From Feb 18 Flashcards

1
Q

Union Minister of State(MoS), S.P. Singh Baghel, Ministry of Panchayati Raj (MoPR), Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying (MoFAH&D) released the comprehensive Devolution Index Report titled “Status of Devolution to Panchayats in States – An Indicative Evidence-Based Ranking 2024” at the Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA), New Delhi (Delhi).

  • As per the report, ____ranked 1st in the devolution of power to panchayats, excelling in terms of funds, functions, and functionaries, followed by 2. Kerala, 3. Tamil Nadu (TN), 4. Maharashtra, and 5. Uttar Pradesh (UP).
A

Karnataka

  • This report marks a key milestone in India’s efforts to empower Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) and to fulfill the vision of “Local Self Government” outlined in the 73rd Constitutional Amendment
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2
Q

What is the Devolution Index?

i. The Devolution Index is the result of thorough research and empirical analysis, offering insights into decentralization progress across States and UTs.

  • The report was prepared by the IIPA [Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA), New Delhi (Delhi)] and assessed 31 states and Union Territories (UTs), sampling 172 Panchayats across 68 districts, with a total of 1,594 respondents interviewed.
  • Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, UT of Chandigarh and National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi are not covered in this report.

ii. The Index evaluates 6 critical dimensions: Framework, Functions, Finances, Functionaries, Capacity Building, and Accountability of Panchayats.

iii. It specifically examines the autonomy of Panchayats to make and implement independent decisions, reflecting the spirit of ______ of the Constitution.

A

Article 243G

Note: Article 243G empowers State legislatures to devolve powers and responsibilities to Panchayats across 29 subjects listed in the 11th Schedule.

i. The Devolution Index serves as a tool for strengthening cooperative federalism and local self-governance.

ii. It enables states to identify areas for improvement and adopt best practices for more empowered and effective Panchayats.

iii. For citizens, it provides transparency in tracking Panchayat functioning and resource allocation, while elected representatives can utilize data-driven insights for advocacy and reform

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3
Q

Devolution Index Report titled “Status of Devolution to Panchayats in States – An Indicative Evidence-Based Ranking 2024”

i. Increase in Devolution: The report indicates a rise in devolution to rural local bodies from 39.9% in 2013-14 to 43.9% in 2021-22.

ii. Capacity Enhancement: Following the launch of the Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) on April 21, 2018, the capacity enhancement component of the Devolution Index 2024 increased from 44% to _____, marking an improvement of over 10%.

iii. Functionaries: Efforts to strengthen PRIs through infrastructure development and recruitment have led to a significant increase in the functionaries component of the Devolution Index, rising from 39.6% to
50.9%.

iv. Accountability & Transparency: Measures to enhance accountability and transparency resulted in scores growing from 46.1% to 47.5%, indicating stronger auditing and anti-corruption efforts.

A

54.6%

  • Financial Devolution: The share of funds allocated to PRIs increased from 32.05% to 37.04%, enhancing financial resources for local governance.
  • Functional Devolution: The proportion of functions transferred to PRIs declined from 35.34% to 29.18%, indicating a reduction in administrative responsibilities at the local level.

i. Kerala leads in the ‘Framework’ dimension, setting the standard for mandatory structures.
ii. Tamil Nadu (TN) excels in ‘Functions’, establishing a benchmark for functional devolution.
iii. Karnataka demonstrates exemplary financial management in the ‘Finances’ category.
iv. Gujarat leads in ‘Functionaries’, showcasing excellence in personnel management and capacity building.
v. Telangana stands out in ‘Capacity Enhancement’, leading in institutional strengthening.
vi. Karnataka also sets new standards in ‘Accountability’, establishing benchmarks in transparency.

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4
Q

the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), Ministry of Communications (MoC), in partnership with the ________ unveiled a comprehensive report on Disaster Risk and Resilience Assessment Framework (DRRAF). This marks a significant step towards strengthening India’s telecom sector against disasters.

  • The report was launched as part of a comprehensive study on National and Sub-national Disaster Risk & Resilience Assessment for the Telecommunication sector by CDRI (______).
  • The study was conducted across 5 Indian states: Assam, Odisha, Tamil Nadu (TN), Uttarakhand, and Gujarat, which focuses on disaster risks and resilience strategies specific to the telecom sector.
  • DoT coordinated with State Governments, Telecom Service Providers, and Infrastructure Providers to gather critical data.
A

Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI)

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5
Q

the Ministry of Ayush (Ayurveda, Yoga and Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homoeopathy) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the ______ under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment (MoSJE) in New Delhi (Delhi).

  • The MoU aims to implement Ayush-based interventions to enhance geriatric healthcare and address substance abuse.
  • It marks a milestone in India’s healthcare journey, blending the strengths of Ayush systems with social justice initiatives to foster a healthier and more inclusive society.
A

Department of Social Justice and Empowerment (DoSJE)

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6
Q

the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) launched_____, India’s 1st dedicated platform to monitor and analyse RPTs. The portal also aims to bolster transparency and governance in corporate India.

A

‘Related Party Transaction (RPT) portal’

  • The portal enables a wide range of stakeholders to access standardized and comparable data on RPTs.

Note: RPT is a transaction between related parties which involves transfer of resources, services or obligations between them regardless of whether a price is charged.

i. SEBI clarified that executive compensation will be covered under RPTs, which means that promoters of companies can reward themselves without shareholder approval.

ii. The portal will compile comprehensive information on RPTs, including shareholding voting patterns from the last 2 years, which will enable the investors and other entities to make well-informed decisions. Also, by compiling such data in a single platform, the initiative will fix information gaps and enhance corporate governance practices in India.

iii. The portal will be maintained by 3 proxy advisories Bengaluru (Karnataka)-based InGovern Research Services Private Limited, Mumbai (Maharashtra)-based Institutional Investor Advisory Services India Limited (IiAs) and Mumbai based Stakeholders Empowerment Services (SES).

iv. It will help investors to track RPTs and access opinions on such transactions.

  • Retail investors will now have access to this information, which was previously limited to institutional investors.
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7
Q

Madhabi Puri Buch, Chairperson of SEBI
announced that new RPT disclosure standards have been approved by the ______. These new standards aimed to ensure more transparency and protect investors.

i. The new standards will require listed companies to provide more detailed information like: what are the minimum
disclosures the companies would have to make when they take an RPT for approval, both by shareholders and audit committees (in certain cases).

ii. Also, the standards will outline the minimum disclosures required when you go to the shareholders for approval.

A

Industry Standards Forum (ISF)

About Industry Standards Forum (ISF):
It is a SEBI-established group of representatives from different industry sectors. The main objective of ISF is to develop and set standards for implementing regulatory guidelines within their respective sectors.
Chairman- Kundapur Vaman (K.V.) Kamath
Established- 2023

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8
Q

the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed restrictions on Mumbai (Maharashtra)- based _____ from issuing new loans and suspended deposit withdrawals amid supervisory concerns about its financial position.

  • These restrictions were issued by the RBI under Section _____ of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 to protect the interest of depositors.
  • These restrictions came into force on February 13, 2025 and will remain in force for a period of ____ months, but they are subject to a future review by the RBI.
A

New India Co-operative Bank Limited

35A ; 6

  • As per the RBI directions, the bank does not have power/authority to grant or renew any loans or advances, make any new investments or accept new deposits without the prior approval from the RBI.
  • But, RBI has permitted loan set-offs against deposits under specific terms and conditions.
  • It has also allowed bank to incur essential expenses such as employee salaries, rent, and electricity bills.
  • RBI informed that eligible depositors will receive a deposit insurance claim of up to Rs 5 lakh for their deposits from the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC), as applicable under the provisions of the DICGC Act, 1961.
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9
Q

The RBI in exercise of the powers given under Section _____ read with section ____ of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 (as applicable to Co-operative Societies) has superseded the Board of Directors (BoDs) of New India Co-operative Bank for a period of ____ months, to address its governance issues.

About New India Co-operative Bank Limited:
It was initially established as Bombay Labour Co-operative Bank Limited in 1968. Later, it was renamed as the New India Co-operative Bank Limited in 1977.
Headquarters- Mumbai, Maharashtra

A

36 AAA ; 56 ; 12

  • It has appointed Shreekant, a former Chief General Manager (CGM), State Bank of India (SBI) as the administrator to manage the bank’s affairs.
  • It has also formed a committee of advisors to assist him, including Ravindra Sapra, former General Manager (GM) of SBI and Abhijeet Deshmukh, Chartered Accountant (CA).
  • The primary function of the committee is to examine the financial situation, stabilize operations, and work towards the revival of the bank.
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10
Q

Mumbai (Maharashtra)-based National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) has introduced a new rule for managing charge backs in Unified Payments Interface (UPI) transactions.

  • As per new UPI rule, charge backs will now be automatically accepted or rejected based on _____ and Return Requests (RET) raised by the beneficiary banks in the next settlement cycle after the charge back has been started.
  • The new above mentioned facility is implemented in UPI Dispute Resolution System (URCS) with effect from ______.

Key Highlights of New Mechanism:
i. The new UPI rule is applicable only to bulk upload options and Unified Dispute Resolution Interface (UDIR), and will not include front-end dispute resolution options.
ii. Now, Beneficiary banks will have an opportunity to reconcile transactions efficiently before charge backs are deemed approved.

About National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI):
It is an organisation that regulates the retail payment and settlement system in India. It was launched as a joint initiative of RBI and India Banks’ Association (IBA). It was set up under the provisions of Payment and Settlement Systems (PSS Act, 2007).
Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) – Dilip Asbe
Headquarters- Mumbai, Maharashtra
Established- ____

A

Transaction Credit Confirmation (TCC) ; February 15, 2025

2008

  • A charge back is a process which reverses a completed UPI transaction due to disputes, fraud or technical error. This reversal of UPI transaction is initiated by the payer’s bank, and if approved, the transaction amount is returned to the payer.
  • At present, remitting banks can start charge backs from ‘T+0’ onwards in URCS due to which beneficiary banks are not getting sufficient time to reconcile transactions, leading to rejected RET.
  • While, in some cases, charge backs are closed automatically with a deemed acceptance which resulted in penalties imposed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
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11
Q

the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) granted an extension to the Mumbai (Maharashtra) based _____ authorization to set up, own, and operate White Label ATMs (WLAs) across India until March 31, 2026.

A

Vakrangee Limited

  • As of January 31, 2025, Vakrangee operates 6,036 WLAs and 76% of these are in Tier 4 and Tier 6 locations, aimed at enhancing financial accessibility in the unserved & underserved areas.

i. Vakrangee Limited offers a wide range of services, including banking, insurance, e-governance, ecommerce, and logistics solutions.
ii. In addition, Vakrangee operates 22,395 Vakrangee Kendra outlets, with 81% of these located in Tier-4 to Tier-6 areas.
iii. Vakrangee aims to achieve a revenue of USD 1 billion and a gross transaction value of USD 150 billion by 2030.

Note: As of December 2024, the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) held a 4.41% stake in Vakrangee Limited

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12
Q

Mumbai based Reserve Bank of India (RBI) removed the restrictions placed on ______, headquartered in Mumbai, Maharashtra, allowing KMB to resume onboarding new customers digitally and issuing new credit cards.

i. The RBI imposed restrictions on April 24, 2024, under section 35A of Banking Regulation Act, 1949, after identifying serious Information Technology (IT)-related regulatory violations, including deficiencies in IT inventory management, security protocols and disaster recovery measures.

ii. These restrictions had prevented the bank from adding new customers through online and mobile banking and from issuing new credit cards.

iii. To resolve these issues, KMB took corrective measures and submitted compliance reports, conducted an external audit with RBI’s approval. After reviewing the bank’s improvements and compliance efforts, the RBI decided to lift the restrictions.

iv. As a result the “cease and desist” directive has been lifted for all banks and non-banking financial companies (NBFC), except for Paytm Payments Bank.

A

Kotak Mahindra Bank (KMB) Limited

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13
Q

Mumbai, Maharashtra based The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) permitted ______, a subsidiary of Singapore-based Temasek Holdings (Private) Limited, to raise its stake in Jaipur (Rajasthan)-based AU Small Finance Bank (SFB) to 7%.

A

Zulia Investments Pte. Ltd.

  • If Zulia increases its stake, it could become the largest foreign investor in the bank.

Note: AU SFB, which began operations in April 2017, focuses on providing credit to retail customers and MSMEs (Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises) while offering deposit and branch banking services.

i. On February 12, 2025, AU SFB received an RBI letter approving Zulia and its associated entities to acquire up to 7% of the bank’s paid-up capital or voting rights within one year.
ii. If the acquisition is not completed by February 12, 2026, the approval will lapse.
iii. Currently, Zulia holds a 1.37% stake in AU SFB, while foreign institutional and portfolio investors own 39.35%.

