradient across a membrane

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5
Q

what type of molecules have trouble crossing the plasma membrane?

A

polar and charged molecules

-polar molecules can easily interact with the outer face of the membrane, where the negatively charge head groups are found (ex: water molecules)

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6
Q

facilitated diffusion

A

molecules diffuse across the plasma membrane with assistance from membrane proteins, such as channels and carriers

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7
Q

exocytosis

A

a vesicle fuses with the cell membrane and expels its contents

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8
Q

What is the correct path of the circulatory system which describes the passage of a blood clot originating in the left leg?

A

vena cava -> right atrium -> right ventricle -> lungs -> left atrium -> left ventricle -> aorta

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9
Q

which heart valves are NOT actively closed by the contraction of muscular structure?

A

semilunar valves

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10
Q

what valves ARE actively closed by the contraction of muscular structure?

A

mitral (left atrioventricular)
atrioventricular
tricuspid (right atrioventricular)

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11
Q

At the instant following the second heart sound, which valves are open?

A

all valves are closed?

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12
Q

Rank the blood vessels in order of their average pressure, from highest to lowest

A

aorta > artery > arteriole > capillary > venule > vein

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13
Q

what layer of the heart would be most immediately susceptible to infections caused by bacteria in the blood?

A

endocardium

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14
Q

what vessels carry deoxygenated blood away from the heart?

A

pulmonary artery only

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15
Q

what kind of cells can usually diffuse across cell membranes?

A

small or non-polar or preferably both

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16
Q

what is the role of competitive inhibition?

A

bind reversibly to the active cite

  • since reversible inhibition can be overcome by adding more substrate, Vmax remains the same
  • increases kM
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17
Q

if an amino acid is at its isoelectric point, what does it exist as?

A

a zwitterion

with positive and negative charges that cancel each other out

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18
Q

for a female to be exhibiting x linked recessive disorders, what kind of chromosomes mush she have?

A

must have two copies of a defective gene

one on each x chromosome

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19
Q

autosomal recessive disorder

A

require the presence of two defective genes in order for that disorder to be expressed

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20
Q

amino acids with acidic R groups

A

glutamic acid, aspartic acid

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21
Q

amino acids with basic R groups

A

histidine, arginine, and lysine

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22
Q

what is the only way to increase the amount of free glutamate in a food source?

A

protein degradation

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23
Q

what does passive transport include?

A

diffusion, facilitated diffusion, and osmosis

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24
Q

facilitated diffusion

A

molecules diffuse across the plasma membrane with assistance from membrane proteins (channels or carriers)

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25
Q

osmosis

A

diffusion of a solvent (usually water molecules) through a semipermeable membrane from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration

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26
Q

fermentation

A

anaerobic process that occurs after glycolysis

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27
Q

what is the relationship between meiosis, fertilization, and mitosis?

A

meiosis halves the chromosome number

fertilization restores the chromosome number

mitosis maintains it

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28
Q

what is the result of meiosis?

A

a gamete has only one of each pair of chromosomes in its nucleus

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29
Q

So if a whole egg is a haploid cell, what does it contain?

A

contains half the number of chromosomes as an autosomal cell

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30
Q

if an autosomal cell is diploid, what does it contain?

A

a full set of chromosomes

with two copies of every chromosome (one of maternal origin, one of paternal origin)

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31
Q

is triose phosphate isomerase used in aerobic or anaerobic respiration?

