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Surgery > From Pearls > Flashcards

From Pearls Flashcards

0
Q

Adjunct tx for DIC and Primary fibrinolysis

A

FFP/cryoprecipitate; EACA

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1
Q

Test for DIC

A

Protamine test

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2
Q

Antidote for chemical burns caused by hydrofluoric acid

A

Calcium

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3
Q

1st cells to enter the wound

A

Neutrophils

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4
Q

Non absorbable sutures

A

Nylon, prolene, stainless steel, silk

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5
Q

Average time frame for suture removal

A

7-10 days

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6
Q

Microsatellite instability is the hallmark of?

A

Lynch syndrome

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7
Q

Early onset colon CA with excess synchronous and metachronous lesions

A

Lynch syndrome type I

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8
Q

Criteria for lynch syndrome

A

Amsterdam criteria (3-2-1-0)

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9
Q

Most commonly implicated human bite wound

A

Eikenella corrodens

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10
Q

Most commonly impicated animal bite wound

A

Pasturella multicoda

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11
Q

CEA (+)

A

Pagets disease

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12
Q

S 100

A

Melanoma

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13
Q

Intracytoplasmic mucin

A

Lobular CA

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14
Q

Hypertrophied papilla, ulcer, sentinel pile: managment

A

Laternal intestinal sphincteretomy (Golligher’s triad)

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15
Q

Arrow head sign

A

AP

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16
Q

Most common site of GI carcinoid

A

Appendix

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17
Q

Most common adenocarcinoma of the appendix

A

Mucous

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18
Q

A rare d/o caused by post sinusoidal cirrhosis due to vein thrombosis is diagnosed by?

A

Budd chiari; trascutaenous doppler US

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19
Q

Halo sign

A

Acutr calculous cholecystitis

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20
Q

Fotherhill sign - most defintive dx

A

Rectus sheath hematoma (CT scan)

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21
Q

Abdiminal mass lesion that is mobile from the patient’s right to left or left to right, Tillaux sign

A

Mesenteric cyst

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22
Q

Idiopathic retroperitoneal fibrosis is diagnostic

A

Ormond’s disease- CT scan with contrast

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23
Q

(+) hurthle/ askanazy cells ; management?

A

Hashimoto- thyroid hormone replacement

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24
Q

Hardy wood thyroid glands; what is the management?

A

Riedel’s thryoiditis- isthmusectomy

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25
Q

In a child with recurrent acute thyroiditis, what is the Dx of choice?

A

Persistent pyiform sinus fistula- ba swalow

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26
Q

Localization study for the most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

Tc labeled sestamibi(for solitary parathyroid adenoma)

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27
Q

Prominent S1, fixed S2, right ventricular heave

A

Ostium secundun

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28
Q

Rib notching on CXR, decreased femoral pulses: tx?

A

Coarctation of the aorta- bicuspid aortic valve: resection and EEA

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29
Q

Equalization of O2 sat in all chambers: mgmt?

A

TAPVC- connect PV to LA(emergency)

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30
Q

Hypoplastic RV, dependent pulmonary flow on PDA: mgmt

A

Blalock Taussig shunt(blalock para sa block)- tricuspid atresia

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31
Q

Horner syndrome+wasting of intrinsic muscles+ arm shoulder pain

A

Pancoast tumor: adenoCA of lungs

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32
Q

Microcolon, eggshell pattern

A

Meconium ileus

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33
Q

When performing a procedure to prevent midgut malrotation ; what other procedure should also be inculded

A

Appendectomy(Ladd’s procedure- annular pancreas)

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34
Q

Pt with a triad of abdominal pain, jaundice and mass, what is the disgnostic of choice

A

MRCP(choledochal cyst)