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14
Q

Washington (the United States of America, USA)-based International Finance Corporation (IFC), the private sector arm of the World Bank Group (WBG), has invested Rs 860 crore (nearly USD 98.35 million) in India’s 1st ________in the road sector, issued by Noida (Uttar Pradesh, UP)-based Cube Highways Trust (Cube InvIT (Infrastructure Investment Trust)).

  • This investment by IFC aims to improve critical road infrastructure and strengthen climate resilience in highway development in India.
A

Sustainability-linked Bond (SLB)

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15
Q

______ announced that it will provide lines of credit worth USD 300 million to Vietnam for buying high-speed boats and offshore patrol vessels.

A

Mumbai (Maharashtra)-based Export Import Bank of India (EXIM Bank)

  • In July 2024, the EXIM Bank had signed an agreement with the Government of the Socialist Republic of Vietnam (GO-VNM), for making available to the latter, the Government of India (GoI) had pledged to provide Line of Credit (LoC) of USD 180 million for procurement of 4 Offshore Patrol Vessels (OPV).

i. The bank had also signed an agreement with GO-VNM for making available to the latter, GoI had committed to provide LoC of USD 120 million for procurement of high speed guard boats.
ii. Both agreements are effective from January 20, 2025 and the last date for disbursement will be 60 months after the scheduled completion date of the project.

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16
Q

Bengaluru (Karnataka)-based Decentro Tech Private Limited, a leading fintech infrastructure platform, has launched India’s 1st completely compliant, self-hosted _______.

  • This will enable financial institutions to seamlessly switch to the new Central Registry of Securitisation Asset Reconstruction and Security Interest of India (CERSAI) compliance framework.

i. This new offering will remove the dependency on 3rd-parties, allowing banks, Non-Banking Financial
Companies (NBFCs), and insurers to onboard customers faster while ensuring regulatory compliance.
ii. Some of the key benefits of this new innovation are: 80% faster processing; 75% lower compliance costs, and zero vendor dependencies.

A

Central Know Your Customer (CKYC) solution

About CERSAI:
* CERSAI was established under Section 20 of the Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act (SARFAESI Act, 2002).
* CERSAI was incorporated as a company under Section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956. The Government of India(GoI) holds a 51% share in the company.

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17
Q

the United States of America (USA) based Morgan Stanley Capital International Incorporation (MSCI), a leading service provider for the global investment community announced the ______. The review revealed that Gurugram (Haryana) based Hyundai Motor India Limited (HMIL) has been added to the MSCI Emerging Markets (EM) Index, and also to the MSCI India Domestic Index, while Ahmedabad (Gujarat) based Adani Green Energy Limited (AGEL) has been removed from the index.

A

MSCI Equity Indexes February 2025 Index Review

  • The changes will be implemented around February 28, 2025, and will take effect from March 3, 2025.
  • With this, India’s weight in the index increases to 19%, up from 18.8% in the previous review.

Note: Hyundai Motor is the only large-cap stock which has been added to the list.

About MSCI Emerging Markets (EM) Index:
i. The MSCI Emerging Markets Index tracks the performance of growing economies around the world.
ii. It includes large and mid-cap companies from 24 Emerging Markets (EM) countries.
iii. With 1,251 constituents, the index covers 85% of the free-float-adjusted market capitalization in each of these countries

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18
Q

the 7th edition of the “Sportstar Aces Awards 2025” was held at the Taj Mahal Palace in Mumbai, Maharashtra. The event celebrated exceptional achievements in Indian sports, honoring the winners across 24 distinct categories. The awards recognized the remarkable contributions and accomplishments of athletes, coaches, and organizations that have significantly impacted Indian sports.

  • Indian hockey legend, ______ won the Sportstar of the Year 2025 (Male), while ______ won the Sportstar of the Year 2025 (Female) and also the Sportswoman of the Year (Olympic Sport) repectively.
  • The event featured 5 Popular Choice Awards and 16 Jury Awards, with over 2 lakh votes cast for the Popular Choice categories.
  • This year 2025, 2 special awards: ‘Special Recognition Gamechanger 2025’ and ‘Inspirational Icon Award 2025’ were presented.
A

Parattu Raveendran (PR) Sreejesh ; Manu Bhaker

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19
Q

______, an Indian ‘Maharatna’ Central Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) which works under the Ministry of Power (MoP), has been conferred with Forward Faster Sustainability Award 2025 in the category of ‘Water Resilience’, in recognition of the its exceptional efforts in water conservation and sustainable water management initiatives.

A

NTPC Limited (formerly known as National Thermal Power Corporation Limited)

  • Harekrushna Dash, ED (Sustainability, Environment & Ash) and K Karthikeyan, Additional General Manager (AGM), NTPC Limited received the award at ceremony organised by the United Nations (UN) Global Compact Network India (UN GCNI) in Chennai, Tamil Nadu (TN).
  • NTPC is actively implementing the Reduce, Reuse & Recycle(RRR) approach to optimize water use.
  • The Forward Faster Sustainability Awards recognizes organisations/institutions in India that have made significant contributions in promoting sustainability and corporate responsibility, aligning with UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
  • NTPC Limited, largest integrated power utility in India, is contributing 25% of India’s power requirements and has an installed capacity of more than 77 Giga Watt (GW), with an additional capacity of 29.5 GW under construction, including 9.6 GW of Renewable Energy (RE) capacity.
  • The company has set the target of achieving 60 GW of RE capacity by 2032
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20
Q

The 9th Asian Winter Games (Harbin 2025), held in Harbin, Heilongjiang Province, China, from February 7 to February 14, 2025, marked a significant milestone in the promotion of winter sports across Asia.

  • Organized by the ______ and supported by the International Skating Union (ISU), the event brought together athletes from 34 countries.
  • Asian Winter Games 2025 featured 64 events across 11 winter sports disciplines.
  • 9th Asian Winter Games mascots are _____ and _____ tigers and the motto is “Dream of Winter, Love among Asia”.

New Entrants:
Saudi Arabia participated in alpine skiing & snowboarding and Cambodia participated in cross-country skiing, marking their first appearance in the Asian Winter Games.

  • Saudi Arabia officially received the flag of the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA), as the host of the 10th Asian Winter Games (NEOM) in 2029, becoming the first country in West Asia to host the continental sporting event.
A

Olympic Council of Asia (OCA) ;

“Binbin” and “Nini”

  • China topped the medal tally with 32 Gold, 27 Silver, and 26 Bronze medals, total 85 medals.
  • Republic of Korea secured the second position with 16 Gold, 15 Silver, and 14 Bronze medals, total 45 medals.
  • Japan followed closely with 10 Gold, 12 Silver, and 15 Bronze medals, total 37 medals, excelling in short-track speed skating and skiing.

India’s Performance:
- India had sent their largest contingent of 59 athletes to the Asian Winter Games 2025.
i. India ended its campaign without any medals but showcased potential through its athletes.
ii. Tara Prasad, India’s skater, delivered a personal best performance, finishing 8th in the women’s skating event

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21
Q

February 15

A
  1. International Childhood Cancer Day (ICCD) is a global collaborative campaign, observed annually on 15 February across the globe to raise awareness about childhood cancer, highlighting its distinct challenges, and to show solidarity with children and adolescents fighting cancer, as well as with survivors and their families.
    i. The 3-year campaign of ICCD (2024-2026) aims to address the challenges faced by childhood cancer patients, caregivers, survivors and health care professionals worldwide.
    ii. The campaign theme of ICCD 2025 is “Inspiring Action”.
    * The campaign theme of ICCD 2026 is “Demonstrating Impact” and the campaign theme of ICCD 2024 is “Unveiling Challenges”.
  2. World Pangolin Day is observed annually on the third Saturday of February to celebrate pangolins or the scaly anteater, the most unique mammals on Earth and raise awareness about their conservation. The day aims to highlight the critical threats faced by these unique mammals, primarily due to illegal poaching and trafficking for their scales and meat.
    * In 2025, World Pangolin Day falls on 15th February 2024 marking the observance of the 14th World Pangolin Day.
    * The 13th World Pangolin Day was observed on 17th February, 2024 and the 15th World Pangolin Day will be observed for February 21, 2026
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22
Q

The *15th edition of Aero India 2025**, Asia’s largest aerospace and defence exhibition, was held from February 10 to 14, 2025, in ________, under the theme “The Runway to a Billion Opportunities.”

A

Bengaluru, Karnataka

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23
Q

the Rural Technology Action Group (RuTAGe) Smart Village Center (RSVC) was inaugurated in ______.

A

Mandaura village, Sonipat, Haryana

  • The RSVC aims to bridge the gap between rural technological needs and cutting-edge innovations, promoting sustainable development in rural areas
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24
Q

______ has become the 1st state in India to introduce a dedicated Global Capability Centre (GCC) Policy 2025, positioning itself as a leading hub for global innovation, technology, and business collaboration.

  • _______ will act as the nodal agency responsible for implementing the policy.
  • A dedicated Policy Implementation Unit (PIU) will manage project approvals, incentive allocation, and compliance monitoring.
A

Madhya Pradesh (MP)

The Madhya Pradesh State Electronics Development Corporation Limited (MPSeDC)

Objective: The Madhya Pradesh GCC Policy 2025 aims to transform tier-2 cities like Bhopal, Indore, and Gwalior into global operations centers, providing a competitive advantage to businesses seeking expansion in India.

Key Features:
i. The focus sectors of the policy include Information Technology (IT), Finance, Engineering, Human Resources (HR), and Emerging Technologies (ET), with a special emphasis on Artificial Intelligence (AI), and
Cybersecurity.

ii. This policy combines incentives for Capital Expenditure (CapEx), payroll subsidies, upskilling programs, and Research and Development (R&D).

Note: Unveiled ahead of the Global Investors Summit (GIS) 2025 in Bhopal, MP on 24 and 25 February 2025, the GCC Policy 2025 reinforces MP’s role in India’s USD 110 billion GCC market vision for 2030.

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25
Q

Union Minister Jagat Prakash Nadda, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) launched the Annual Nationwide Mass Drug Administration (MDA) Campaign to eliminate ______. The launch took place through a video conference with State Health Ministers and senior officials from 13 LF-endemic states.

A

Lymphatic Filariasis (LF) (commonly known as Hathi Paon)

  • The campaign aims for the door-to-door distribution of anti-filarial medication, ensuring that all eligible individuals take the prescribed medicine to prevent the transmission of the disease.
  • It is led by the National Center for Vector Borne Diseases Control (NCVBDC) under MoHFW
  • India is committed to eliminating Lymphatic Filariasis by 2027.

Note: Lymphatic Filariasis is a parasitic disease transmitted through the bites of infected mosquitoes.
Lymphatic Filariasis (LF) which is caused by Culex mosquitoes

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26
Q

The Department of Posts (DoP) has released a special commemorative souvenir sheet featuring 3 postage stamps dedicated to the Maha Kumbh Mela 2025, which is taking place in Prayagraj, Uttar Pradesh (UP) from 13th January to 26th February 2025. Union Minister Jyotiraditya Madhavrao Scindia, Ministry of Communications (MoC), unveiled these stamps at Arail Ghat Post Office (PO), Prayagraj.

  • The commemorative postage stamps, designed by _____, depict 3 prominent aspects of Triveni Tirtha– Maharshi Bharadwaj Ashram (an ancient center of learning), Snan (holy dip at Triveni Sangam), and Akshayvat (the immortal Banyan tree).
A

Sankha Samanta

  • Other philatelic releases highlighting Maha Kumbh include special covers and cancellations on sacred Snan days, ‘Divya, Bhavya and Digital Mahakumbh’, and a picture postcard celebrating ‘Prakhyat Prayagraj’.
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27
Q

The Government of India (GoI) will issue a Rs 100 commemorative coin, to mark the birth centenary of legendary playback singer _______, which concluded on 24 December 2024. The circular and non-circulating coin is reportedly minted by the India Government Mint (IGM) in Mumbai, Maharashtra.