A

both

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32
Q

cytochrome c oxidase is in

A

the ETC cycle

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33
Q

context effects

A

retrieval cue where memory is aided by the individual being in the same physical location where the original encoding took place

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34
Q

state dependent memory

A

a person’s mental state can affect recall
ex: people who learn facts or skills while intoxicated will show better recall or proficiency when performing those same tasks while intoxicated than while sober

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35
Q

serial position effect

A

retrieval cue that appears while learning lists

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36
Q

spacing effect

A

retaining larger amounts of information when the amount of time between sessions of relearning is increased

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37
Q

James Lange theory

A

stimulus results first in phsycological arousal which leads to a secondary response in which the emotion is labeled

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38
Q

schachter singer theory of emotion

A

both arousal and the labeling of arousal based on environment must occur in order for an emotion to be experienced
-one must analyze the environment in relation to nervous system arousal to feel an emotion

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39
Q

opponent process theory

A

explains the motivation for drug use and tolerance

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40
Q

bottom up reasoning

A

seeks to create a theory via generalizations

-starts with specific instances and then draws a conclusion from them

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41
Q

whats the spinal cords primary function

A

to move information from sensory neurons, to the brain, and back to motor neurons

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42
Q

what is the hypothalamus primary function

A

to regulate homeostasis and integrate with the endocrine system

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43
Q

what is the midbrains main function

A

contains the inferior and superior colliculi, which receive information from the auditory system and visual sensory input

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44
Q

what is the hindbrains main function

A

balance, motor coordination, vital functions, arousal, alertness

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45
Q

what does the hindbrain contain

A

medulla oblongata, pons, and cerebellum

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46
Q

medulla oblongata function

A

responsible for regulating vital functions such as breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure

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47
Q

pons function

A

contains sensory and motor pathways between the cortex and the medulla

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48
Q

cerebellum function

A

helps maintain posture and balance and coordinates body movements

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49
Q

biological persepective

A

personality can be explained as a result of genetic expression in the brain

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50
Q

behavioral perspective

A

personality develops due to conditioning

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51
Q

social cognitive perspective

A

personality develops through interaction between one’s environment and interactions with the environment

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52
Q

demographic shift

A

changes in birth and death rates in a country as it develops from a preindustrial society to an industrial economic system
-four states

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53
Q

stages of demographic shift

A
  1. preindustrial society: birth and death rates are both high
  2. improvements in healthcare, nutrition, sanitation, and wages cause death rates to drop
  3. improvements in contraception, women’s rights, and a shift from an agricultural to and industrial economy cause birth rates (births per 1000 individuals per year) to drop, families have fewer children bc have to be support by parents for longer
  4. industrialized society: birth and death rates are low
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54
Q

what does both James-Lange theory and Cannon-bard theory agree on?

A

that the perception of even leads to physiological and emotional response

-they differ on where they happen simultaneously as a result of activity in the thalamus (Cannon-Bard) or whether physiological arousal from the viscera precedes emotion (James-Lange)

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55
Q

Yerkes-Dodson Law of Social facilitation

A

being in the presence of others will significantly raise arousal, which

  1. enhances the ability to perform tasks one is already good at (or simple tasks)
  2. hinders the performance of less familiar tasks (or complex tasks)
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56
Q

group conformity

A

all the individuals in the group are compliant with the group’s ideas

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57
Q

groupthink

A

group focuses only on ideas generated from within the group

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58
Q

the calcarine sulcus divides the fovea, the center of the primary visual cortex, into two halves. The top and bottom halves represent what?

A

the top half represents the inferior area of the visual field

the bottom half represents the top or superior area of the visual field

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59
Q

what are the stages of Piaget’s 4 sequential stages of cognitive development

A
  1. sensorimotor stage
  2. preoperational stage
  3. concrete operational stage
  4. formal operational stage
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60
Q

sensorimotor

A

age 0-2
ability to manipulate one’s environment to meet one’s physical needs and by circular reactions
-development of object permanence

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61
Q

preoperational stage

A

2-7 y/o

  • symbolic thinking: ability to pretend and imagine
  • egocentrism: inability to imagine what another person may think or feel
  • centration: tendency to focus on only one aspect of a phenomenon
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62
Q

concrete operational stage

A

7-11 age
abilities to understand conservation, consider the perspective of others, and think logically about concrete objects and directly available information
-not able to think abstractly

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63
Q

formal operational stage

A

age 11

  • ability to think logically about abstract ideas
  • adolescent: ability to reason about abstract concepts and problem-solve
64
Q

where is the ETC located in prokaryotic cells?

