From Feb 18 Flashcards
Union Minister of State(MoS), S.P. Singh Baghel, Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR), Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying (MoFAH&D) released the comprehensive Devolution Index Report titled “Status of Devolution to Panchayats in States – An Indicative Evidence-Based Ranking 2024” at the Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA), New Delhi (Delhi).
- As per the report, ____ranked 1st in the devolution of power to panchayats, excelling in terms of funds, functions, and functionaries, followed by 2. Kerala, 3. Tamil Nadu (TN), 4. Maharashtra, and 5. Uttar Pradesh (UP).
Karnataka
- This report marks a key milestone in India’s efforts to empower Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and to fulfill the vision of “Local Self Government” outlined in the 73rd Constitutional Amendment
What is the Devolution Index?
i. The Devolution Index is the result of thorough research and empirical analysis, offering insights into decentralization progress across States and UTs.
- The report was prepared by the IIPA [Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA), New Delhi (Delhi)] and assessed 31 states and Union Territories (UTs), sampling 172 Panchayats across 68 districts, with a total of 1,594 respondents interviewed.
- Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, UT of Chandigarh and National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi are not covered in this report.
ii. The Index evaluates 6 critical dimensions: Framework, Functions, Finances, Functionaries, Capacity Building, and Accountability of Panchayats.
iii. It specifically examines the autonomy of Panchayats to make and implement independent decisions, reflecting the spirit of ______ of the Constitution.
Article 243G
Note: Article 243G empowers State legislatures to devolve powers and responsibilities to Panchayats across 29 subjects listed in the 11th Schedule.
i. The Devolution Index serves as a tool for strengthening cooperative federalism and local self-governance.
ii. It enables states to identify areas for improvement and adopt best practices for more empowered and effective Panchayats.
iii. For citizens, it provides transparency in tracking Panchayat functioning and resource allocation, while elected representatives can utilize data-driven insights for advocacy and reform
Devolution Index Report titled “Status of Devolution to Panchayats in States – An Indicative Evidence-Based Ranking 2024”
i. Increase in Devolution: The report indicates a rise in devolution to rural local bodies from 39.9% in 2013-14 to 43.9% in 2021-22.
ii. Capacity Enhancement: Following the launch of the Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) on April 21, 2018, the capacity enhancement component of the Devolution Index 2024 increased from 44% to _____, marking an improvement of over 10%.
iii. Functionaries: Efforts to strengthen PRIs through infrastructure development and recruitment have led to a significant increase in the functionaries component of the Devolution Index, rising from 39.6% to
50.9%.
iv. Accountability & Transparency: Measures to enhance accountability and transparency resulted in scores growing from 46.1% to 47.5%, indicating stronger auditing and anti-corruption efforts.
54.6%
- Financial Devolution: The share of funds allocated to PRIs increased from 32.05% to 37.04%, enhancing financial resources for local governance.
- Functional Devolution: The proportion of functions transferred to PRIs declined from 35.34% to 29.18%, indicating a reduction in administrative responsibilities at the local level.
i. Kerala leads in the ‘Framework’ dimension, setting the standard for mandatory structures.
ii. Tamil Nadu (TN) excels in ‘Functions’, establishing a benchmark for functional devolution.
iii. Karnataka demonstrates exemplary financial management in the ‘Finances’ category.
iv. Gujarat leads in ‘Functionaries’, showcasing excellence in personnel management and capacity building.
v. Telangana stands out in ‘Capacity Enhancement’, leading in institutional strengthening.
vi. Karnataka also sets new standards in ‘Accountability’, establishing benchmarks in transparency.
the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), Ministry of Communications (MoC), in partnership with the ________ unveiled a comprehensive report on Disaster Risk and Resilience Assessment Framework (DRRAF). This marks a significant step towards strengthening India’s telecom sector against disasters.
- The report was launched as part of a comprehensive study on National and Sub-national Disaster Risk & Resilience Assessment for the Telecommunication sector by CDRI (______).
- The study was conducted across 5 Indian states: Assam, Odisha, Tamil Nadu (TN), Uttarakhand, and Gujarat, which focuses on disaster risks and resilience strategies specific to the telecom sector.
- DoT coordinated with State Governments, Telecom Service Providers, and Infrastructure Providers to gather critical data.
Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI)
the Ministry of Ayush (Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homoeopathy) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the ______ under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE) in New Delhi (Delhi).
- The MoU aims to implement Ayush-based interventions to enhance geriatric healthcare and address substance abuse.
- It marks a milestone in India’s healthcare journey, blending the strengths of Ayush systems with social justice initiatives to foster a healthier and more inclusive society.
Department of Social Justice and Empowerment (DoSJE)
the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) launched_____, India’s 1st dedicated platform to monitor and analyse RPTs. The portal also aims to bolster transparency and governance in corporate India.
‘Related Party Transaction (RPT) portal’
- The portal enables a wide range of stakeholders to access standardized and comparable data on RPTs.
Note: RPT is a transaction between related parties which involves transfer of resources, services or obligations between them regardless of whether a price is charged.
i. SEBI clarified that executive compensation will be covered under RPTs, which means that promoters of companies can reward themselves without shareholder approval.
ii. The portal will compile comprehensive information on RPTs, including shareholding voting patterns from the last 2 years, which will enable the investors and other entities to make well-informed decisions. Also, by compiling such data in a single platform, the initiative will fix information gaps and enhance corporate governance practices in India.
iii. The portal will be maintained by 3 proxy advisories Bengaluru (Karnataka)-based InGovern Research Services Private Limited, Mumbai (Maharashtra)-based Institutional Investor Advisory Services India Limited (IiAs) and Mumbai based Stakeholders Empowerment Services (SES).
iv. It will help investors to track RPTs and access opinions on such transactions.
- Retail investors will now have access to this information, which was previously limited to institutional investors.
Madhabi Puri Buch, Chairperson of SEBI
announced that new RPT disclosure standards have been approved by the ______. These new standards aimed to ensure more transparency and protect investors.
i. The new standards will require listed companies to provide more detailed information like: what are the minimum
disclosures the companies would have to make when they take an RPT for approval, both by shareholders and audit committees (in certain cases).
ii. Also, the standards will outline the minimum disclosures required when you go to the shareholders for approval.
Industry Standards Forum (ISF)
About Industry Standards Forum (ISF):
It is a SEBI-established group of representatives from different industry sectors. The main objective of ISF is to develop and set standards for implementing regulatory guidelines within their respective sectors.
Chairman- Kundapur Vaman (K.V.) Kamath
Established- 2023
the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed restrictions on Mumbai (Maharashtra)- based _____ from issuing new loans and suspended deposit withdrawals amid supervisory concerns about its financial position.