A

Padma Shri Mohammed Rafi

  • The metal composition of the Rs 100 commemorative coin will consist of a Quaternary Alloy, comprising 50% Silver (Ag), 40% Copper (Cu), 5% Nickel (Ni), and 5% Zinc (Zn).
  • The coin will weigh 35 grams (g) and have a diameter of 44 millimeters (mm), featuring 20 serrations along the edge.
  • On the obverse side, the face of the coin will bear the Lion Capital of Ashoka Pillar in the center with the legend ‘Satyamev Jayate’ inscription, Rupee symbol (₹) below, and denominational value “100” in the international numerals below it.
  • The left and right peripheries of the coin will be flanked with the words “Bharath” in Devanagari script and ‘INDIA’ in English respectively.
  • On the reverse side, the face of the coin will bear Mohammed Rafi’s image in the center with inscriptions Birth Centenary of Mohammed Rafi in Devanagari script and English on the upper and lower peripheries respectively, along with the years 1924-2024.
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28
Q

The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) organised the 9th edition of ______ on February 13-14, 2025, its a quarterly meeting with insurance company Chief Executive Officers (CEOs).

  • During the meeting, IRDAI has introduced the ‘Bima Trinity’ initiative to enhance the accessibility, affordability, and efficiency of insurance services in India**.
  • This comprehensive plan comprises three key components: **Bima Sugam, Bima Vistaar and Bima Vahaak.
  • The aim is to enhance insurance inclusion and digital transformation, reinforcing its commitment to a more accessible and consumer-friendly insurance ecosystem as part of its ‘Vision Insurance for all’ by 2047.
A

Bima Manthan

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29
Q

i. _______: An open digital marketplace designed to facilitate the sale, servicing, and claims of insurance policies across various insurance companies.

ii. ______: A pioneering composite insurance product that offers coverage for life, personal accidents, property, and surgical hospitalization.

iii. _______: A localized, women-centric insurance field sales force aimed at enhancing insurance penetration in underserved areas. It is scheduled for a soft launch in April 2025.

A

Bima Sugam ;

Bima Vistaar;

Bima Vahaak;

Note: The Bima Sugam India Federation (BSIF) was established to develop and operate this platform has completed its foundational processes and is now ready for industry participation and capitalization.

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30
Q

the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) imposed penalties on two banks and one Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) for not adhering to regulatory guidelines.

A
  • The banks involved include Nainital (Uttarakhand) based Nainital Bank Limited
    (NTB), Bengaluru (Karnataka) based Ujjivan Small Finance Bank Limited (USFB), and the Chennai (Tamil Nadu, TN) based Shriram Finance Limited (SFL), an NBFC.
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31
Q

_______, Chairman of Tata Sons Private Limited was conferred with the United Kingdom’s (UK’s) “Knight Commander of the Most Excellent Order of the British Empire (KBE )” under King Charles III reign for his services to U.K./India Business relations.

  • The KBE/DBE is one of the highest honors awarded by the British Sovereign to civilians, recognizing the exceptional contributions of foreign nationals across various fields.
A

Natarajan Chandrasekaran

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32
Q

Reserve Bank of India (RBI) approved Banker ______’s appointment as the Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of India’s operation of Standard Chartered of India based in Mumbai, Maharashtra.

  • He will assume office on April 1, 2025, succeeding Zarin Daruwala who will retire on March 31, 2025, after serving for ten years
  • He will head India and South Asia operation and the tenure will be for 3 years

Note: Standard Chartered has been operating in India for over 160 years, with a network of 100 branches across 42 cities.

A

Prabdev Singh (P.D.) Singh

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33
Q

Bengaluru (Karnataka)-based Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA), a department of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and _______, a defence Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for the Indigenous development of high-strength, high-toughness special-grade steel “MDN100” for aerospace applications.

A

Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited (MIDHANI)

  • This collaboration aims to advance aeronautical applications, particularly in the 5th generation Advanced Medium Combat Aircraft (AMCA) program.
  • The MoU was signed at the Aero India 2025 airshow held from 10-14 February 2025 in Bengaluru.
  • ADA is the nodal organization for combat aircraft development in India.
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34
Q

_______ won their first-ever title at the 4th Edition of the “Badminton Asia Mixed Team Championship 2025” by defeating two-time defending champions China with a 3-1 victory in the final. The tournament was held from February 11 to 16, 2025 at the Conson Gymnasium in Qingdao, China.

  • China took home the silver while Japan and Thailand were awarded with the bronze medals for their victory.

The Badminton Asia Mixed Team Championships is a biennial tournament organized by Badminton Asia and hosted by the _______.

A

Indonesia

Chinese Badminton Association (CBA)

  • Muhammad Shohibul Fikri served as the captain for the Indonesia team while the China team was led by captain Chen Xujun.
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35
Q

the International Olympic Committee (IOC) announced that the inaugural Olympic Esports Games will be held in Riyadh, Saudi Arabia (SA) for the 1st time, in _____. This decision is part of a 12-year partnership between the IOC and the Saudi Olympic and Paralympic Committee (SOPC), aimed at engaging younger audiences through esports.

  • The SOPC and the Esports World Cup Foundation (EWCF) are collaborating with the IOC to organize the Games.
  • It aims to bridge traditional sports and esports, expanding opportunities for players and teams.
A

2027

  • The “Road to the Games” is set to commence this year 2025, with initial Olympic esports competitions leading up to the main event in 2027. IOC decided to create the Olympic Esports Games in July 2024, during the 142nd IOC Session
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36
Q

February 17

A

The United Nations (UN’s) Global Tourism Resilience Day (GTRD) is observed annually on February 17 across the globe to highlight the critical need to build resilience in the tourism industry.

This day draws attention to the sector’s vulnerability to various crises and emergencies and emphasizes the
importance of preparedness and adaptability.

  • 17 February 2025 marks the observance of the 3rd GTRD.

Note: Tourism plays a vital role in advancing the 3 key pillars of sustainable development: fostering economic growth, reducing poverty, and promoting environmental protection, contributing to achieving the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).

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37
Q

the Gujarat government led by Chief Minister (CM) Bhupendra Rajnikant Patel, launched the ________, an initiative aims to enhance the livelihoods of Antyodaya families (underprivileged families), empower women, and promote economic self-sufficiency.

  • The initiative will empower______ holding Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) cards across 25 talukas in 10 districts of Gujarat in the next 5 years.
  • It is being implemented by Gujarat Livelihood Promotion Company Limited (GLPC) under the Rural Development Department of Gujarat.
  • It aligns with the Aspirational Blocks Programme (ABP), launched by the Government of India (GoI) in January 2023, aimed at improving the quality of life in 500 aspirational blocks across 27 states and 4 Union Territories (UTs).
A

G-SAFAL (Gujarat Scheme for Antyodaya Families for Augmenting Livelihoods)

50,000 families

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38
Q

About G-SAFAL initiative:

i. Four Key Pillars of G-SAFAL for Women’s Empowerment ,they are _____SLFS.

ii. The scheme will provide beneficiaries with thorough training and support, along with a grant of Rs. 80,000 to help them create new opportunities for financial stability.

iii. Around 10 Districts and Talukas of Gujarat will be covered under G-SAFAL.

A

Social Security,
Livelihood Creation,
Financial Inclusion, and
Social Development and Empowerment

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39
Q

Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi virtually addressed the inaugural session of the 3rd edition of the India Energy Week (IEW) 2025 at Yashobhoomi – India International Convention & Expo Centre (IICC) in New Delhi, Delhi from 11 – 14 February 2025.

  • It was held under the patronage of the _____ and jointly organised by the Federation of Indian Petroleum Industry (FIPI) and DMG Events, a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Daily Mail and General Trust plc (DMGT).
  • It served as a platform for policymakers, industry leaders, and stakeholders to collaborate on sustainable energy solutions to shape the future of energy on a global scale.
  • IEW 2026 is scheduled to take place in _____.
A

Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG) ;

Goa

Objectives of IEW 2025: India Energy Week 2025 will serve as a key platform for global collaboration, driving discussions on energy security, innovation, and sustainability.

Key Focus Areas of IEW 2025
i. India is prioritizing biofuels, flex-fuel vehicles, ethanol blending, and green hydrogen.

ii. Green Hydrogen Goal: Targeting 5 million metric tons (MMT) annual production by 2030.

iii. Launched Open Acreage Licensing Program (OALP) Round X, covering 200,000 sq. km, to attract investments.

iv. Plans to increase natural gas consumption from 6% to 15% in India’s energy mix and strengthen Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) supply partnerships.

v. Expanding oil and gas assets in Brazil, Venezuela, Russia, and Mozambique, leveraging new oil sources.

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40
Q

India’s Energy Achievements:

  • India rose from the 10th to the _____ largest economy in the past decade.
  • Solar energy capacity grew 32 times, making India the 3rd-largest solar power producer globally.
  • Renewable Energy Milestone: Non-Fossil Fuel (NFF) capacity tripled, making India the 1st G20 nation to meet Paris Agreement (PA) climate goals.
  • Achieved 19% ethanol blending, targeting 20% by ________, reducing Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions and saving Foreign Exchange (FX).
  • India is the 4th-largest refining hub, with plans to increase capacity by ______.
  • The Global Biofuels Alliance (GBA) has been established under India’s G20 presidency, now comprises 28 nations and 12 international organisations.

Note: The International Energy Agency (IEA) projects a 60% rise in India’s natural gas consumption to 103 Billion Cubic Meters (BCM) annually by 2030.

A

5th ; October 2025 ; 20%

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41
Q

Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL) has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the
______ to develop a dedicated and efficient maritime infrastructure.

  • This collaboration aims to enhance India’s global maritime presence and support its growing energy demands
A

Shipping Corporation of India (SCI)

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42
Q

_______, India’s Mangalore Refinery and Petrochemicals Limited (MRPL), and Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited (ONGC) signed a nonbinding MoU to explore strategic opportunities in the energy sector.

A

Azerbaijan’s State Oil Company of Azerbaijan Republic (SOCAR)

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43
Q

_______, signed a non-binding MoU with Tata Power Renewable Energy Limited (TPREL), a subsidiary of the Tata Power Company Limited (TPCL) to explore opportunities in the Battery Energy Storage System (BESS) value chain.

A

Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited (ONGC)

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44
Q

the Indian Army (IA) organized a large-scale military exercise______ at Bet Dwarka, Gujarat. The primary objective was to bolster security in Dwarka and its surrounding islands, in response to recent illegal encroachments.

i. During the exercise, security personnel were deployed to the coast via hovercraft. The exercise simulated securing critical infrastructure and responding to potential land-based threats, enhancing overall preparedness.

ii. The District Administration of Devbhoomi Dwarka, Forest Department, Maritime Board of Gujarat Energy, and National Security Guard (NSG) supervised the operations, ensuring smooth coordination and response strategies

A

‘Jal-Thal-Raksha 2025’

  • The exercise involved the participation of 11 Ahmedabad and 31 Jamnagar Army units, as well as the Indian Coast Guard (ICG) and Marine Police.
  • The exercise aimed to improve coordination between government departments, paramilitary
    forces, and defence forces during emergencies such as terrorist attacks or wartime scenarios.
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45
Q

India’s first Road Train was flagged off in ______ by Union Minister, Nitin Jairam Gadkari, Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH).

  • It was developed by
    Bengaluru (Karnataka) based _____ and operated by Gurgaon, (Haryana) based Delhivery Limited.
  • This innovation marks a major shift in India’s long-haul transportation system, offering higher
    efficiency and increased capacity in logistics
A

Nagpur, Maharashtra

Volvo Trucks (Volvo Group India Private Limited)

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46
Q

PM Narendra Modi and Emmanuel Macron, President of France, led the Artificial Intelligence (AI) Action Summit in Paris, France. During the summit, PM Modi announced that India will host the next AI summit in ______ (year).

A

2026

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47
Q

At the AI Action Summit, representatives from 58 countries signed a joint statement titled “Inclusive and Sustainable Artificial Intelligence for People and the Planet”. This is the ____such statement made internationally. The statement emphasizes the importance of developing AI that respects human rights, is ethical, safe, and trustworthy.

  • Founding members have launched a major ‘Public Interest AI Platform and Incubator’. This initiative aims to bring together public and private efforts in the field of AI, reduce fragmentation, and address digital gaps. The Public Interest AI Initiative will focus on supporting digital public goods, technical assistance, and capacity-building projects. The aim is to create a trustworthy AI ecosystem that benefits everyone and advances the public good.
  • The InvestAI initiative will supplement a _____ investment pledge from the private sector as part of the EU AI Champions Initiative launched at the AI Action Summit. The initiative, led by venture capitalist firm General Catalyst Partners, the United States of America (USA).

The French President launched _______ with an initial USD 400 million (Euro 387 million) Investment from the French government, philanthropists, and industry partners.

A

third

Euro 150 billion

‘Current AI’

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48
Q

India has officially offered its ______ to France, developed by the New Delhi (Delhi) based Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).