A

plasma membrane

65
Q

where is gastrin releasing peptide secreted?

A

secreted by post-ganglioninc fibers of the vagus nerve in the stomach

66
Q

what does acetrylcholinesterase do?

A

enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine

67
Q

what subunits do eukaryotes have?

A

40S and 60S ribosomal subunits

68
Q

what subunits do prokaryotes have?

A

30S and 50S

69
Q

peptidoglycan is present in the cell walls of what organisms?

A

prokaryotes

70
Q

saltatory conduction

A

propagation of action potentials along myelinated axons from one node of Ranvier to the next node

-relies on cells being able to conduct an action potential at the nodes of Ranvier

71
Q

where does an action potential happen?

A

at the nodes of Ranvier, the area of the axon that are not covered by myelin

72
Q

where does saltatory conduction allow skipping of an ion exchange?

A

where myelin is present but those steps cannot be skipped at the nodes of Ranvier

73
Q

microglia

A

phagocytic cells that ingest and break down waste products and pathogens in the CNS

74
Q

what are the resident macrophages of the CNS?

A

microglia

75
Q

lysosomes

A

membrane-bound structures containing hydrolytic enzymes that are capable of breaking down many different substrates

76
Q

how are microglia able to digest the substances it ingests and kill pathogens?

A

bc of the high amounts of lysosomes microglia contain relative to other cell types

77
Q

Microglia are most likely replete with which of the following organelles or structures?

A

lysosomes

78
Q

cohort study

A

subjects are sorted into two groups based on varying risk factors and then assessed at various intervals to determine how many subjects in each group had a certain trait

79
Q

cross-sectional study

A

assesses participants at a single point in time

80
Q

case-control study

A

looks at a population with certain traits and looks backwards in their lives to see what led to those traits

81
Q

are peptide hormones abile to cross the cell membrane?

A

not easily and typically have to bind to extracellular receptors

82
Q

can steroid hormones cross the cell membrane?

A

nonpolar and cross the cell membrane easily, where they are able to bind to intracellular and intranuclear receptors

83
Q

a hormone that binds to its receptor in the cytoplasm is most likely what?

A

-steroid hormone

bc they are able to pass through cell membranes easily and therefore likely to interact with receptors in the cytoplasm

84
Q

what would happen if the Na+/Cl- symporter were blocked?

A

There would be decreased sodium reabsorption and thus more sodium in the filtrate
water would follow the sodium and leave in the urine

85
Q

what does the Na+/Cl- symporter usually do?

A

the transporter normally absorbs sodium

86
Q

what is the role of estrogen in the menstrual cycle?

A

both a positive feedback regulator and a negative feedback regulator
-promoting and inhibiting the release of GnRH, FSH, and LH

87
Q

trypsin

A

pancreatic enzyme produced in the pancreas to help digest proteins

88
Q

lactase

A

brush border enzyme that continues the carbohydrate digestion that begins in the oral cavity

89
Q

bile

A

stored in the gallblader, made in the liver

90
Q

pepsin

A

enzyme that functions at low pH in the stomach

91
Q

Mendel’s first law (of segregation)

A

during anaphase 1, disjuction: homologous pairs separate and are pulled to opposite poles of the cell

92
Q

mendel’s second law (of independent assortment)

A

crossing over

inheritance of one allele has no effect on the likelihood of inheriting certain alleles for other genes

93
Q

what happens during prophase 1 of meiosis

A

crossing over

94
Q

if the body has excess glucose stores, which electron transfer intermediates are likely to accumulate? How does this change if the body is depleted energy?

A

With excess glucose stores, the presence of a large proton gradient prevents the transfer of electrons in the ETC

  • buildup of NADH and FADH2 when glucose high
  • NAD+ and FAD+2 when depleted
95
Q

primary structure

A

sequence of amino acids that is determined by the DNA of the gene that encodes the protein

96
Q

secondary structure

A

local folded structures that form within a polypeptide due to interactions between atoms of the backbone

-held by hydrogen bonds (form between the carbonyl O of one amino acid and the amino H of another)

most common: alpha helix and beta pleated sheet

97
Q

what amino acid is typically found in bends in helix formations?