- These restrictions were issued by the RBI under Section _____ of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 to protect the interest of depositors.
- These restrictions came into force on February 13, 2025 and will remain in force for a period of ____ months, but they are subject to a future review by the RBI.
New India Co-operative Bank Limited
35A ; 6
- As per the RBI directions, the bank does not have power/authority to grant or renew any loans or advances, make any new investments or accept new deposits without the prior approval from the RBI.
- But, RBI has permitted loan set-offs against deposits under specific terms and conditions.
- It has also allowed bank to incur essential expenses such as employee salaries, rent, and electricity bills.
- RBI informed that eligible depositors will receive a deposit insurance claim of up to Rs 5 lakh for their deposits from the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC), as applicable under the provisions of the DICGC Act, 1961.
The RBI in exercise of the powers given under Section _____ read with section ____ of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (as applicable to Co-operative Societies) has superseded the Board of Directors (BoDs) of New India Co-operative Bank for a period of ____ months, to address its governance issues.
About New India Co-operative Bank Limited:
It was initially established as Bombay Labour Co-operative Bank Limited in 1968. Later, it was renamed as the New India Co-operative Bank Limited in 1977.
Headquarters- Mumbai, Maharashtra
36 AAA ; 56 ; 12
- It has appointed Shreekant, a former Chief General Manager (CGM), State Bank of India (SBI) as the administrator to manage the bank’s affairs.
- It has also formed a committee of advisors to assist him, including Ravindra Sapra, former General Manager (GM) of SBI and Abhijeet Deshmukh, Chartered Accountant (CA).
- The primary function of the committee is to examine the financial situation, stabilize operations, and work towards the revival of the bank.
Mumbai (Maharashtra)-based National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has introduced a new rule for managing charge backs in Unified Payments Interface (UPI) transactions.
- As per new UPI rule, charge backs will now be automatically accepted or rejected based on _____ and Return Requests (RET) raised by the beneficiary banks in the next settlement cycle after the charge back has been started.
- The new above mentioned facility is implemented in UPI Dispute Resolution System (URCS) with effect from ______.
Key Highlights of New Mechanism:
i. The new UPI rule is applicable only to bulk upload options and Unified Dispute Resolution Interface (UDIR), and will not include front-end dispute resolution options.
ii. Now, Beneficiary banks will have an opportunity to reconcile transactions efficiently before charge backs are deemed approved.
About National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI):
It is an organisation that regulates the retail payment and settlement system in India. It was launched as a joint initiative of RBI and India Banks’ Association (IBA). It was set up under the provisions of Payment and Settlement Systems (PSS Act, 2007).
Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) – Dilip Asbe
Headquarters- Mumbai, Maharashtra
Established- ____
Transaction Credit Confirmation (TCC) ; February 15, 2025
2008
- A charge back is a process which reverses a completed UPI transaction due to disputes, fraud or technical error. This reversal of UPI transaction is initiated by the payer’s bank, and if approved, the transaction amount is returned to the payer.
- At present, remitting banks can start charge backs from ‘T+0’ onwards in URCS due to which beneficiary banks are not getting sufficient time to reconcile transactions, leading to rejected RET.
- While, in some cases, charge backs are closed automatically with a deemed acceptance which resulted in penalties imposed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) granted an extension to the Mumbai (Maharashtra) based _____ authorization to set up, own, and operate White Label ATMs (WLAs) across India until March 31, 2026.
Vakrangee Limited
- As of January 31, 2025, Vakrangee operates 6,036 WLAs and 76% of these are in Tier 4 and Tier 6 locations, aimed at enhancing financial accessibility in the unserved & underserved areas.
i. Vakrangee Limited offers a wide range of services, including banking, insurance, e-governance, ecommerce, and logistics solutions.
ii. In addition, Vakrangee operates 22,395 Vakrangee Kendra outlets, with 81% of these located in Tier-4 to Tier-6 areas.
iii. Vakrangee aims to achieve a revenue of USD 1 billion and a gross transaction value of USD 150 billion by 2030.
Note: As of December 2024, the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) held a 4.41% stake in Vakrangee Limited
Mumbai based Reserve Bank of India (RBI) removed the restrictions placed on ______, headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra, allowing KMB to resume onboarding new customers digitally and issuing new credit cards.
i. The RBI imposed restrictions on April 24, 2024, under section 35A of Banking Regulation Act, 1949, after identifying serious Information Technology (IT)-related regulatory violations, including deficiencies in IT inventory management, security protocols and disaster recovery measures.
ii. These restrictions had prevented the bank from adding new customers through online and mobile banking and from issuing new credit cards.
iii. To resolve these issues, KMB took corrective measures and submitted compliance reports, conducted an external audit with RBI’s approval. After reviewing the bank’s improvements and compliance efforts, the RBI decided to lift the restrictions.
iv. As a result the “cease and desist” directive has been lifted for all banks and non-banking financial companies (NBFC), except for Paytm Payments Bank.
Kotak Mahindra Bank (KMB) Limited
Mumbai, Maharashtra based The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) permitted ______, a subsidiary of Singapore-based Temasek Holdings (Private) Limited, to raise its stake in Jaipur (Rajasthan)-based AU Small Finance Bank (SFB) to 7%.
Zulia Investments Pte. Ltd.
- If Zulia increases its stake, it could become the largest foreign investor in the bank.
Note: AU SFB, which began operations in April 2017, focuses on providing credit to retail customers and MSMEs (Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises) while offering deposit and branch banking services.
i. On February 12, 2025, AU SFB received an RBI letter approving Zulia and its associated entities to acquire up to 7% of the bank’s paid-up capital or voting rights within one year.
ii. If the acquisition is not completed by February 12, 2026, the approval will lapse.
iii. Currently, Zulia holds a 1.37% stake in AU SFB, while foreign institutional and portfolio investors own 39.35%.
Washington (the United States of America, USA)-based International Finance Corporation (IFC), the private sector arm of the World Bank Group (WBG), has invested Rs 860 crore (nearly USD 98.35 million) in India’s 1st ________in the road sector, issued by Noida (Uttar Pradesh, UP)-based Cube Highways Trust (Cube InvIT (Infrastructure Investment Trust)).
- This investment by IFC aims to improve critical road infrastructure and strengthen climate resilience in highway development in India.
Sustainability-linked Bond (SLB)
______ announced that it will provide lines of credit worth USD 300 million to Vietnam for buying high-speed boats and offshore patrol vessels.