  • This comes as India is also finalizing the purchase of 26 Rafale-Marine fighters from
    France and collaborating on building three more Scorpene submarines.
A

Pinaka multi-launch artillery rocket systems

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49
Q

Artificial Intelligence (AI) also took center stage, with both countries agreeing to designate _____ (year) as the “India-France Year of Innovation.

A

2026

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50
Q

PM Narendra Modi and USA President Donald Trump launched a new initiative called the ______. This initiative aims to strengthen industry partnerships and production in the Indo Pacific region, focusing on collaboration between India and the U.S. in underwater domain awareness technologies.

They also launched a new initiative called the “U.S.-India COMPACT” (Catalyzing Opportunities for Military Partnership, Accelerated Commerce & Technology) to drive progress in military partnerships, commerce, and technology

A

‘Autonomous Systems Industry Alliance (ASIA)’

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51
Q

USA President Trump announced that the USA will supply ______ to India, allowing the country to join a select group of nations with advanced stealth aircraft.

India and the USA announced plans to sign a trade agreement by the end of 2025, aiming to boost bilateral trade to _____ by 2030.

A

F-35 stealth fighter jets

USD 500 billion

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52
Q

The Indian Navy (IN) actively participated in the ______ and ______ in Bali, Indonesia, with the events scheduled from February 15 to 22, 2025.

The Indian delegation is represented by the Indian Naval Ship (INS) Shardul, a Landing Ship Tank (Large), and the P-8I Long-Range Maritime Surveillance Aircraft.

  • This year’s 2025 theme, ‘Maritime Partnership for Peace and Stability’, emphasizes natural disaster management and humanitarian aid, highlighting the collaborative efforts of participating nations in enhancing maritime security and regional cooperation.
  • This exercise involves naval forces from over 30 countries, including the United States of America (USA), Russia, China, Australia, and Singapore, focusing on disaster relief and humanitarian operations.
A

‘International Fleet Review (IFR) 2025’ and the ‘5th Multilateral Naval Exercise Komodo’

  • The IFR 2025 is a multinational naval event reviewed by the President of Indonesia, Prabowo Subianto Djojohadikusumo.

Note: Exercise Komodo, first launched in 2014, is a non-combat military drill organized by the Indonesian Navy to strengthen maritime cooperation among friendly nations.

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53
Q

Brazil announced that the next ‘BRICS Summit 2025’ will take place in Rio de Janeiro (Brazil) on July 6-7, 2025. Throughout 2025, Brazil will lead the group of developing nations and plans to prioritize global governance reform and bolster cooperation among countries of the Global South.

About BRICS:
BRICS, an intergovernmental organisation originally formed in ______ by Brazil, Russia, India, and China,
expanded with South Africa in 2010
.

In 2024, it expanded by adding Iran, Egypt, Ethiopia, and the United Arab Emirates (UAE), with Saudi Arabia also invited to join. Turkey, Azerbaijan, and Malaysia have applied for membership. At the 2024 summit in Kazan (Russia), Indonesia became the 11th member, while ______ was named a “partner country”

A

2009

Nigeria

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54
Q

Mumbai (Maharashtra)-based market regulator, Securities and Exchange Board of
India (SEBI)
has introduced new industry standards under which listed entities are required to provide minimum information to the audit committee and shareholders when seeking approval for the Related Party Transactions (RPT).

  • The new disclosure rule will come into effect from ______.
  • These new industry standards were issued by SEBI through a circular in exercise of powers given under Section _____ and ____of SEBI Act, 1992 read with regulation 101 of Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements (LODR) Regulations.
A

April 01, 2025

11 (1) and 11A

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55
Q

Related Party Transactions (RPT)

The new industry standards were developed by______ which comprises representatives from Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM), Confederation of Indian Industry (CII), and Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry (FICCI), under the aegis of stock exchanges and in consultation with SEBI.

As per SEBI, the industry associations and stock exchanges will publish these new standards on their respective web portals to provide a uniform approach and assist listed entities in complying with requirements.

According to the Regulation 23 (2) and (4) of SEBI (Listing Obligations and Disclosure Requirements) Regulations, 2015 (“LODR Regulations”), it is mandatory to receive approval from audit committee as well as from the shareholders, if material, for RPTs.

As per new rules, SEBI has mandated the listed entities to provide the audit committee with the information as outlined in the industry standards while submitting any proposal for review and approval of a RPT.

SEBI has further clarified that the explanatory statement comprising notices sent to the shareholders seeking approval for any RPT will include the information in addition to requirements under the Companies Act, 2013.

A

the Industry Standards Forum (ISF)

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56
Q

SEBI issued a circular in exercise of powers given under Section 11(1) of SEBI Act, 1992 read with Regulation 15 (1) (i) and Regulation 36 of AIF Regulations, 2012 to protect the interests of investors in securities and to promote the development of, and to regulate the securities market.

  • As per the circular, SEBI has relaxed the timeline for Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) to hold investments in dematerialized (demat) form.
  • All the provisions of SEBI’s circular came into force with _____ effect.
A

immediate

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57
Q

i. SEBI has mandated that any investment made by AIF on or after ______ will be held in demat form only, irrespective of the fact that whether the investment is made directly in an investee company or is acquired from another entity.

ii. However, SEBI has clarified that any investment made by AIF before that date are exempted from the requirement of being held in demat form, except in specific cases, such as: where, the investee company is legally mandated to dematerialize its securities or, Where, AIF has control over the company alongside SEBI-registered intermediaries.

  • SEBI has further mentioned that all investments made by AIF prior to the date are required to be converted into dematerialized form before _______.
A

July 1,2025 ;

October 31, 2025
- SEBI has also extended exemptions to schemes of AIFs whose tenure, excluding permissible extension of tenure concludes on or before October 31, 2025, as well as schemes already in an extended tenure as of February 14, 2025.

iv. The trustee/sponsor of AIF, as the case may be, is required to ensure compliance with these revised provisions through the ‘Compliance Test Report’ prepared by the manager.

  • AIF: It is a privately pooled investment vehicle that collects funds from sophisticated investors, whether Indian or foreign which invests in alternative asset classes such as private equity, venture capital (VC), hedge funds, among others.
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58
Q

India’s share of renewable energy (RE) is projected to rise from 21% in 2024 to _____ by 2027.

According to the International Energy Agency (IEA), the growth is mainly driven by solar power, which is expected to increase by more than 28% between 2025 and 2027.

  • This transition aims to balance economic growth, energy security, and environmental
    sustainability over the next decade.
A

27%

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59
Q

Wind, Hydropower, and Nuclear Growth (2024-2027):

  • Wind energy: From 2018 to 2024, wind energy grew at a _____ compound annual growth rate (CAGR), with a forecasted increase to 11% CAGR from 2025 to 2027. The government has approved Rs. 74.5 billion for India’s first offshore wind projects, installing 1 GW capacity off Gujarat and Tamil Nadu (TN).
  • Hydropower: Expected to grow at a _____ CAGR between 2025 and 2027, with a 21.1 GW small hydropower potential identified by the Central Electricity Authority (CEA). The government has
    allocated Rs.41.4 billion for small hydropower projects and Rs.124.6 billion for infrastructure
    .
  • Nuclear power: In 2024, nuclear energy capacity rose by _____, and the government plans to triple its capacity from 8.2 GW to 22.5 GW by 2032. Development includes Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors (PHWRs) and Bharat Small Modular Reactors (BSMRs) for localized power generation.
A

7% ; 7% ; 13%

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60
Q

Coal and Thermal Power Outlook (2024-2032):

Despite the rise of renewables, coal continues to dominate India’s energy mix, accounting for _____ of the power in 2024, with a projected decline to 67% by 2027.

  • The growth of coal-based power slowed from 4% CAGR (2018-2024) to a forecasted 2% CAGR (2025-2027).
  • Gas-fired power is expected to grow at ____ annually from 2024 to 2027.
  • India’s thermal power capacity is expected to rise from 218 GW to 283 GW by _____, with 80 GW of new coal capacity planned, alongside 500 GW of non-fossil fuel capacity by 2030.
A

74% ; 9% ; 2032

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61
Q

Rising Electricity Demand (2024-2030):

According to the International Monetary Fund (IMF), electricity demand in 2024, surged by 5.8% year-on-year (YOY), driven by _____ economic growth and extreme heatwaves.

  • The peak demand reached a record 250 GW in May 2024, surpassing 243 GW in September 2023.
  • By 2030, peak demand is expected to exceed 400 GW, with _____ of this capacity coming from non-fossil fuel sources
A

7% ; 65%

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62
Q

the ePlane Company, an electric aircraft startup incubated by the _______, signed a USD 1 billion deal with Bengaluru (Karnataka) based ICATT (International Critical-Care Air Transfer Team), India’s leading air ambulance firm to supply **788 Electric Vertical Take-Off and Landing (eVTOL) air ambulances.

A

Indian Institute of Technology -Madras (IIT-M) in Chennai (Tamil Nadu, TN)

  • The eVTOL air ambulances aim to transform urban travel by developing battery-powered aircraft that can take off and land vertically, to avoid road traffic.
  • The first fleet of air ambulances is expected to begin operations by late 2026 and ePlane produces 100 units of air ambulances each year.
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63
Q

the Department of Energy, Government of Odisha has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with New Delhi (Delhi) based Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL), a joint venture of Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) under the Ministry of ______ to enhance energy efficiency initiatives across the state through expertise sharing, advanced technologies, and best practices.

  • The MoU was signed in the presence of the Deputy Chief Minister (DYCM) of Odisha Kanak
    Vardhan Singh Deo.
A

Power (MoP)

i. The partnership focuses on sustainable development by improving energy use, reducing costs, and enhancing public infrastructure while supporting climate action through energy-efficient projects, clean cooking, electric mobility, and capacity-building initiatives.

ii. Odisha strives to lead energy efficiency and sustainability, advancing India’s Net Zero goals and a low-carbon future through modern technology and public-private partnerships.

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64
Q

Election Commissioner, _____ was appointed as the 26th Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) by the Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi led selection committee.

He succeeds incumbent Rajiv Kumar and becomes the first CEC to be appointed under the newly established law governing the selection of Election Commission (EC) members.

  • He will assume charge on February 19, 2025 and will hold the position until _______.
  • Prior to his appointment, he served as the Election Commissioner (EC) from March 2024 to February 2025.
A

Gyanesh Kumar ;

January 26, 2029

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65
Q

New Selection Process for Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners:

i. The Chief Election Commissioner And Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service And Term of Office) Act, 2023, sets the new selection process for the CEC and ECs, with the President appointing them based on recommendations from a committee comprising the PM, ______, and the Leader of Opposition or the largest opposition party in the Lok Sabha.

ii. A search committee, headed by the Cabinet Secretary, proposes names for the selection committee.

iii. Previously, there was no defined selection process, and the President appointed Election Commissioners based on the advice of the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers.

iv. The new Act aligns the salary and conditions of service of the CEC and ECs with those of a Cabinet Secretary.

v. The eligibility criteria for CEC and ECs include being persons of integrity, having knowledge and experience in election management, and being or having been a Secretary or equivalent.

vi. The term remains_______ and the removal process stays the same as in the Constitution.

vii. The change in the selection process came after the Supreme Court’s (SC) recommendation for an independent selection process

A

a Union Cabinet Minister ;

6 years, with no reappointment,

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66
Q

About the Samudrayaan Mission:

i. The Samudrayaan or the deep ocean mission, was initiated in ______, India’s first manned mission to explore the deep ocean.

  • It is part of the larger Deep Ocean Mission (DOM), supporting the Central Government’s Blue Economy policy.
  • The nodal ministry for this mission is the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES).

ii. It aims to develop a self-propelled manned submersible to carry 3 human beings to a water depth of 6,000 meters in the ocean, equipped with scientific sensors and tools for deep ocean exploration.

iii. The mission is designed to study deep ocean resources and conduct biodiversity assessments without
disturbing the ecosystem.

iv. The submersible will be outfitted with a range of scientific sensors and tools, with an operational
endurance of 12 hours, extendable to 96 hours in case of an emergency.

A

2021

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67
Q

India’s 4th-generation deep-ocean submersible ‘Matsya-6000’ successfully completed its wet testing at L&T Shipbuilding facility in Kattupalli Port, Chennai (Tamil Nadu, TN).

It was developed and tested by the National Institute of Ocean Technology (NIOT), Chennai under the ______, and was designed for deep-sea exploration and scientific research.

A

Samudrayaan Project

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68
Q

Services Sports Control Board (SSCB) topped at the 38th edition of National Games which was held in _______ from January 26, 2025 to February 14, 2025, with 121 medals including 68 gold, 26 silver and 27 bronze. With this, SSCB continued its dominance in the National Games as it topped the medal tally for 5th time in the last six National Games, except in 2023. SSCB secured the Raja Bhalindra Singh Trophy which is awarded to the team that wins the highest number of gold medals at the National Games.