A

proline

98
Q

tertiary structure

A

3-d structure of a polypeptide

  • interactions b/w the R groups of the amino acids that make up their protein
  • hydrophobic interactions are important
  • modifications to active site would effect
  • disulfide bonds are molecular safety pins
99
Q

quaternary structure

A

multiple polypeptide chains called subunits come together

ex: hemoglobin (2 subunits are alpha, 2 subunits are beta)
ex: DNA polymerase (10 subunits)

100
Q

many of the genes coding for mitochondrial proteins are located where

A

in the mitochondrial DNA

101
Q

What happens to the sperm mitochondria upon penetration of the egg?

A

fall apart and are not replicated when divisions begin

102
Q

mutualism

A

interactions between organisms of two different species, in which each organism benefits from the interaction in some way

103
Q

commensalism

A

one species benefits and the other neither benefits nor suffers

104
Q

parasitism

A

one species benefits while the other is harmed

105
Q

predation

A

one species hunts (and presumable consumes) the other

106
Q

where are normal gut flora?

A

cecum

the blind outpouching of the large intestine

107
Q

terminal ileum

A

part of the small intestine

108
Q

jejeunum

A

middl eportion of the small intestine

primarily where absorption is involved

109
Q

rectum

A

site of solid waste storage

not a harbor for bacteria

110
Q

in a tumorigenic cell, you would expect to see what kinds of activities?

A

processes associated with cell growth and division

  • mRNA synthesis (transcription)
  • ribosomal assembly
  • cell division
111
Q

what cells does the adaptive immune system rely on ?

A

B cells and T cells

  • derived from stem cells in the bone marrow
  • once made in the bone marrow, need to mature and become activated
112
Q

what happens when naive B cells encounter an antigen?

A

if it fits or matches its membrane bound antibody, it quickly divides in order to become either a memory B cell or an effector B cell

113
Q

what happens during base repair?

A

a base is excised by a restriction enzyme, replaced by a polymersase (DNA polymerase) and finally linked to the bases around it by DNA ligase

114
Q

what enzyme is responsible for the last step in the DNA repair?

A

DNA ligase

115
Q

where is the primase enzyme found?

A

part of replication

116
Q

function of topoisomerase

A

relaxes and winds/unwinds DNA for synthesis

117
Q

rough endoplasmic reticulum

A

site of much protein synthesis

118
Q

smooth ER

A

synthesis of carbohydrates, lipids, and steroid hormones

detoxification of medications and poisons

storage of calcium ions

119
Q

golgi complex

A

proteins are processed for transport to the cell membrane

120
Q

lysosome

A

digests proteins

involved in waste removal and digestion

121
Q

before being sent to the cell membrane, a protein must be processed in where?

A

the golgi complex

122
Q

frameshift mutations

A

deletion or insertion in a DNA sequence that shifts the way the sequence is read

123
Q

silent mutation

A

one that results in the SAME amino acid even after mutation

124
Q

missense mutation

A

single nucleotide change results in a codon that codes for a different amino acid

125
Q

what are the three stop codons

A

UAA
UAG
UGA

126
Q

formula for osmotic pressure

A

pi = iMRT

127
Q

Michaelis-Mentin kinetics

A

there is one active site capable of binding substrate

128
Q

hemoglobin

A

allosteric protein with 4 subunits and exhibits cooperativity: when one oxygen binds, the other sites bind oxygen more easily

129
Q

why does hemoglobin not follow the rules of Michaelis-Mentin kinetics?