Mumbai (Maharashtra)-based Export Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank)
- In July 2024, the EXIM Bank had signed an agreement with the Government of the Socialist Republic of Vietnam (GO-VNM), for making available to the latter, the Government of India (GoI) had pledged to provide Line of Credit (LoC) of USD 180 million for procurement of 4 Offshore Patrol Vessels (OPV).
i. The bank had also signed an agreement with GO-VNM for making available to the latter, GoI had committed to provide LoC of USD 120 million for procurement of high speed guard boats.
ii. Both agreements are effective from January 20, 2025 and the last date for disbursement will be 60 months after the scheduled completion date of the project.
Bengaluru (Karnataka)-based Decentro Tech Private Limited, a leading fintech infrastructure platform, has launched India’s 1st completely compliant, self-hosted _______.
- This will enable financial institutions to seamlessly switch to the new Central Registry of Securitisation Asset Reconstruction and Security Interest of India (CERSAI) compliance framework.
i. This new offering will remove the dependency on 3rd-parties, allowing banks, Non-Banking Financial
Companies (NBFCs), and insurers to onboard customers faster while ensuring regulatory compliance.
ii. Some of the key benefits of this new innovation are: 80% faster processing; 75% lower compliance costs, and zero vendor dependencies.
Central Know Your Customer (CKYC) solution
About CERSAI:
* CERSAI was established under Section 20 of the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act (SARFAESI Act, 2002).
* CERSAI was incorporated as a company under Section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956. The Government of India(GoI) holds a 51% share in the company.
the United States of America (USA) based Morgan Stanley Capital International Incorporation (MSCI), a leading service provider for the global investment community announced the ______. The review revealed that Gurugram (Haryana) based Hyundai Motor India Limited (HMIL) has been added to the MSCI Emerging Markets (EM) Index, and also to the MSCI India Domestic Index, while Ahmedabad (Gujarat) based Adani Green Energy Limited (AGEL) has been removed from the index.
MSCI Equity Indexes February 2025 Index Review
- The changes will be implemented around February 28, 2025, and will take effect from March 3, 2025.
- With this, India’s weight in the index increases to 19%, up from 18.8% in the previous review.
Note: Hyundai Motor is the only large-cap stock which has been added to the list.
About MSCI Emerging Markets (EM) Index:
i. The MSCI Emerging Markets Index tracks the performance of growing economies around the world.
ii. It includes large and mid-cap companies from 24 Emerging Markets (EM) countries.
iii. With 1,251 constituents, the index covers 85% of the free-float-adjusted market capitalization in each of these countries
the 7th edition of the “Sportstar Aces Awards 2025” was held at the Taj Mahal Palace in Mumbai, Maharashtra. The event celebrated exceptional achievements in Indian sports, honoring the winners across 24 distinct categories. The awards recognized the remarkable contributions and accomplishments of athletes, coaches, and organizations that have significantly impacted Indian sports.
- Indian hockey legend, ______ won the Sportstar of the Year 2025 (Male), while ______ won the Sportstar of the Year 2025 (Female) and also the Sportswoman of the Year (Olympic Sport) repectively.
- The event featured 5 Popular Choice Awards and 16 Jury Awards, with over 2 lakh votes cast for the Popular Choice categories.
- This year 2025, 2 special awards: ‘Special Recognition Gamechanger 2025’ and ‘Inspirational Icon Award 2025’ were presented.
Parattu Raveendran (PR) Sreejesh ; Manu Bhaker
______, an Indian ‘Maharatna’ Central Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) which works under the Ministry of Power (MoP), has been conferred with Forward Faster Sustainability Award 2025 in the category of ‘Water Resilience’, in recognition of the its exceptional efforts in water conservation and sustainable water management initiatives.
NTPC Limited (formerly known as National Thermal Power Corporation Limited)
- Harekrushna Dash, ED (Sustainability, Environment & Ash) and K Karthikeyan, Additional General Manager (AGM), NTPC Limited received the award at ceremony organised by the United Nations (UN) Global Compact Network India (UN GCNI) in Chennai, Tamil Nadu (TN).
- NTPC is actively implementing the Reduce, Reuse & Recycle(RRR) approach to optimize water use.
- The Forward Faster Sustainability Awards recognizes organisations/institutions in India that have made significant contributions in promoting sustainability and corporate responsibility, aligning with UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
- NTPC Limited, largest integrated power utility in India, is contributing 25% of India’s power requirements and has an installed capacity of more than 77 Giga Watt (GW), with an additional capacity of 29.5 GW under construction, including 9.6 GW of Renewable Energy (RE) capacity.
- The company has set the target of achieving 60 GW of RE capacity by 2032
The 9th Asian Winter Games (Harbin 2025), held in Harbin, Heilongjiang Province, China, from February 7 to February 14, 2025, marked a significant milestone in the promotion of winter sports across Asia.
- Organized by the ______ and supported by the International Skating Union (ISU), the event brought together athletes from 34 countries.
- Asian Winter Games 2025 featured 64 events across 11 winter sports disciplines.
- 9th Asian Winter Games mascots are _____ and _____ tigers and the motto is “Dream of Winter, Love among Asia”.
New Entrants:
Saudi Arabia participated in alpine skiing & snowboarding and Cambodia participated in cross-country skiing, marking their first appearance in the Asian Winter Games.
- Saudi Arabia officially received the flag of the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA), as the host of the 10th Asian Winter Games (NEOM) in 2029, becoming the first country in West Asia to host the continental sporting event.
Olympic Council of Asia (OCA) ;
“Binbin” and “Nini”
- China topped the medal tally with 32 Gold, 27 Silver, and 26 Bronze medals, total 85 medals.
- Republic of Korea secured the second position with 16 Gold, 15 Silver, and 14 Bronze medals, total 45 medals.
- Japan followed closely with 10 Gold, 12 Silver, and 15 Bronze medals, total 37 medals, excelling in short-track speed skating and skiing.
India’s Performance:
- India had sent their largest contingent of 59 athletes to the Asian Winter Games 2025.
i. India ended its campaign without any medals but showcased potential through its athletes.
ii. Tara Prasad, India’s skater, delivered a personal best performance, finishing 8th in the women’s skating event
February 15
-
International Childhood Cancer Day (ICCD) is a global collaborative campaign, observed annually on 15 February across the globe to raise awareness about childhood cancer, highlighting its distinct challenges, and to show solidarity with children and adolescents fighting cancer, as well as with survivors and their families.
i. The 3-year campaign of ICCD (2024-2026) aims to address the challenges faced by childhood cancer patients, caregivers, survivors and health care professionals worldwide.
ii. The campaign theme of ICCD 2025 is “Inspiring Action”.