  • Maharashtra, secured 2nd position in overall medal tally with 201 medals, 54 gold, 71 silver and 76 bronze. It is followed by Haryana ranked at 3rd position with 153 medals (48 gold, 47 silver and 58 bronze).

Two sports – Kalarippayattu and Rafting were the demonstration sports in which no medals were
given to the participants.

  • The mascot for 38th National Games was named ‘Mauli’, inspired by the Himalayan Molan, state bird of Uttarakhand.
  • The logo featured ‘the Monal’ which symbolizes the state’s rich natural beauty and diversity.
  • The official tagline of 38th National Games was titled ‘Sankalp Se Shikar Tak’ (Resolve to Zenith).
  • The latest edition of National Games also introduced newly designed torch which has incorporated motifs of the perennial holy river Ganga and the state flower ‘Brahma Kamal’ also known as ‘Lotus of the Darks’.

Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL) was officially designated as the bronze sponsor of the latest edition of National Games.

A

Uttarakhand

  • Maharashtra, secured 2nd position in overall medal tally with 201 medals, 54 gold, 71 silver and 76 bronze.
  • It is followed by Haryana ranked at 3rd position with 153 medals (48 gold, 47 silver and 58 bronze).
  • The event, themed ‘Green Games’, focused on sustainability, featuring eco-friendly welcome kits, e-waste medals, and tree plantations for medalists.

Note: The 37th edition of National Games was held in Goa in 2023. Maharashtra for the 1st time topped the medal tally with 228 medals and won the Raja Bhalindra Singh Trophy in 2023.

Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi was invited as Guest of Honour at the opening ceremony of 38th National Games which was held on January 28, 2025 at Rajiv Gandhi International Stadium in Dehradun, Uttarakhand.

  • While addressing the event, the PM reiterated his commitment to bring the 2036 Olympic Games to India.

The Government of India (GoI) collaborated with Noida (Uttar Pradesh, UP)-based Attero Recycling Private Limited, India’s largest cleantech company and the world’s largest recycler of lithium-ion batteries for 38th National Games.

  • The latest edition of National Games was centered on sustainability under the theme ‘Green Games’.
  • Attero supplied recycled metals with more than 99.9% purity, ensuring a positive carbon footprint.
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69
Q

Key Highlights of 38th National Games:

Best Female and Male Athlete:

i. 14-year old Swimmer from Karnataka, ______, who competed at Paris 2024 Olympics, claimed the Best Female Athlete title at 38th National Games, by winning 11 medals, including 9 gold, one silver, and one bronze.

ii. India’s top backstroke swimmer ______ (Bengaluru, Karnataka), who also competed at 2024 Paris Olympic Games, claimed the Best Male Athlete title for the 2nd consecutive time. He won 10 medals including 9 gold and one silver at latest edition of National Games. Earlier, he won this title at the 37th National Games where he won 8 gold and one bronze.

A

Dhinidhi Desinghu ;

Srihari Nataraj

Top 10 of medal tally are: - TN won 92 medals (including 27 gold, 30 silver and 35 bronze);

  • Uttarakhand won 103 medals (including 24 gold, 35 silver, and 44 bronze); -
  • WB won 47 medals (including 16 gold, 13 silver and 18 bronze);
  • Punjab won 66 medals (15 gold, 20 silver, and 31 bronze) and
  • National Capital Territory (NCT) Delhi won 62 medals (including 15 gold, 18 silver and 29 bronze).
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70
Q

a veteran space scientist of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and Padma Shri Awardee_______ passed away at the age of 84 in Bengaluru (Karnataka).

  • In 1982, he was honored with Padma Shri, India’s fourth-highest civilian award, in the field of Science and Engineering
A

Ramaswamy Manicka (R.M) Vasagam

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71
Q

______, the 2nd edition of India’s largest global textile event was organised by a consortium of 12 Textile Export Promotion Councils (EPCs), supported by the Ministry of Textiles (MoT) to highlight India’s exceptional capabilities in the textile industry. The 2025 event was built around the twin themes of “Resilient Global Value Chains” and “Textile Sustainability”.

  • Union Minister of State (MoS) Pabitra Margherita, MoT inaugurated the Central Silk Board’s (CSB) ‘International Conference on Emerging Technologies in Silk Sector – SILKTECH 2025’ at Bharat Mandapam as part of the event.
A

Bharat Tex 2025

i. Bharat Tex 2025 focuses on sustainability and innovation, driving global trade across sectors like apparel, home furnishings, technical textiles, etc. emphasising sustainable solutions and a circular economy.

ii. The Bharat Tex 2025 event was inspired by the Government of India’s (GoI) 5F vision: “Farm to; Fibre to; Fabric to; Fashion to; and Foreign”.

iii. The event hosted over 5,000 exhibitors, and 6,000 international buyers from over 120 countries, and attracted 1,20,000+ trade visitors including industry leaders, policymakers, and global Chief Executive Officers (CEOs).

iv. The event hosted a dedicated multilateral conclave with nearly 10 United Nations (UN) and multilateral bodies to engage on issues of sustainability and circularity

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72
Q

About India’s Textile Industry:

i. India is the ____ largest exporter of Textiles & Apparel (T&A) in the world. The share of T&A including handicrafts in India’s total exports stands at a significant 8.21% in 2023-24.

  • India’s T&A exports grew by 7% in 2024, contributing 11% to India’s manufacturing industry with a target
    of Rs 9 lakh crore by 2030
    .
  • The Indian T&A market is valued at USD 176 billion in 2024, with USD 139 billion in the domestic market and USD 37 billion in exports.

ii. The textile sector contributes _____ to India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and the market share is projected to reach USD 350 billion by 2030.

iii. India is the 3rd largest startup ecosystem, with ____ unicorns valued at over USD 340 billion.

iv. India is the 2nd largest producer of cotton, polyester, viscose, and silk.

  • India ranks 5th in technical textiles, with a market size of USD 22 billion.
A

6th ;

2% ;

108

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73
Q

Government Initiatives Strengthening the Textile Sector:

i. The Prime Minister Mega Integrated Textile Region and Apparel (PM MITRA) Parks Scheme launched in ____, creates 7 mega textile parks with a USD 10 billion investment.

ii. The Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme launched in 2020, allocates ______ (~USD 1 billion) specifically targeting Man-Made Fiber (MMF) apparel, fabrics, and technical textiles.

iii. Samarth (Scheme For Capacity Building In Textile Sector) launched in ______, to transform the unskilled manpower to skilled workforce in various sectors. In 2024, Samarth Scheme was extended for two years (Financial Year 2024-25(FY25) and FY26) with a budget of Rs. 495 Crore to train 3 lakh persons in textile-related skills.

About Ministry of Textiles(MoT):
Union Minister – Giriraj Singh (Constituency – Begusarai, Bihar)
Minister of State(MoS) – Pabitra Margherita (Rajya Sabha – Assam)

A

2023 ;

Rs 10,683 crore ;

2017

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74
Q

The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), launched in _____ by Prime Minister(PM) Narendra Modi, marked its nine-year anniversary on February 18, 2025.

  • PMFBY is a flagship crop insurance scheme in India that operates under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare (MoA&FW), designed to
    protect farmers from financial losses due to natural calamities. This scheme has emerged as a cornerstone of India’s agricultural resilience, protecting over 23.22 crore farmers against crop losses caused by natural calamities and disbursing claims worth Rs.1.75 lakh crore over the past nine years.
  • With its recent extension until _____ and a budget allocation of _______, PMFBY continues to strengthen farmer welfare and sustainable agriculture
A

2016 ;

2025-26 ;

Rs. 69,515.71 crore

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75
Q

Union Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, Ministry of Finance (MoF) and Ministry of ______ launched the ‘Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MCGS-MSME)’ in Mumbai, Maharashtra to support MSME sector in India.

  • It is a key initiative of Government of India (GoI) announced in the Union Budget for Financial Year 2024-25 (FY25).
A

Corporate Affairs (MoCA)

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76
Q

About Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MCGS-MSME):

i. The MCGS-MSME aims to facilitate a maximum loan of _____ to MSMEs for purchase of machinery or equipment without collateral.

  • Minimum 75% of the total project cost must be for purchasing equipment or machinery.
  • The scheme is available for 4 years or until _____ in guarantees are issued, whichever comes first.

ii. Mumbai (Maharashtra)-based National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Limited (NCGTC), a private limited company which works under MoF, will provide 60% guarantee coverage to Member Lending Institutions (MLIs) for loans approved to eligible MSMEs.

  • Interest rate for this loan is charged as per the Reserve Bank of India(RBI) guidelines.

iii. In order to avail the benefit of the initiative, the borrower is required to be an MSME with a valid Udyam Registration Number (URN).

  • URN is a 16-digit unique registration number for a Udyam Certificate holder. It is issued by the Ministry of MSME (MoMSME) under the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act, 2006 (MSME Act 2006).

iv. The repayment period for loans up to Rs 50 crore loan will be up to ____ years with up to 2 years moratorium on principal instalments.

  • For loans above Rs 50 crore, higher repayment schedule and moratorium period on principal instalments will be considered.
A

Rs 100 crore ;

Rs 7 lakh crore ;

8

77
Q
  1. Union Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, virtually inaugurated the 1st ‘Sachal Aaykar Seva Kendra’ in Navy Nagar Colaba, Mumbai to provide access to digital services, facilitate guidance for grievance redressal and to promote tax awareness.
  2. Union Minister also handed over keys to the home owners benefitted by the Special Window for Affordable and Mid-Income Housing (SWAMIH) Investment Fund of Mumbai (Maharashtra)-based SBI Ventures Limited (formerly known as SBICAP Ventures Limited).
    * As of January 24 2025, SWAMIH Fund has successfully provided more than 50,000 homes to eligible beneficiaries. Also, MoF plans to deliver an additional 20,000 homes annually for the next 3 years.
    * In the Union Budget for _____, MoF announced the establishment of SWAMIH Fund-2 with an estimated budget Rs 15,000 crore and aims to accelerate the completion of another 1 lakh units.
    * This fund will receive financial support from the government, banks, and private investors.

iii. She introduced a new scheme named ‘Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana (PMDKY)’ which aims to enhance agricultural productivity across 100 districts for low agricultural output.
* The scheme is estimated to benefit 1.7 crore farmers to improve agricultural productivity, enhance irrigation facilities and to provide short-term as well long-term credit.

A

FY26

Note: The Union Budget for FY26 increased the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) limit for the insurance sector from 74% to 100%.

78
Q

the Delhi Metro Rail Corporation (DMRC) under the _______in collaboration with the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and Indian Green Building Council (IGBC), organized the ‘5th International Conference on Green Metro Systems – The Future of Urban Mobility’ in New Delhi (Delhi).

  • The conference highlighted the future of eco-friendly metro systems and their essential role in shaping the cities of tomorrow.
A

i-Metro initiative

79
Q

About India’s 1st Vertical Bi-Facial Solar Plant:

During the Conference, Union Minister Manohar Lal Khattar, MoP, and MoHUA inaugurated India’s first vertical bi-facial solar plant installation on the Metro Viaduct at Okhla Vihar Metro station in New Delhi, aiming to promote more sustainable metro rail operations.

i. The _____-kilowatt (KW) vertical solar plant at Okhla Vihar Metro Station will feature bi-facial panels designed to capture sunlight from both sides.

ii. It will utilize the metro’s elevated structure for solar energy generation, eliminating the need for
additional land space.

iii. Following this installation, DMRC now aims to achieve a 60 MW solar power plant capacity by the completion of Delhi Metro’s Phase-4 project.

About Indian Green Building Council (IGBC):
The Indian Green Building Council (IGBC) was formed by the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII).
Chairman – B. Thiagarajan
Headquarters – Hyderabad (Telangana)
Founded – 2001

A

50

  • He also inaugurated a 1 Megawatt (MW) rooftop solar power plant at the Khyber Pass Metro Depot of DMRC in Timarpur, New Delhi.
  • These initiatives support India’s renewable energy (RE) goal of reaching 500 Gigawatts (GW) from non-fossil sources by 2030.

Note: Metros in Bengaluru (Karnataka), New Delhi (Delhi), Hyderabad (Telangana), Jaipur (Rajasthan), Kochi (Kerala), Lucknow (Uttar Pradesh, UP), Mumbai (Maharashtra), Nagpur (Maharashtra), and Pune (Maharashtra) have received IGBC Certification for their dedication to eco-friendly designs, use of green materials, and integration of solar power.