A

hemoglobin exhibits allosteric effects

130
Q

anomers

A

cyclic forms of sugars or similar molecules differing in the configuration at the anomeric carbon

131
Q

diastereomers

A

optical isomers that are identical at one or more chiral centers and different at one or more chiral centers

132
Q

epimers

A

differ only at one carbon

133
Q

constitutional isomers

A

compounds that have the same molecular formula and different connectivity

134
Q

what is polyuria

A

symptom of type 2 diabetes

  • excess water excretion
  • higher amounts of glucose in the urine means that the urine osmolarity will be higher then usual
  • result in less reabsorption of water from the filtrate in the nephrons
135
Q

what is the difference between the ascending limb of the loop of Henle and the descending limb?

A

the ascending limb is almost completely impermeable to water

136
Q

when is it not okay to use a palcebo group in a trial?

A

they are not used in cases where there is a known beneficial treatment bc it is unethical to deny patients treatment

137
Q

What cells are destroyed in type 1 diabetes?

A

involves the destruction of cells that produce insulin (beta cells of the islets of Langerhans of the pancreas)

138
Q

induction

A

a signaling cascade in development which changes the structure or function of developing tissues through chemical mediators

139
Q

transduction

A

process by which foreign DNA is introduced into a cell by a virus or viral vector

140
Q

transfection

A

deliberately introducing naked or purified nucelic acids into eukaryotic cells

141
Q

conduction

A

transfer of sound waves, heat, nervous impulses or electricity

142
Q

totipotency

A

ability of a cell to develop into any mature cell type

143
Q

Mendelian inheritance

A

one must perform a cross that results in offspring that reveal the unknown parental genotype to differentiate b/w a homozygous dominant and a heterozygous dominant for a trait that exhibits classic dominant/recessive

144
Q

How do beta and gamma radiation differ?

A

Beta particles will be deflected in a magnetic field while gamma rays will not

  • beta particles have a negative charge and will be deflected by a magnetic field
  • gamma rays are high energy photons lacking any charge so they will not be deflected
145
Q

geiger counter

A

provides a largely qualitative measure of radioactivity in an area

146
Q

what does the equation of continuity explain

A

liquids must maintain their volume as they flow in a pipe since they are nearly incompressible.

the volume of liquid that flows into a pipe in a given amount of time must equal the volume of liquid that flows out of a pipe in the same amount of time

147
Q

How do blood flow rate (BFR) and blood pressure (BP) differ in pulmonary and systemic circulation

A

BP is greater in systemic circulation and BFR is the same for both circulations

148
Q

what is the difference between pulmonary and systemic circuits?

A

pulmonary circulation occurs b/w the heart and the lungs
-circulation of blood in which deoxygenated blood is pumped from the heart to the lungs and oxygenated blood is returned back to hear

systemic circulation between the heart and the entire body
-refers to the circulation of blood in which oxygenated blood is pumped from the heart to the body and deoxygenated blood is returned back to the heart

149
Q

resistance formula

A

R = (pL)/A

150
Q

pressure formula

A

force/area

151
Q

hydrostatic pressure equation

A

P = pgz

152
Q

Which of the following provides the most reasonable evolutionary explanation for fainting when circulation to the brain is insufficient?

A

fainting results in a reduction of the effects of gravity on blood flow to the brain

-if circulation to the brain is insufficient, fainting makes the individual collapse to the floor and positions the brain at the same height relative to the rest of the body and prevents blood pressure in the brain from dropping

153
Q

negative pressure ventilation

A

mammals use negative pressure to suck air in

  • diaphragm contracts and move down, intercostal muscles contract and move up and out
  • lungs expand, pressure inside the lungs drops
154
Q

inhalation facilitates venous flow towards the right atrium by expanding the thoracic cavity and inducing

A

a decrease in cavity pressure

155
Q

when you have a stable conjugate base, what else does that tell you?

A

the stronger the acid and that acid strength is increased by the inductive effect of electron withdrawing groups on the neighboring carbon atoms

156
Q

how are hemiketals formed

A

as a result of the nucleophilic addition of a hydroxyl donated by an alcohol to a ketone carbonyl group

157
Q

mutarotation

A

change in the optical rotation bc of the change in equilibrium between two anomers, when the corresponding stereocenters interconvert

MCAT Practice Full Lengths (4 decks)

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