* The campaign theme of ICCD 2026 is “Demonstrating Impact” and the campaign theme of ICCD 2024 is “Unveiling Challenges”. -
World Pangolin Day is observed annually on the third Saturday of February to celebrate pangolins or the scaly anteater, the most unique mammals on Earth and raise awareness about their conservation. The day aims to highlight the critical threats faced by these unique mammals, primarily due to illegal poaching and trafficking for their scales and meat.
* In 2025, World Pangolin Day falls on 15th February 2024 marking the observance of the 14th World Pangolin Day.
* The 13th World Pangolin Day was observed on 17th February, 2024 and the 15th World Pangolin Day will be observed for February 21, 2026
The *15th edition of Aero India 2025**, Asia’s largest aerospace and defence exhibition, was held from February 10 to 14, 2025, in ________, under the theme “The Runway to a Billion Opportunities.”
Bengaluru, Karnataka
the Rural Technology Action Group (RuTAGe) Smart Village Center (RSVC) was inaugurated in ______.
Mandaura village, Sonipat, Haryana
- The RSVC aims to bridge the gap between rural technological needs and cutting-edge innovations, promoting sustainable development in rural areas
______ has become the 1st state in India to introduce a dedicated Global Capability Centre (GCC) Policy 2025, positioning itself as a leading hub for global innovation, technology, and business collaboration.
- _______ will act as the nodal agency responsible for implementing the policy.
- A dedicated Policy Implementation Unit (PIU) will manage project approvals, incentive allocation, and compliance monitoring.
Madhya Pradesh (MP)
The Madhya Pradesh State Electronics Development Corporation Limited (MPSeDC)
Objective: The Madhya Pradesh GCC Policy 2025 aims to transform tier-2 cities like Bhopal, Indore, and Gwalior into global operations centers, providing a competitive advantage to businesses seeking expansion in India.
Key Features:
i. The focus sectors of the policy include Information Technology (IT), Finance, Engineering, Human Resources (HR), and Emerging Technologies (ET), with a special emphasis on Artificial Intelligence (AI), and
Cybersecurity.
ii. This policy combines incentives for Capital Expenditure (CapEx), payroll subsidies, upskilling programs, and Research and Development (R&D).
Note: Unveiled ahead of the Global Investors Summit (GIS) 2025 in Bhopal, MP on 24 and 25 February 2025, the GCC Policy 2025 reinforces MP’s role in India’s USD 110 billion GCC market vision for 2030.
Union Minister Jagat Prakash Nadda, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) launched the Annual Nationwide Mass Drug Administration (MDA) Campaign to eliminate ______. The launch took place through a video conference with State Health Ministers and senior officials from 13 LF-endemic states.
Lymphatic Filariasis (LF) (commonly known as Hathi Paon)
- The campaign aims for the door-to-door distribution of anti-filarial medication, ensuring that all eligible individuals take the prescribed medicine to prevent the transmission of the disease.
- It is led by the National Center for Vector Borne Diseases Control (NCVBDC) under MoHFW
- India is committed to eliminating Lymphatic Filariasis by 2027.
Note: Lymphatic Filariasis is a parasitic disease transmitted through the bites of infected mosquitoes.
Lymphatic Filariasis (LF) which is caused by Culex mosquitoes
The Department of Posts (DoP) has released a special commemorative souvenir sheet featuring 3 postage stamps dedicated to the Maha Kumbh Mela 2025, which is taking place in Prayagraj, Uttar Pradesh (UP) from 13th January to 26th February 2025. Union Minister Jyotiraditya Madhavrao Scindia, Ministry of Communications (MoC), unveiled these stamps at Arail Ghat Post Office (PO), Prayagraj.
- The commemorative postage stamps, designed by _____, depict 3 prominent aspects of Triveni Tirtha– Maharshi Bharadwaj Ashram (an ancient center of learning), Snan (holy dip at Triveni Sangam), and Akshayvat (the immortal Banyan tree).
Sankha Samanta
- Other philatelic releases highlighting Maha Kumbh include special covers and cancellations on sacred Snan days, ‘Divya, Bhavya and Digital Mahakumbh’, and a picture postcard celebrating ‘Prakhyat Prayagraj’.
The Government of India (GoI) will issue a Rs 100 commemorative coin, to mark the birth centenary of legendary playback singer _______, which concluded on 24 December 2024. The circular and non-circulating coin is reportedly minted by the India Government Mint (IGM) in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
Padma Shri Mohammed Rafi
- The metal composition of the Rs 100 commemorative coin will consist of a Quaternary Alloy, comprising 50% Silver (Ag), 40% Copper (Cu), 5% Nickel (Ni), and 5% Zinc (Zn).
- The coin will weigh 35 grams (g) and have a diameter of 44 millimeters (mm), featuring 20 serrations along the edge.
- On the obverse side, the face of the coin will bear the Lion Capital of Ashoka Pillar in the center with the legend ‘Satyamev Jayate’ inscription, Rupee symbol (₹) below, and denominational value “100” in the international numerals below it.
- The left and right peripheries of the coin will be flanked with the words “Bharath” in Devanagari script and ‘INDIA’ in English respectively.
- On the reverse side, the face of the coin will bear Mohammed Rafi’s image in the center with inscriptions Birth Centenary of Mohammed Rafi in Devanagari script and English on the upper and lower peripheries respectively, along with the years 1924-2024.
The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) organised the 9th edition of ______ on February 13-14, 2025, its a quarterly meeting with insurance company Chief Executive Officers (CEOs).
- During the meeting, IRDAI has introduced the ‘Bima Trinity’ initiative to enhance the accessibility, affordability, and efficiency of insurance services in India**.
- This comprehensive plan comprises three key components: **Bima Sugam, Bima Vistaar and Bima Vahaak.
- The aim is to enhance insurance inclusion and digital transformation, reinforcing its commitment to a more accessible and consumer-friendly insurance ecosystem as part of its ‘Vision Insurance for all’ by 2047.
Bima Manthan
i. _______: An open digital marketplace designed to facilitate the sale, servicing, and claims of insurance policies across various insurance companies.
ii. ______: A pioneering composite insurance product that offers coverage for life, personal accidents, property, and surgical hospitalization.
iii. _______: A localized, women-centric insurance field sales force aimed at enhancing insurance penetration in underserved areas. It is scheduled for a soft launch in April 2025.
Bima Sugam ;
Bima Vistaar;
Bima Vahaak;
Note: The Bima Sugam India Federation (BSIF) was established to develop and operate this platform has completed its foundational processes and is now ready for industry participation and capitalization.
the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed penalties on two banks and one Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) for not adhering to regulatory guidelines.