80
Q

Union Minister Shivraj Singh Chouhan, the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD), and the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare (MoA&FW) inaugurated the National Geospatial Knowledge-based Land Survey of Urban Habitations (NAKSHA) to create a modernized land records in _____ urban local bodies (ULBs) across 26 States and 3 Union Territories (UTs) in India.

  • The NAKSHA program aims to create and update land records in urban areas, ensuring precise and trustworthy documentation of land ownership.
81
Q

National Geospatial Knowledge-based Land Survey of Urban Habitations (NAKSHA)

About NAKSHA:

i. The program aims to ensure accurate and up-to-date urban land records, empowering citizens and improving urban planning. It is expected to cost around ______, fully funded by the Government of India (GoI).

ii. It is a pilot program under the Digital India Land Records Modernization Programme (DILRMP) of the Department of Land Resources (DoLR), MoRD. DILRMP (erstwhile National Land Record Modernization Programme), which has been operational since 2016-17 with 100% funding by the Government of India (GoI) and is set to continue until March 2026.

iii. This one-year pilot program will be carried out with Dehradun (Uttarakhand) based Survey of India (SoI) under the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Ministry of Science & Technology (MoS&T) as the technical partner, responsible for aerial surveys and providing corrected images to state and UT governments through third-party vendors.

iv. The MP State Electronic Development Corporation (MPSEDC) will create a comprehensive web-based Geographic Information System (GIS) platform, with storage managed by New Delhi (Delhi) based National Informatics Centre Services Incorporated (NICSI) under the Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology (MeitY).

v. The program will use drones for geospatial mapping and to create accurate property records. The data will be linked to the property tax records of local bodies, with advanced survey devices used to create the maps.

vi. Property owners can raise objections to the field maps generated. After reviewing these objections, the final land records will be released. Once the process is done, owners will receive integrated property records.

A

Rs. 194 crore

82
Q

the Rajasthan government renamed a lake and a building in Ajmer, Rajasthan, that were over a century old and had British-era names.

The 132-year-old Foy Sagar Lake was renamed Varun Sagar, and the 113-year-old ______ was renamed Maharishi Dayanand Vishrant Grih.

  • The Ajmer Municipal Corporation accomplished the official renaming process.
A

King Edward Memorial Bhawan

83
Q

the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE), the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC), and Bengaluru (Karnataka) based _____ have announced a collaboration to launch a new Artificial Intelligence (AI) training initiative titled ‘AI for Entrepreneurship’.

A

Intel Technology India Private Limited

  • The program is a micro-learning module hosted on the Skill India Digital Hub (SIDH) under MSDE and aims to provide 1 lakh young innovators with AI and entrepreneurial skills by 2025.

i. It will help in simplifying AI concepts and combine them with entrepreneurial thinking that will help learners to develop AI-driven business ideas.

ii. The key features of the program include-
* It is designed for individuals from diverse socio-economic backgrounds, including rural learners.
* The learners will receive a certification jointly issued by MSDE, NSDC, Skill India, and Intel on the completion of the program.
* The curriculum covers uses of AI in business, entrepreneurial strategies, and real-world problem-solving.

iii. Moreover, apart from theoretical learning, it also provides interactive video lectures, case studies of AI powered startups and firsthand experience to apply AI tools to give a clarity on the concepts to learners.

84
Q

According to ‘The FutureBrand Index 2024’, a global brand perception study, South Korea’s ______ has secured the top spot in the global rankings, reflecting its strong brand perception and adaptability to market demands.

  • India’s ______ ranks 2nd and made an impressive leap, 11 spots rising from 13th in 2023. This marks the first time an Indian company has made it to the top three on the list.
A

Samsung ;

Reliance Industries Limited (RIL)

  • Reliance, the only Indian brand on the list ranks ahead of well-known global brands like Apple, Nike, Walt Disney, Netflix, Microsoft, Intel and Toyota.
85
Q

Highlights of FutureBrand Index 2024:

Top Performing Brands in 2024:
i. ______ ranked 1st in 2024, excels in innovation, sustainability, and premium offerings. The brand is recognized for its authenticity, thought leadership, and emotional connection with consumers.

ii. RIL, India’s largest private sector corporation, ranks 2nd with a diverse portfolio spanning energy, petrochemicals, textiles, retail, and telecommunications.

iii. Apple, the Mastering Brand Loyalty from the United States of America (USA), which was ranked No. 1 in 2023 slipped to 3rd rank. It is known for its seamless customer experiences, product consistency, and a
strong brand personality

iv. Nike from the USA, ranked 4th and despite being in the top 5 brands, the brand experienced a USD 25 billion market capitalization drop due to inventory challenges and direct-to-consumer (D2C) strategy risks.

v. ASML, a Dutch company that designs and manufactures photolithography machines for the semiconductor industry ranks 5th.

vi. Other Rankings: Danaher from the USA (Ranks 6th), Disney (7th) from the USA, MOUTAI from China (8th), TSMC from Taiwan (9th) and IHC from the United Arab Emirates (UAE) (10th).

86
Q

According to the data released by the Ministry of Commerce and Industry (MoC&I), India’s total exports, including merchandise and services, were estimated at ______ in January 2025, marking a 9.72% increase compared to January 2024.

  • Meanwhile, total imports, covering merchandise and services, stood at USD 77.64 billion, reflecting a 12.98% rise over the same period last year.

India’s cumulative exports for April 2024 – January 2025 are estimated at USD 682.59 billion, reflecting a 7.21% increase compared to April 2023 – January 2024. Total imports for April 2024 – January 2025 are estimated at USD 770.06 billion, registering a growth of 8.96% over April 2023 – January 2024.

A

USD 74.97 billion

87
Q

Merchandise Trade

i. In January 2025, merchandise exports were USD 36.43 billion, slightly lower than USD 37.32 billion recorded in January 2024. On the other hand, merchandise imports for January 2025 stood at USD 59.42 billion, showing an increase from USD 53.88 billion in January 2024.

ii. For the April 2024 – January 2025 period, merchandise exports were estimated at USD 358.91 billion, rising from USD 353.97 billion in April 2023 – January 2024. Merchandise imports during this period reached USD 601.90 billion, higher than USD 560.27 billion recorded in April 2023 – January 2024.

  • The trade balance remained negative in both periods. In January 2025, the trade deficit stood at _______ as imports exceeded exports.
  • For the April 2024 – January 2025 period, the trade deficit widened to USD 87.47 billion, reflecting higher import growth compared to exports.
A

USD 2.67 billion

88
Q

Services Trade

i. In January 2025, India’s services exports were estimated at USD 38.55 billion, increasing from USD 31.01 billion in January 2024.
* Meanwhile, services imports for January 2025 stood at USD 18.22 billion, up from USD 14.84 billion in January 2024.

ii. During April 2024 – January 2025, services exports were estimated at USD 323.68 billion, compared to USD 282.71 billion in April 2023 – January 2024.
* Similarly, services imports for this period reached USD 168.17 billion, rising from USD 146.48 billion in April 2023 – January 2024.

iii. The services trade surplus for April 2024 – January 2025 stood at _______, higher than the USD 136.23 billion recorded in April 2023 – January 2024.

A

USD 155.52 billion

89
Q

Top Export and Import Countries:

i. The top five export destinations that recorded positive growth in January 2025 compared to January 2024, based on the change in value, are:

United States of America (USA) (39.02%), Japan (53.53%), Bangladesh (17.27%, United Kingdom (UK) (14.84%), Nepal (20.84%)

ii. The top five export destinations showing positive growth in terms of value during April 2024 – January 2025 compared to the same period last year are:

USA (8.95%), United Arab Emirates (UAE) (6.82%), Netherlands (9.17%), UK (14.17%), Japan (21.12%)

iii. The top five countries from which India’s imports increased in January 2025 compared to January 2024 are:
CTAGK.

iv. During April 2024 – January 2025, the top five countries from which India’s imports grew compared to the same period last year are:

UAE (35.58%), China (10.6%), Russia (7.17%), Switzerland (16.61%, Thailand (32.59%).

A

China (17.06%), Thailand (136.63%), USA (33.46%), Germany (72.15%), UK (101.62%)

90
Q

the Ministry of Heavy Industries (MHI) signed a Programme Agreement (PA) with Mumbai (Maharashtra) based _______, a subsidiary of Reliance Industries Limited (RIL), under the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme for Advanced Chemistry Cell (ACC).

  • This agreement grants Reliance New Energy Battery, a 10 GigaWatt hour (GWh) ACC manufacturing capacity, making it eligible for incentives under India’s Rs.18,100 crore PLI ACC scheme.
A

Reliance New Energy Battery Limited (RNEBL)

The signing is a critical milestone in the implementation of the technology PLI Scheme on the “National Programme on ACC Battery Storage,” approved by the Union Cabinet in May 2021, with a total outlay of Rs.18,100 crore to achieve a total manufacturing capacity of 50 GWh.

91
Q

the 5th edition of the “British Broadcasting Corporation (BBC) Indian Sportswoman of the Year (ISWOTY) Award 2024” was held in New Delhi, Delhi. The event celebrates and honors the
outstanding achievements of Indian sportswomen, recognizing their excellence across various fields of competition.

  • Indian shooter ______ was honored with the ‘BBC Indian Sportswoman of the Year award 2024’, becoming the first Indian woman to win 2 bronze medals in a single edition of the Games at Paris 2024 Olympics.
  • _______ was named the ‘BBC Para Sportswoman of the Year 2024’, becoming the first Indian woman to win 3 Paralympic medals, including gold at Paris 2024 Olympics following a gold and bronze in Tokyo 2020 Olympics.
A

Manu Bhaker

Para Shooter Avani Lekhara

92
Q

_______, renowned Indian philanthropist, and Founder and Chairperson of the Reliance Foundation, a charitable arm of Reliance Industries Limited (RIL), was awarded the Governor’s Citation by Maura Healey, Governor of Massachusetts (the United States of America, USA) during a special ceremony in Boston, the USA.

  • The citation honors Ambani for being a compassionate philanthropist and her dedication to making a transformative impact in education, healthcare, sports, arts, culture, and women’s empowerment in India and around the world.
A

Nita Mukesh Ambani

93
Q

A book titled “The New Icon Savarkar and the Facts” was authored by ______, a Scholar, Author, and former Minister for Disinvestment, Communications, and Information Technology (IT).

Published by Penguin Random House India (PRHI), the book “The New Icon Savarkar and the Facts”, analyses various myths built around Vinayak Damodar Savarkar, an Indian freedom fighter, activist, writer, and President of Hindu Mahasabha

A

Arun Shourie

94
Q

Odisha Chief Minister (CM) Mohan Charan Majhi presented the State’s annual Budget for 2025-26 on 17th February 2025 with total outlay of Rs. 2,90,000 crore with capital expenditure been fixed at Rs. 65,012 crore which was _____ of Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP).

  • The budgetary amount is expected to be financed mainly through revenue receipts of Rs. 2,32,000 crore and borrowing and other receipts of Rs. 58,000 crore.
  • An outlay of Rs 1,70,000 crore was dedicated towards programme expenditure, which is more than 58.62% of the total budget outlay.
  • The budget has projected the revenue surplus at 3% of the GSDP, the fiscal deficit at 3.2% of the GSDP and the year-end debt stock to remain at 12.7% of the GSDP.
95
Q

_____is the largest supplier of Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) to India, accounting for over 40% of India’s global LNG imports

96
Q

The National Statistics Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) launched its 25th Quarterly Bulletin of the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), which presents data for the period October – December 2024 (Q3) for the Financial Year (FY) 2024-25.

  • As per the data, India’s urban Unemployment Rate (UR) in Current Weekly Status (CWS) among persons aged 15 years and above decreased to _____ during Q3 FY25 from 6.5% during Q3 FY24.
  • UR among males aged 15 years and above remained the same at _____ during Q3 FY24 and Q3 FY25 and the UR among females aged 15 years and above decreased to _____ in Q3 FY25 from 8.6% in Q3 FY24.
A

6.4% ;

5.8% ;

8.1% ;

i. UR is defined as the percentage of unemployed persons among the persons in the labour force.
ii. The activity status determined based on a reference period of the last 7 days preceding the date of the survey is known as the CWS of the person.

97
Q
  • Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR): LFPR is defined as the percentage of persons in the labour force (i.e. working or seeking or available for work) in the population.

i. Overall LFPR in urban areas (for individuals aged 15 years and above) increased to _____ in Q3 FY25 from 49.9% in Q3 FY24.

ii. Male LFPR increased to _____ from 74.1%, and the Female LFPR in urban areas increased slightly to ______ from 25.0%, showing an overall rising trend.