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35
Q

Major inducer of catabolism and cahexia during stress

A

TNF a

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36
Q

Induces fever

A

IL 1

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37
Q

Responsible for Ig production

A

IL 2

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38
Q

Mediator of acute phase response

A

IL 6

39
Q

Activates macrophages

A

IFN y

40
Q

Basic caloric requirement of a normal healthy adult

A

25 kcal/kg/day

41
Q

Caloric requiremennt of a burn patient

A

35-40

42
Q

Normal anion gap

A

<12

43
Q

Tx of choice for patients with Von williebrand’s

A

DDAVP

44
Q

Inherited platelet disorder of ADHESION

A

Bernard soulier

45
Q

Estimated blood volume

A

7-8% of BW

46
Q

Management for 20% blood loss

A

Crystalloids

47
Q

Mgmt for up to 50% blood loss

A

Crystalloids + PRBC

48
Q

> 50% blood loss management

A

Crystalloids+ PRBC+ plasma/albumin

49
Q

Where is needle thoracostomy done

A

2nd ICS, MCL

50
Q

Definitive mgmt for tension pneumothorax

A

CTT

51
Q

Where is thoracostomy done

A

4th or 5th MAL

52
Q

Flail chest compromises breathing due to

A

Underlying lung contusion

53
Q

Trauma patients have lost approximately how much blood

A

30-40%

54
Q

Saphenous vein cutdown is done where

A

1 cm superior and anterior to medial malleolus

55
Q

Intraosseus infusion is done where

A

Proximal tibia or distal femur

56
Q

Positive DPL

A

WBC- >500, amylase- >19, alk phosp- >2, bilirubin >0.01
RBC:
Anterior abdominal- >100,000
Thoracoabdominal- >10,000

1,000-10,000- do laparoscopy/thoracoscopy

57
Q

Duodenal hematoma

A

Coiled spring sign

58
Q

Right sided medial visceral rotation

A

Catell maneuver

59
Q

Left sided medial visceral rotation

A

Mattox maneuver

60
Q

Most sensitive xray finding suggesting tear of the aorta

A

Widened mediastinum

61
Q

Best screening test for tear of aorta

A

Dynamic spiral CT

62
Q

Defintive test for tear of aorta

A

Aortography

63
Q

Normal ICP? When do you initiate ventriculostomy

A

4-14; initiate at 20

64
Q

Burns that extend to the reticular layers of the dermis

A

2nd degree(deep partial thickness burn)

65
Q

Earliest indicator of smoke inhalation injury

A

Decreaed P:F ratio

66
Q

Cause of melting wound syndrome

A

Staphylococcus aureus

67
Q

Antidote for wounds caused by hydrofluoric acid

A

Calcium

68
Q

Malignancy from marjolin’s ulcer

A

Squamous

69
Q

Average time frame for sutures

A

7-10 days

70
Q

Pressure ulcer stage when there is partial thickness skin loss

A

II

71
Q

Pressure ulcer stage when there is nonblanchable erythema of intact skin

A

i

72
Q

Pressure ulcer stage when there is full thickness skin loss, not thru fadcia

A

III

73
Q

Pressure ulcer stage when there is FT skin loss+muscle and bone involvement

A

IV

74
Q

Microsatellite instability is the hallmarknof what

A

Lynch syndrome

75
Q

Early onset colon Ca with excess synchronous and metachronous lesions

A

Lynch syndrome type I

76
Q

Early onset colon Ca with excess synchronous and metachronous lesions and extra colonic malignancies

A

Type 2

77
Q

Diagnostic criteria for lynch syndrome

A

Amaterdam criteria

78
Q

EBV is associated with

A

Nasopharyngeal Ca, hodgkin’s lymphma and butkitts lymphoma

79
Q

Virus implicated with adult T cell leukemia/lymphoma

A

HTLV

80
Q

Tumor marker for germ cell tumors

A

AFP

81
Q

Most important troubling side effect of cyclosporine

A

Nephrotoxicity

82
Q

Most dreaded complication of placing a swan ganz catheter

A

Pulmonary artery rupture

83
Q

Melanoma with best prognosis

A

Lentigo maligna

84
Q

Most common type of melanoma

A

Superficial spreading

85
Q

Pigmentation on the proximal or lateral nailfold

A

Subungal melanoma- hutchinson sign

86
Q

Rare but aggressive cutaneous malignancy arising from neuroendocrine cells? Mgmt?

A

Merkel cell ca- excision to 3cm margin + prophylactic node dissection+ adjuvant radiation

87
Q

Tumor arising from areas of previous radiation/lymphedema

A

Angiosarcoma (stewart treves syndrome)

88
Q

Hidrandenitis supparativa mimics?

A

Paget’s or invasive breast CA

89
Q

Most frequent site of metastasis for breast CA

A

Bone

90
Q

True anatomic precursor for invasive ductal carcinoma

A

DCIS

91
Q

Marker of increased risk for invasive breast CA

A

LCIS

92
Q

Differentiate superficial spreading from Padget

A

S 100 (+) -melanoma; CEA (+)- Paget’s

93
Q

Breast cancer with intracytoplasmic mucin and with indian file configuration

A

Lobular CA

94
Q

BIRADS when u should do a Biopsy

A

4-5

Surgery (12 decks)

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