- The banks involved include Nainital (Uttarakhand) based Nainital Bank Limited
(NTB), Bengaluru (Karnataka) based Ujjivan Small Finance Bank Limited (USFB), and the Chennai (Tamil Nadu, TN) based Shriram Finance Limited (SFL), an NBFC.
_______, Chairman of Tata Sons Private Limited was conferred with the United Kingdom’s (UK’s) “Knight Commander of the Most Excellent Order of the British Empire (KBE )” under King Charles III reign for his services to U.K./India Business relations.
- The KBE/DBE is one of the highest honors awarded by the British Sovereign to civilians, recognizing the exceptional contributions of foreign nationals across various fields.
Natarajan Chandrasekaran
Reserve Bank of India (RBI) approved Banker ______’s appointment as the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of India’s operation of Standard Chartered of India based in Mumbai, Maharashtra.
- He will assume office on April 1, 2025, succeeding Zarin Daruwala who will retire on March 31, 2025, after serving for ten years
- He will head India and South Asia operation and the tenure will be for 3 years
Note: Standard Chartered has been operating in India for over 160 years, with a network of 100 branches across 42 cities.
Prabdev Singh (P.D.) Singh
Bengaluru (Karnataka)-based Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA), a department of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and _______, a defence Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for the Indigenous development of high-strength, high-toughness special-grade steel “MDN100” for aerospace applications.
Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited (MIDHANI)
- This collaboration aims to advance aeronautical applications, particularly in the 5th generation Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) program.
- The MoU was signed at the Aero India 2025 airshow held from 10-14 February 2025 in Bengaluru.
- ADA is the nodal organization for combat aircraft development in India.
_______ won their first-ever title at the 4th Edition of the “Badminton Asia Mixed Team Championship 2025” by defeating two-time defending champions China with a 3-1 victory in the final. The tournament was held from February 11 to 16, 2025 at the Conson Gymnasium in Qingdao, China.
- China took home the silver while Japan and Thailand were awarded with the bronze medals for their victory.
The Badminton Asia Mixed Team Championships is a biennial tournament organized by Badminton Asia and hosted by the _______.
Indonesia
Chinese Badminton Association (CBA)
- Muhammad Shohibul Fikri served as the captain for the Indonesia team while the China team was led by captain Chen Xujun.
the International Olympic Committee (IOC) announced that the inaugural Olympic Esports Games will be held in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia (SA) for the 1st time, in _____. This decision is part of a 12-year partnership between the IOC and the Saudi Olympic and Paralympic Committee (SOPC), aimed at engaging younger audiences through esports.
- The SOPC and the Esports World Cup Foundation (EWCF) are collaborating with the IOC to organize the Games.
- It aims to bridge traditional sports and esports, expanding opportunities for players and teams.
2027
- The “Road to the Games” is set to commence this year 2025, with initial Olympic esports competitions leading up to the main event in 2027. IOC decided to create the Olympic Esports Games in July 2024, during the 142nd IOC Session
February 17
The United Nations (UN’s) Global Tourism Resilience Day (GTRD) is observed annually on February 17 across the globe to highlight the critical need to build resilience in the tourism industry.
This day draws attention to the sector’s vulnerability to various crises and emergencies and emphasizes the
importance of preparedness and adaptability.
- 17 February 2025 marks the observance of the 3rd GTRD.
Note: Tourism plays a vital role in advancing the 3 key pillars of sustainable development: fostering economic growth, reducing poverty, and promoting environmental protection, contributing to achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
the Gujarat government led by Chief Minister (CM) Bhupendra Rajnikant Patel, launched the ________, an initiative aims to enhance the livelihoods of Antyodaya families (underprivileged families), empower women, and promote economic self-sufficiency.
- The initiative will empower______ holding Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) cards across 25 talukas in 10 districts of Gujarat in the next 5 years.
- It is being implemented by Gujarat Livelihood Promotion Company Limited (GLPC) under the Rural Development Department of Gujarat.
- It aligns with the Aspirational Blocks Programme (ABP), launched by the Government of India (GoI) in January 2023, aimed at improving the quality of life in 500 aspirational blocks across 27 states and 4 Union Territories (UTs).
G-SAFAL (Gujarat Scheme for Antyodaya Families for Augmenting Livelihoods)
50,000 families
About G-SAFAL initiative:
i. Four Key Pillars of G-SAFAL for Women’s Empowerment ,they are _____SLFS.
ii. The scheme will provide beneficiaries with thorough training and support, along with a grant of Rs. 80,000 to help them create new opportunities for financial stability.
iii. Around 10 Districts and Talukas of Gujarat will be covered under G-SAFAL.
Social Security,
Livelihood Creation,
Financial Inclusion, and
Social Development and Empowerment
Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi virtually addressed the inaugural session of the 3rd edition of the India Energy Week (IEW) 2025 at Yashobhoomi – India International Convention & Expo Centre (IICC) in New Delhi, Delhi from 11 – 14 February 2025.
- It was held under the patronage of the _____ and jointly organised by the Federation of Indian Petroleum Industry (FIPI) and DMG Events, a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Daily Mail and General Trust plc (DMGT).
- It served as a platform for policymakers, industry leaders, and stakeholders to collaborate on sustainable energy solutions to shape the future of energy on a global scale.
- IEW 2026 is scheduled to take place in _____.
Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) ;
Goa
Objectives of IEW 2025: India Energy Week 2025 will serve as a key platform for global collaboration, driving discussions on energy security, innovation, and sustainability.
Key Focus Areas of IEW 2025
i. India is prioritizing biofuels, flex-fuel vehicles, ethanol blending, and green hydrogen.
ii. Green Hydrogen Goal: Targeting 5 million metric tons (MMT) annual production by 2030.
iii. Launched Open Acreage Licensing Program (OALP) Round X, covering 200,000 sq. km, to attract investments.
iv. Plans to increase natural gas consumption from 6% to 15% in India’s energy mix and strengthen Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) supply partnerships.
v. Expanding oil and gas assets in Brazil, Venezuela, Russia, and Mozambique, leveraging new oil sources.
India’s Energy Achievements:
- India rose from the 10th to the _____ largest economy in the past decade.
- Solar energy capacity grew 32 times, making India the 3rd-largest solar power producer globally.
- Renewable Energy Milestone: Non-Fossil Fuel (NFF) capacity tripled, making India the 1st G20 nation to meet Paris Agreement (PA) climate goals.
- Achieved 19% ethanol blending, targeting 20% by ________, reducing Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions and saving Foreign Exchange (FX).