  • Worker Population Ratio (WPR): WPR is defined as the percentage of employed persons in the population.

i. Overall WPR for urban areas among individuals aged 15 and above, increased to _____ in Q3 FY25 from 46.6% in Q3 FY24.

ii. Male WPR rose to _____ from 69.8%, indicating an increase in male employment and the Female WPR has also increased to _____ from 22.9%.

A

50.4% ;

75.4% ; 25.2%

47.2% ;

70.9% ; 23.2%

  • The workers in the CWS (current weekly status) are classified into 3 broad categories according to their status in employment namely: Self-employed, Regular wage/salaried employee, and Casual labour
98
Q

India and ______ formalized a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to enhance cooperation in lithium exploration and mining.

To strengthen collaboration in critical mineral resource development, particularly lithium, a key component for electric vehicle (EV) batteries and renewable energy (RE) storage.

A

Argentina

  • The agreement was formalised during the meeting chaired by the Union Minister G. Kishan Reddy, Ministry of Coal (MoC) and Ministry of Mines (MoM) and H.E. Raúl Alejandro Jalil, Governor of Catamarca, Argentina, in New Delhi, Delhi.
  • The agreement, signed between Nagpur (Maharashtra) based Mineral Exploration and Consultancy Limited (MECL), a Public Sector Undertaking(PSU) under the Ministry of Mines (MoM), and Argentina’s Catamarca Provincial Government.
99
Q

Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) released the ______ to standardize government websites and digital platforms.

  • As part of the ‘Gov.In the: Harmonization of Government of India’s Digital Footprint’ initiative, the DBIM aims to provide a unified online presence for all ministries, departments, and agencies.
A

Digital Brand Identity Manual (DBIM)

  • The DBIM was launched by Union Minister of State (MoS) Jitin Prasada, MeitY, during the inaugural Chief Information Officer (CIO) Conference 2025 in New Delhi, Delhi.
100
Q

About Digital Brand Identity Manual(DBIM):

i. The DBIM aims to create a unified and consistent digital brand for the Government of India (GoI) by defining key elements of digital identity, including visual components such as logos, colour palettes, typography, and imagery, as well as verbal identity aspects like brand voice, messaging frameworks, and taglines.

ii. This project is part of a larger effort to improve the accessibility, usability, and compliance of government services with the most recent digital standards.

iii. This toolkit is powered by ______’s multilingual support which streamlines content discovery and service access for everyone by making government apps more user-friendly, compliant, and accessible in all official languages.

iv. DBIM is an extensive guide designed to fulfil the government’s particular requirements for creating a consistent visual identity across all of its digital channels.

v. It aimed at ensuring digital harmonization by improving the recall value for the citizens and facilitating simplified citizen interactions for easy discovery of content and services.

vi. This manual serves as a blueprint for aligning the different digital platforms of GoI, including websites, web apps, mobile apps, and social media, under a unified brand language.

101
Q

the MeitY also launched several critical components to harmonize India’s digital presence:

  • DBIM Toolkit for ensuring uniformity in digital identity.
  • Gov.In Content Management System (CMS) Platform for streamlined website management.

*______ for centralized content governance.

  • Social Media Campaign Guidelines to standardize digital communication.
  • DBIM-compliant MeitY website, demonstrating a consistent and citizen-friendly digital experience.
A

Central Content Publishing System (CCPS)

102
Q

______ recorded the highest number of bird species across 37 states and union territories (UTs) in India, with 543 species, topping the national list for the third consecutive year.

This achievement came during the 28th annual Great Backyard Bird Count (GBBC), one of the world’s largest birding events, held from February 14 to February 17, 2025.

A

West Bengal (WB)

  • According to preliminary results, the total number of bird species in India increased to 1,068 in 2025, up from 1,036 in 2024. Additionally, the number of checklists (a list of birds that one can see, hear, or identify) submitted from India reached 44,300 in 2025.
  • In the GBBC India 2025 rankings, WB led with the highest number of species, followed by Uttarakhand in second place with 446 species. Other states in the list include Assam with 414 species, Karnataka with 380 species, Maharashtra also with 414 species, and Kerala with 342 species.
103
Q

Brazil’s government approved its membership in Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC+) plus, a coalition of 22 major oil-producing nations, marking a significant move for the country.

Brazil was officially invited to join in 2023.

  • This decision comes ahead of Brazil’s role as the host of the ______ in November 2025.

Note: As of January 2025, OPEC+ has 22 member countries.

A

30th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP30)

  • The ‘National Council for Energy Policy’ (Conselho Nacional de Política Energética, CNPE) authorized the move, marking a key step in Brazil’s emergence as a significant contributor in the global oil market.
104
Q

What is OPEC?

i. OPEC is an intergovernmental organization established in September 1960 in Baghdad, Iraq, with an agreement signed by 5 founding nations: the Islamic Republic of Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia (SA), and Venezuela.

ii. Its main goal is to align petroleum policies among members to maintain stable prices, ensure reliable supply to consumers, and offer fair returns to investors.

iii. As of January 2025, OPEC comprises _____ member countries, including Saudi Arabia (SA), Venezuela, Republic of Iran, Iraq, Kuwait , Libya, the United Arab Emirates (UAE) , Algeria, Nigeria , Angola, Equatorial Guinea, and the Republic of the Congo.

What is OPEC+?

i. OPEC+ refers to a coalition of OPEC member countries and _____ other major oil-producing nations that have agreed to collaborate on oil production targets to influence global oil prices.
* The non-OPEC countries which export crude oil are termed as OPEC+ countries.

ii. This alliance was formalized in 2016 and includes countries such as Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan, Malaysia, Mexico, Oman, Russia, South Sudan, Sudan with Russia being the largest non-OPEC member.

iii. OPEC consists solely of its 12 member countries, while OPEC+ includes these members plus additional non-OPEC oil-producing nations.

105
Q

the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) allowed a One-Time Mandate (OTM) on Unified Payments Interface (UPI) for insurance companies through a new payment
mechanism
called ______ (Bima-ASBA).

  • The initiative intends to simplify the payment procedure for life and health insurance policies, allowing policyholders to block funds in their bank accounts for premium payments, assuring seamless transactions without rapid debits.
  • This new payment mechanism will be effective from ______.
A

Bima-Applications Supported by Blocked Amount

March 1, 2025

106
Q

About Bima-Applications Supported by Blocked Amount (Bima-ASBA):

i. Bima-ASBA requires the prospect to transfer money to the insurer only when an insurance coverage is granted.

ii. In this facility, insurers can offer an OTM for blocking a certain amount in the bank account for the concerned prospect via UPI.

iii. The amount for the insurance premium will be deducted when the insurer chooses to accept the proposal. If the insurer does not accept the plan, the funds will be unblocked and released.

iv. The blocked funds remain in the policyholder’s account until an underwriting decision is reached. The premium will be deducted after the insurance is issued.
* If rejected, the funds will be immediately unlocked within _____ business day. The block is valid for up to _____ days, or until the underwriting decision is reached.

v. Insurers have been requested to send a proposal form to policyholders through a standard declaration to block the amount using UPI.

vi. UPI-OTM service helps in multiple scenarios when the consumer chooses to authorize a block on money rather than direct debits, allowing for quicker transaction processing

107
Q

Gurgaon, Haryana based ICRA Limited (formerly Investment Information and Credit Rating Agency of India Limited), one of the most experienced Credit Rating Agencies in India, has projected India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth to rise to ______ in the October – December 2024 Quarter (Q3), from 5.4% in Q2 of the Financial Year (FY) 2025, supported by increased government spending.

  • However, the growth rate is projected to stay below Q1 FY2025 levels, with GDP lagging behind Gross Value Added (GVA) for the third consecutive quarter.
  • The GVA growth is estimated to record a broad-based improvement to 6.6% in Q3 from 5.6% in Q2 of FY2025, driven by the Industrial: 6.2% (up from 3.6%); Services: 7.7% (up from 7.1%); and Agricultural: 4.0% (up from 3.5%) sectors.
  • The Government of India’s (GoI) Capital Expenditure (CapEx) rose 47.7% (from 10.3%) YoY in Q3 FY2025, the highest in 6 quarters.
  • Aggregate capital outlay and net lending of 24 state governments (excluding Arunachal Pradesh, Bihar, Goa, and Manipur) grew 9.9% Year-over-Year (YoY), up from 7.0% in Q2.
  • Service exports hit an all-time high of USD 36.9 billion in December 2024, with Q3 exports rising 17.5% YoY. Merchandise exports rebounded with a YoY growth of 3.3%, reversing the 4.3% contraction in Q2.
108
Q

Forbes India released its 5th Edition of the “Top 10 Richest Women in the World in 2025” list, highlighting the significant wealth amassed by women across different sectors.

  • ______, the daughter of United States of America (USA) based Walmart Inc. founder Sam Walton, has secured the top position globally with a net worth of USD 112.5 billion.
  • India’s ______ claimed the 7th position, with a net worth of USD 32.3 billion, from the JSW (Jindal South West) Group.
A

Alice Louise Walton ;

Savitri Devi Jindal and Family

  • The women billionaires in the list have accumulated significant wealth through a wide array of industries such as retail, cosmetics, energy, finance, and technology, each leading their family’s companies to global prominence

i. The top 10 wealthiest women worldwide, as highlighted by Forbes, have established themselves as powerful leaders across various industries, with their combined net worth exceeding USD 500 billion (approximately).

ii. According to the Forbes Billionaire List 2024, women now account for 3% of the global billionaire population in 2024.

109
Q

______ was awarded with the prestigious SKOCH Award 2024 for improving forest ecosystems and supporting income generation.

  • The award was presented on 15th February 2025 as part of the 100th SKOCH Summit held at Silver Oak Hall, India Habitat Centre, New Delhi.
A

Nagaland Forest Management Project (NFMP)

  • The NFMP is a project implemented by DEFCC, Government of Nagaland and is assisted by Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA).
  • The SKOCH Award is one of the highest independent honors given to states and organizations since 1997 in the field of governance, technology, economics and social sector for their dedicated and independent outcome-based assessment process.
110
Q

Rekha Gupta, Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) leader, took oath as the ____ Chief Minister (CM) of Union Territory (UT) of Delhi at Ramlila Maidan, New Delhi, Delhi. She succeeded Atishi Marlena Singh.

  • She has also become Delhi’s fourth woman CM, following Sushma Swaraj, Sheila Dikshit, and Atishi Marlena Singh
  • Along with her, six cabinet ministers were sworn in, including Parvesh Singh Verma, who took oath as the Deputy CM.
  • Lieutenant Governor (L-G) of Delhi Vinai Kumar Saxena administered oath of office and secrecy to the CM and the ministers at the function.
111
Q

SBI Cards and Payment Services Limited, SBICPSL (SBI Cards), a subsidiary of State Bank of India (SBI), announced ______ as its new Managing Director (MD) and Chief Executive Officer (CEO) with effect from April 1, 2025, for a period of two years.

A

Salila Pande

112
Q

February 20

A

The United Nations (UN’s) World Day of Social Justice is observed annually on February 20 across the globe to highlight the importance of social justice worldwide. This day raises awareness about critical issues such as poverty alleviation, employment, gender equality, and access to essential services like education, healthcare, and social services.

  • It also advocates for the promotion of social security, equality, human rights, and fundamental freedoms for all.
  • The theme for World Day of Social Justice 2025: “Strengthening a Just Transition for a Sustainable Future” focusing on the importance of inclusive policies and social protection in addressing systematic inequality.
113
Q

The 2nd edition of the Simolu Festival, a vibrant celebration of the stunning Bombax Ceiba flowers, was held from February 15 to 16, 2025, in ______. This festival celebrates nature, culture, and community, attracting nature enthusiasts, cyclists, and culture lovers to enjoy the beautiful simolu track.

  • The Simolu Festival revolves around the majestic Bombax Ceiba trees, also known as Simul or Silk Cotton trees, which burst into bloom with striking red flowers.
  • A central theme of the Simolu Festival is fostering a deeper understanding of the environment, especially among young people.
A

Nagaon, Assam

  • The two-day event was organised by Nagaon Wildlife Division under Kaziranga National Park and Tiger Reserve (Assam), showcased the region’s rich cultural heritage through traditional performances, ethnic cuisine, and community activities.
114
Q

the Soil Health Card (SHC) scheme, launched by Government of India (GoI) to assist state governments to issue soil health cards to all farmers in the country, has completed 10 years of successful implementation.