- India is the 4th-largest refining hub, with plans to increase capacity by ______.
- The Global Biofuels Alliance (GBA) has been established under India’s G20 presidency, now comprises 28 nations and 12 international organisations.
Note: The International Energy Agency (IEA) projects a 60% rise in India’s natural gas consumption to 103 Billion Cubic Meters (BCM) annually by 2030.
5th ; October 2025 ; 20%
Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL) has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the
______ to develop a dedicated and efficient maritime infrastructure.
- This collaboration aims to enhance India’s global maritime presence and support its growing energy demands
Shipping Corporation of India (SCI)
_______, India’s Mangalore Refinery and Petrochemicals Limited (MRPL), and Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited (ONGC) signed a nonbinding MoU to explore strategic opportunities in the energy sector.
Azerbaijan’s State Oil Company of Azerbaijan Republic (SOCAR)
_______, signed a non-binding MoU with Tata Power Renewable Energy Limited (TPREL), a subsidiary of the Tata Power Company Limited (TPCL) to explore opportunities in the Battery Energy Storage System (BESS) value chain.
Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited (ONGC)
the Indian Army (IA) organized a large-scale military exercise______ at Bet Dwarka, Gujarat. The primary objective was to bolster security in Dwarka and its surrounding islands, in response to recent illegal encroachments.
i. During the exercise, security personnel were deployed to the coast via hovercraft. The exercise simulated securing critical infrastructure and responding to potential land-based threats, enhancing overall preparedness.
ii. The District Administration of Devbhoomi Dwarka, Forest Department, Maritime Board of Gujarat Energy, and National Security Guard (NSG) supervised the operations, ensuring smooth coordination and response strategies
‘Jal-Thal-Raksha 2025’
- The exercise involved the participation of 11 Ahmedabad and 31 Jamnagar Army units, as well as the Indian Coast Guard (ICG) and Marine Police.
- The exercise aimed to improve coordination between government departments, paramilitary
forces, and defence forces during emergencies such as terrorist attacks or wartime scenarios.
India’s first Road Train was flagged off in ______ by Union Minister, Nitin Jairam Gadkari, Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH).
- It was developed by
Bengaluru (Karnataka) based _____ and operated by Gurgaon, (Haryana) based Delhivery Limited. - This innovation marks a major shift in India’s long-haul transportation system, offering higher
efficiency and increased capacity in logistics
Nagpur, Maharashtra
Volvo Trucks (Volvo Group India Private Limited)
PM Narendra Modi and Emmanuel Macron, President of France, led the Artificial Intelligence (AI) Action Summit in Paris, France. During the summit, PM Modi announced that India will
host the next AI summit in ______ (year).
2026
At the AI Action Summit, representatives from 58 countries signed a joint statement titled “Inclusive and Sustainable Artificial Intelligence for People and the Planet”. This is the ____such statement made internationally. The statement emphasizes the importance of developing AI that respects human rights, is ethical, safe, and trustworthy.
- Founding members have launched a major ‘Public Interest AI Platform and Incubator’. This initiative aims to bring together public and private efforts in the field of AI, reduce fragmentation, and address digital gaps. The Public Interest AI Initiative will focus on supporting digital public goods, technical assistance, and capacity-building projects. The aim is to create a trustworthy AI ecosystem that benefits everyone and advances the public good.
- The InvestAI initiative will supplement a _____ investment pledge from the private sector as part of the EU AI Champions Initiative launched at the AI Action Summit. The initiative, led by venture capitalist firm General Catalyst Partners, the United States of America (USA).
The French President launched _______ with an initial USD 400 million (Euro 387 million) Investment from the French government, philanthropists, and industry partners.
third
Euro 150 billion
‘Current AI’
India has officially offered its ______ to France, developed by the New Delhi (Delhi) based Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).
- This comes as India is also finalizing the purchase of 26 Rafale-Marine fighters from
France and collaborating on building three more Scorpene submarines.
Pinaka multi-launch artillery rocket systems
Artificial Intelligence (AI) also took center stage, with both countries agreeing to designate _____ (year) as the “India-France Year of Innovation.
2026
PM Narendra Modi and USA President Donald Trump launched a new initiative called the ______. This initiative aims to strengthen industry partnerships and production in the Indo Pacific region, focusing on collaboration between India and the U.S. in underwater domain awareness technologies.
They also launched a new initiative called the “U.S.-India COMPACT” (Catalyzing Opportunities for Military Partnership, Accelerated Commerce & Technology) to drive progress in military partnerships, commerce, and technology
‘Autonomous Systems Industry Alliance (ASIA)’
USA President Trump announced that the USA will supply ______ to India, allowing the country to join a select group of nations with advanced stealth aircraft.
India and the USA announced plans to sign a trade agreement by the end of 2025, aiming to boost bilateral trade to _____ by 2030.
F-35 stealth fighter jets
USD 500 billion
The Indian Navy (IN) actively participated in the ______ and ______ in Bali, Indonesia, with the events scheduled from February 15 to 22, 2025.
The Indian delegation is represented by the Indian Naval Ship (INS) Shardul, a Landing Ship Tank (Large), and the P-8I Long-Range Maritime Surveillance Aircraft.
- This year’s 2025 theme, ‘Maritime Partnership for Peace and Stability’, emphasizes natural disaster management and humanitarian aid, highlighting the collaborative efforts of participating nations in enhancing maritime security and regional cooperation.
- This exercise involves naval forces from over 30 countries, including the United States of America (USA), Russia, China, Australia, and Singapore, focusing on disaster relief and humanitarian operations.
‘International Fleet Review (IFR) 2025’ and the ‘5th Multilateral Naval Exercise Komodo’
- The IFR 2025 is a multinational naval event reviewed by the President of Indonesia, Prabowo Subianto Djojohadikusumo.
Note: Exercise Komodo, first launched in 2014, is a non-combat military drill organized by the Indonesian Navy to strengthen maritime cooperation among friendly nations.
Brazil announced that the next ‘BRICS Summit 2025’ will take place in Rio de Janeiro (Brazil) on July 6-7, 2025. Throughout 2025, Brazil will lead the group of developing nations and plans to prioritize global governance reform and bolster cooperation among countries of the Global South.
About BRICS:
BRICS, an intergovernmental organisation originally formed in ______ by Brazil, Russia, India, and China,
expanded with South Africa in 2010.
In 2024, it expanded by adding Iran, Egypt, Ethiopia, and the United Arab Emirates (UAE), with Saudi Arabia also invited to join. Turkey, Azerbaijan, and Malaysia have applied for membership. At the 2024 summit in Kazan (Russia), Indonesia became the 11th member, while ______ was named a “partner country”
2009
Nigeria
Mumbai (Maharashtra)-based market regulator, Securities and Exchange Board of
India (SEBI) has introduced new industry standards under which listed entities are required to provide minimum information to the audit committee and shareholders when seeking approval for the Related Party Transactions (RPT).
- The new disclosure rule will come into effect from ______.
- These new industry standards were issued by SEBI through a circular in exercise of powers given under Section _____ and ____of SEBI Act, 1992 read with regulation 101 of Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements (LODR) Regulations.
April 01, 2025
11 (1) and 11A
Related Party Transactions (RPT)
The new industry standards were developed by______ which comprises representatives from Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM), Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), and Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry (FICCI), under the aegis of stock exchanges and in consultation with SEBI.
As per SEBI, the industry associations and stock exchanges will publish these new standards on their respective web portals to provide a uniform approach and assist listed entities in complying with requirements.
According to the Regulation 23 (2) and (4) of SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015 (“LODR Regulations”), it is mandatory to receive approval from audit committee as well as from the shareholders, if material, for RPTs.
As per new rules, SEBI has mandated the listed entities to provide the audit committee with the information as outlined in the industry standards while submitting any proposal for review and approval of a RPT.
SEBI has further clarified that the explanatory statement comprising notices sent to the shareholders seeking approval for any RPT will include the information in addition to requirements under the Companies Act, 2013.
the Industry Standards Forum (ISF)
SEBI issued a circular in exercise of powers given under Section 11(1) of SEBI Act, 1992 read with Regulation 15 (1) (i) and Regulation 36 of AIF Regulations, 2012 to protect the interests of investors in securities and to promote the development of, and to regulate the securities market.
- As per the circular, SEBI has relaxed the timeline for Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) to hold investments in dematerialized (demat) form.
- All the provisions of SEBI’s circular came into force with _____ effect.
immediate
i. SEBI has mandated that any investment made by AIF on or after ______ will be held in demat form only, irrespective of the fact that whether the investment is made directly in an investee company or is acquired from another entity.
ii. However, SEBI has clarified that any investment made by AIF before that date are exempted from the requirement of being held in demat form, except in specific cases, such as: where, the investee company is legally mandated to dematerialize its securities or, Where, AIF has control over the company alongside SEBI-registered intermediaries.
- SEBI has further mentioned that all investments made by AIF prior to the date are required to be converted into dematerialized form before _______.
July 1,2025 ;
October 31, 2025
- SEBI has also extended exemptions to schemes of AIFs whose tenure, excluding permissible extension of tenure concludes on or before October 31, 2025, as well as schemes already in an extended tenure as of February 14, 2025.
iv. The trustee/sponsor of AIF, as the case may be, is required to ensure compliance with these revised provisions through the ‘Compliance Test Report’ prepared by the manager.
- AIF: It is a privately pooled investment vehicle that collects funds from sophisticated investors, whether Indian or foreign which invests in alternative asset classes such as private equity, venture capital (VC), hedge funds, among others.
India’s share of renewable energy (RE) is projected to rise from 21% in 2024 to _____ by 2027.
According to the International Energy Agency (IEA), the growth is mainly driven by solar power, which is expected to increase by more than 28% between 2025 and 2027.
- This transition aims to balance economic growth, energy security, and environmental
sustainability over the next decade.
27%
Wind, Hydropower, and Nuclear Growth (2024-2027):
- Wind energy: From 2018 to 2024, wind energy grew at a _____ compound annual growth rate (CAGR), with a forecasted increase to 11% CAGR from 2025 to 2027. The government has approved Rs. 74.5 billion for India’s first offshore wind projects, installing 1 GW capacity off Gujarat and Tamil Nadu (TN).
-
Hydropower: Expected to grow at a _____ CAGR between 2025 and 2027, with a 21.1 GW small hydropower potential identified by the Central Electricity Authority (CEA). The government has
allocated Rs.41.4 billion for small hydropower projects and Rs.124.6 billion for infrastructure. - Nuclear power: In 2024, nuclear energy capacity rose by _____, and the government plans to triple its capacity from 8.2 GW to 22.5 GW by 2032. Development includes Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) and Bharat Small Modular Reactors (BSMRs) for localized power generation.
7% ; 7% ; 13%
Coal and Thermal Power Outlook (2024-2032):
Despite the rise of renewables, coal continues to dominate India’s energy mix, accounting for _____ of the power in 2024, with a projected decline to 67% by 2027.
- The growth of coal-based power slowed from 4% CAGR (2018-2024) to a forecasted 2% CAGR (2025-2027).
- Gas-fired power is expected to grow at ____ annually from 2024 to 2027.
- India’s thermal power capacity is expected to rise from 218 GW to 283 GW by _____, with 80 GW of new coal capacity planned, alongside 500 GW of non-fossil fuel capacity by 2030.
74% ; 9% ; 2032
Rising Electricity Demand (2024-2030):
According to the International Monetary Fund (IMF), electricity demand in 2024, surged by 5.8% year-on-year (YOY), driven by _____ economic growth and extreme heatwaves.
- The peak demand reached a record 250 GW in May 2024, surpassing 243 GW in September 2023.
- By 2030, peak demand is expected to exceed 400 GW, with _____ of this capacity coming from non-fossil fuel sources
7% ; 65%
the ePlane Company, an electric aircraft startup incubated by the _______, signed a USD 1 billion deal with Bengaluru (Karnataka) based ICATT (International Critical-Care Air Transfer Team), India’s leading air ambulance firm to supply **788 Electric Vertical Take-Off and Landing (eVTOL) air ambulances.
Indian Institute of Technology -Madras (IIT-M) in Chennai (Tamil Nadu, TN)
- The eVTOL air ambulances aim to transform urban travel by developing battery-powered aircraft that can take off and land vertically, to avoid road traffic.
- The first fleet of air ambulances is expected to begin operations by late 2026 and ePlane produces 100 units of air ambulances each year.
the Department of Energy, Government of Odisha has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with New Delhi (Delhi) based Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL), a joint venture of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) under the Ministry of ______ to enhance energy efficiency initiatives across the state through expertise sharing, advanced technologies, and best practices.
- The MoU was signed in the presence of the Deputy Chief Minister (DYCM) of Odisha Kanak
Vardhan Singh Deo.
Power (MoP)
i. The partnership focuses on sustainable development by improving energy use, reducing costs, and enhancing public infrastructure while supporting climate action through energy-efficient projects, clean cooking, electric mobility, and capacity-building initiatives.
ii. Odisha strives to lead energy efficiency and sustainability, advancing India’s Net Zero goals and a low-carbon future through modern technology and public-private partnerships.
Election Commissioner, _____ was appointed as the 26th Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) by the Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi led selection committee.
He succeeds incumbent Rajiv Kumar and becomes the first CEC to be appointed under the newly established law governing the selection of Election Commission (EC) members.
- He will assume charge on February 19, 2025 and will hold the position until _______.
- Prior to his appointment, he served as the Election Commissioner (EC) from March 2024 to February 2025.
Gyanesh Kumar ;
January 26, 2029
New Selection Process for Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners:
i. The Chief Election Commissioner And Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service And Term of Office) Act, 2023, sets the new selection process for the CEC and ECs, with the President appointing them based on recommendations from a committee comprising the PM, ______, and the Leader of Opposition or the largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha.
ii. A search committee, headed by the Cabinet Secretary, proposes names for the selection committee.
iii. Previously, there was no defined selection process, and the President appointed Election Commissioners based on the advice of the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers.
iv. The new Act aligns the salary and conditions of service of the CEC and ECs with those of a Cabinet Secretary.
v. The eligibility criteria for CEC and ECs include being persons of integrity, having knowledge and experience in election management, and being or having been a Secretary or equivalent.
vi. The term remains_______ and the removal process stays the same as in the Constitution.
vii. The change in the selection process came after the Supreme Court’s (SC) recommendation for an independent selection process
a Union Cabinet Minister ;
6 years, with no reappointment,
About the Samudrayaan Mission:
i. The Samudrayaan or the deep ocean mission, was initiated in ______, India’s first manned mission to explore the deep ocean.
- It is part of the larger Deep Ocean Mission (DOM), supporting the Central Government’s Blue Economy policy.
- The nodal ministry for this mission is the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).
ii. It aims to develop a self-propelled manned submersible to carry 3 human beings to a water depth of 6,000 meters in the ocean, equipped with scientific sensors and tools for deep ocean exploration.
iii. The mission is designed to study deep ocean resources and conduct biodiversity assessments without
disturbing the ecosystem.
iv. The submersible will be outfitted with a range of scientific sensors and tools, with an operational
endurance of 12 hours, extendable to 96 hours in case of an emergency.
2021
India’s 4th-generation deep-ocean submersible ‘Matsya-6000’ successfully completed its wet testing at L&T Shipbuilding facility in Kattupalli Port, Chennai (Tamil Nadu, TN).
It was developed and tested by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), Chennai under the ______, and was designed for deep-sea exploration and scientific research.
Samudrayaan Project
Services Sports Control Board (SSCB) topped at the 38th edition of National Games which was held in _______ from January 26, 2025 to February 14, 2025, with 121 medals including 68 gold, 26 silver and 27 bronze. With this, SSCB continued its dominance in the National Games as it topped the medal tally for 5th time in the last six National Games, except in 2023. SSCB secured the Raja Bhalindra Singh Trophy which is awarded to the team that wins the highest number of gold medals at the National Games.
- Maharashtra, secured 2nd position in overall medal tally with 201 medals, 54 gold, 71 silver and 76 bronze. It is followed by Haryana ranked at 3rd position with 153 medals (48 gold, 47 silver and 58 bronze).
Two sports – Kalarippayattu and Rafting were the demonstration sports in which no medals were
given to the participants.
- The mascot for 38th National Games was named ‘Mauli’, inspired by the Himalayan Molan, state bird of Uttarakhand.
- The logo featured ‘the Monal’ which symbolizes the state’s rich natural beauty and diversity.
- The official tagline of 38th National Games was titled ‘Sankalp Se Shikar Tak’ (Resolve to Zenith).
- The latest edition of National Games also introduced newly designed torch which has incorporated motifs of the perennial holy river Ganga and the state flower ‘Brahma Kamal’ also known as ‘Lotus of the Darks’.
Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL) was officially designated as the bronze sponsor of the latest edition of National Games.
Uttarakhand
- Maharashtra, secured 2nd position in overall medal tally with 201 medals, 54 gold, 71 silver and 76 bronze.
- It is followed by Haryana ranked at 3rd position with 153 medals (48 gold, 47 silver and 58 bronze).
- The event, themed ‘Green Games’, focused on sustainability, featuring eco-friendly welcome kits, e-waste medals, and tree plantations for medalists.
Note: The 37th edition of National Games was held in Goa in 2023. Maharashtra for the 1st time topped the medal tally with 228 medals and won the Raja Bhalindra Singh Trophy in 2023.
Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi was invited as Guest of Honour at the opening ceremony of 38th National Games which was held on January 28, 2025 at Rajiv Gandhi International Stadium in Dehradun, Uttarakhand.
- While addressing the event, the PM reiterated his commitment to bring the 2036 Olympic Games to India.
The Government of India (GoI) collaborated with Noida (Uttar Pradesh, UP)-based Attero Recycling Private Limited, India’s largest cleantech company and the world’s largest recycler of lithium-ion batteries for 38th National Games.
- The latest edition of National Games was centered on sustainability under the theme ‘Green Games’.
- Attero supplied recycled metals with more than 99.9% purity, ensuring a positive carbon footprint.
Key Highlights of 38th National Games:
Best Female and Male Athlete:
i. 14-year old Swimmer from Karnataka, ______, who competed at Paris 2024 Olympics, claimed the Best Female Athlete title at 38th National Games, by winning 11 medals, including 9 gold, one silver, and one bronze.
ii. India’s top backstroke swimmer ______ (Bengaluru, Karnataka), who also competed at 2024 Paris Olympic Games, claimed the Best Male Athlete title for the 2nd consecutive time. He won 10 medals including 9 gold and one silver at latest edition of National Games. Earlier, he won this title at the 37th National Games where he won 8 gold and one bronze.
Dhinidhi Desinghu ;
Srihari Nataraj
Top 10 of medal tally are: - TN won 92 medals (including 27 gold, 30 silver and 35 bronze);
- Uttarakhand won 103 medals (including 24 gold, 35 silver, and 44 bronze); -
- WB won 47 medals (including 16 gold, 13 silver and 18 bronze);
- Punjab won 66 medals (15 gold, 20 silver, and 31 bronze) and
- National Capital Territory (NCT) Delhi won 62 medals (including 15 gold, 18 silver and 29 bronze).
a veteran space scientist of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and Padma Shri Awardee_______ passed away at the age of 84 in Bengaluru (Karnataka).
- In 1982, he was honored with Padma Shri, India’s fourth-highest civilian award, in the field of Science and Engineering
Ramaswamy Manicka (R.M) Vasagam
20