  • The scheme was formally introduced by Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi on _____ at Suratgarh, Rajasthan.
  • The scheme is promoted by the Department of Agriculture & Co-operation (DA&C), Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’ Welfare (MoA&FW) and implemented through the Department of Agriculture of all state and Union Territory (UT) governments.
A

February 19, 2015

115
Q

New Delhi (Delhi) based Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) under the Ministry of ______ and the Nepal Academy of Science and
Technology (NAST), Nepal
signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) at the CSIR-National Physical
Laboratory (CSIR-NPL) in New Delhi, Delhi.

  • This partnership aims to strengthen the Science and Technology (S&T) cooperation between both the countries.
A

Science and Technology (MoS&T)

116
Q

_____ under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions (MoPP&P) and Sri Lanka Institute of Development Administration (SLIDA) finalized the modalities for the implementation of their Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to train 1,500 Sri Lankan civil service officers over five years.

  • The MoU was signed between the two countries during the visit of President Anura Kumara Dissanayake to India in December 2024.
A

India’s National Centre for Good Governance (NCGG)

About Sri Lanka:
President – Anura Kumara Dissanayake
Prime Minister (PM) – Harini Amarasuriya
Capital – Sri Jayawardenepura Kotte
Currency – Sri Lankan rupee (LKR)

117
Q

the Ministry of ______ signed two contracts worth approximately Rs. 1,917.47 crore for the procurement of Software Defined Radios (SDR) and Rough Terrain Forklift Trucks (RTFLTs) to enhance the operational capabilities of the Indian Coast Guard (ICG) and the Indian Army (IA), Indian Navy (IN), and the Indian Air Force (IAF).

A

Defence (MoD)

118
Q

Union Minister of State (MoS) (Independent Charge, IC) Dr. Jitendra Singh , Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) inaugurated India’s first Open-Air Art Wall Museum at Mausam Bhawan, New Delhi, Delhi.

  • This initiative marks the _____ anniversary of the India Meteorological Department (IMD), New Delhi, honoring its contributions to weather science
  • The project, developed by IMD and Delhi Street Art, has transformed the walls of IMD’s headquarters on Lodhi Road , New Delhi into a vibrant display.
A

150th

i. This initiative is a first-of-its-kind effort, celebrating IMD’s legacy and contributions through public art

ii. A total of 38 murals showcase key moments in weather forecasting, meteorological advancements, and their impact on society.

iii. The murals depict significant weather events in India’s history and advancements in meteorological technology, including satellites and radars.

iv. They also highlight IMD’s role in disaster management, agriculture, daily life, and its efforts in issuing early warnings for cyclones, monsoons, and extreme weather conditions.

Note: Delhi Street Art was founded by Late Yogesh Saini

119
Q

the _____ Assembly made history by becoming the first legislative body in India to implement a translation facility. This innovative service will enable discussions in Awadhi, Braj, Bhojpuri, Bundelkhand, and English to improve accessibility and inclusivity in legislative proceedings.

  • The arrangement was reviewed by Chief Minister (CM) of UP, Yogi Adityanath, who observed translation rehearsals in multiple languages.

i. The service was introduced on February 18, 2025 in the assembly session, subject to approval from the House of Suit.
ii. If the members want to listen to the address of others in any of the four regional dialects (Awadhi, Braj, Bundeli and Bhojpuri), they will have the facility to select the respective channel on their seat to listen to the live translation in their ear plugs.

A

Uttar Pradesh (UP)

120
Q

______ was elected as the Vice President (VP) of the International Organization for Marine Aids to Navigation (IALA) during its 1st General Assembly in Singapore.

A

India

  • The 1st General Assembly of IALA, held from February 18 to 21, 2025, signifies its shift from a Non-Governmental Organization (NGO) to an Inter-Governmental Organization (IGO).
  • India’s election as VP highlights its leadership and significant contributions to maritime affairs, reinforcing its dedication to advancing maritime safety, improving navigational aids, and promoting international cooperation in the maritime sector.
121
Q

External Affairs Minister (EAM) Subrahmanyam Jaishankar participated at the inaugural session of 8th Indian Ocean Conference (IOC) in _______. The conference, themed “Voyage to New Horizons of Maritime Partnership,” aimed to enhance regional cooperation and address shared challenges in the Indian Ocean Region (IOR).

  • During the conference, EAM S. Jaishankar delivered the keynote address highlighting India’s dedication to enhancing regional cooperation.
A

Muscat, Oman

122
Q

Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA) and the Department of _______, Government of Uttarakhand signed the ‘Records of Discussions’, an official agreement document for a four-year Technical Cooperation Project (TCP) titled ‘Uttarakhand Integrated Horticulture Development Promotion Project’.

A

Horticulture and Food Processing (DHFP)

  • The project aims to increase horticulture production and improve market systems in Tehri Garhwal and Nainital districts of Uttarakhand. The project is expected to create a favorable horticulture model across the state
123
Q

According to the 2024 Burgundy Private Hurun India 500 list, released by Axis Bank Limited‘s Burgundy Private and Hurun India, _______ based in Mumbai, Maharashtra has retained its position as India’s most valuable company for the fourth consecutive year with a valuation of Rs 17,52,650 crore.

A

Reliance Industries Limited (RIL)

  • Following RIL, Mumbai based Tata Consultancy Services Limited (TCS) ranks second with a valuation of Rs 16,10,800 crore , while Housing Development Finance Corporation (HDFC) Bank Limited, Mumbai, is in third place at Rs 14,22,570 crore.
  • The total worth of the 500 companies featured in the 2024 edition of the list stands at Rs 324 lakh crore (approximately USD 3.8 trillion).
124
Q

New York, United States of America (USA) based TIME Magazine’s announced 2025 Women of the Year list, recognizing 13 inspiring women worldwide for their efforts in shaping a more equal and sustainable future.

_________, a wildlife biologist and conservationist from Assam, India, is the only Indian honoree on the list. She is recognized for her efforts in reviving the endangered greater adjutant stork (Hargila, meaning is bone swallower) while empowering rural women through conservation initiatives.

A

Purnima Devi Barman

125
Q

the Government of India (GoI) extended the tenure of Venkatramanan(V). Anantha Nageswaran as Chief Economic Adviser (CEA) for _____ more years, until March 31, 2027.

  • The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC), chaired by Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi, approved Nageswaran’s tenure on a contract basis up to March 31, 2027, or until further orders, whichever is earlier.
  • On January 28, 2022, Nageswaran took charge as the 18th CEA for a three-year term, succeeding Krishnamurthy Venkata (KV) Subramanian, who served as the 17th CEA from 2018 to 2021
A

two

Note: Nageswaran was a key contributor to India’s annual Economic Survey 2024-25, which projected India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP) growth at 6.3% to 6.8% for the Financial Year (FY) 2025-26

i. The CEA is head of the Economic Division of the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) under the Ministry of Finance (MoF).

ii. CEA is responsible for the preparation of the Economic survey of India tabled in Parliament before the Union budget of India is presented.

iii. The functions of the Division are advisory in nature. It examines domestic and international economic trends and undertakes research studies having a bearing on economic policies and management of the economy and renders policy advice.

126
Q

February 21

A

The United Nations (UN’s) International Mother Language Day (IMLD) is observed annually on February 21 across the globe to raise awareness about the importance of preserving and promoting mother languages. The day also aims to promote linguistic and cultural diversity and to encourage multilingualism and highlight the role of languages in fostering a peaceful, tolerant, and inclusive global society.

  • 21 February 2025 marks the observance of the 25th anniversary of IMLD
  • The theme of IMLD 2025: “Languages Matter: Silver Jubilee Celebration of International Mother Language Day,” serves as an important reminder to safeguard linguistic diversity and encourage the use of mother tongues.
127
Q

Diya Kumari, Deputy Chief Minister (CM) and Finance Minister (FM) of Rajasthan presented the state’s Annual Budget for the fiscal year 2025-26 with an outlay of Rs 5.37 lakh crore. The budget focuses on essentials such as electricity, roads, water, health, and agriculture while integrating sustainability measures.

  • The state’s first Green Budget allocates _____, which accounts for 11.34% of the total scheme expenditure allocated for sustainability initiatives and 5.18% of the total Budget.
  • FM Diya Kumari announced that the state government is committed to make the state a USD 350 billion economy by the year 2030. She also made provision for free solar plants and 150 electricity units per month.
A

Rs 27,854 crore

128
Q

Mumbai (Maharashtra) based Bisleri International Private Limited announced a strategic partnership by signing a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the ________, Ministry of Culture (MoC) under their ‘Adopt a Heritage 2.0 (AAH 2.0) Programme’.

A

Archaeological Survey of India (ASI)

  • The partnership will take place under ASI’s ‘AAH 2.0 Programme’ and Bisleri’s Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) initiative ‘Nayi Umeed’.
  • The “Adopt A Heritage (AAH)” programme was launched in 2017. It is a collaborative effort between the Ministry of Tourism(MoT), Ministry of Culture(MoC) and the ASI. In September 2023, a revamped version of the AAH programme launched as “AAH 2.0”
  • The initiative aims to provide a framework for working with public and private sector organizations, trusts, societies, Non-Governmental Organizations (NGOs), and others to create or provide facilities in Protected Monuments using their CSR funds to improve visitors’ experiences and make the adopted monument visitor-friendly.
129
Q

Union Minister Kinjarapu Rammohan Naidu, Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA) launched the _____ for Pilots, a digital version of a personnel license, replacing traditional physical licenses. This initiative aims to modernise and enhance the safety, security, and efficiency of India’s civil aviation sector.

  • With this launch, India became the 2nd country globally after China to implement EPL, following approval from the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), a United Nations (UN) agency in Montreal, Canada
A

Electronic Personnel License (EPL)

EPL will be securely accessible via the electronic-Governance of Civil Aviation (eGCA) Mobile Application.

This initiative aligns with the Government of India’s (GoI) “Ease of Doing Business” (EoDB) and “Digital India Initiatives” (DII)

130
Q

According to Times Higher Education (THE)’ latest ‘World Reputation Rankings 2025’, _____ based in the United States of America (USA) retained top position as the world’s most reputed institution for the 14th consecutive year, with an overall score of 99.9.

  • USA-based Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) and United Kingdom (UK)-based University of Oxford jointly shared 2nd position on the list and both secured the overall score of 99.7. This marks the highest position for any institution from the UK since 2015.
  • This year, only 4 Indian universities / institutions featured on the list. Also, all these institutions witnessed a drop in their rankings compared to the 2023 edition. (the latest edition of rankings and has been ranked in the 201-300)
A

Harvard University

  1. Indian Institute of Science (IISc)
  2. Indian Institute of Technology Delhi (IIT-D)
  3. Indian Institute of Technology Madras (IITM)
  4. Siksha ‘O’ Anusandhan (SOA)
131
Q

the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (UNESCAP) published the report titled “Asia and the Pacific SDG Progress Report: Engaging Communities to Close the Evidence Gap 2025”, which provides a comprehensive assessment of progress on the 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and their 169 targets in the Asia-Pacific region.

  • The report highlights to engage communities to close the evidence gap, emphasizing the importance of accurate data collection to support decision-making.
  • The Asia-Pacific SDG Progress Report 2025 stresses that urgent action is still needed in order to achieve the 17 SDGs by _____ Agenda.
132
Q

______ assumed the Chairmanship of the Bay of Bengal Programme Inter-Governmental Organisation (BOBP-IGO) from Bangladesh at the 13th Governing Council Meeting held in Malé, Maldives.

A

India

  • The event was part of the high-level conference ‘Policy Guidance for Mainstreaming Ecosystem Approach to Fisheries Management (EAFM) in Small-Scale Fisheries’, hosted by the Ministry of Fisheries and Ocean Resources (MFOR) of the Maldives government, in collaboration with the BOBP-IGO from February 20 to 22, 2025, in Lankanfinolhu, Maldives.
133
Q

Neeraj Mittal, Secretary of Department of Telecommunications (DoT), Ministry of Communications (MoC), visited the United Kingdom (UK) to engage with the Department of Science, Innovation and Technology (DSIT), UK, and explore opportunities for collaboration in next-generation ______, Artificial Intelligence (AI), and space technology, further strengthening Indo-UK ties in these critical areas.

A

telecommunications

134
Q

The 13th meeting of the Malaysia-India Defence Cooperation Committee (MIDCOM) was held in ______ on 19 February 2025. The meeting was co-chaired by Rajesh Kumar Singh, Secretary of the Ministry of Defence (MoD), India, and Lokman Hakim Bin Ali, Secretary General (SG) of the MoD, Malaysia, acknowledging the strengthening bilateral defence cooperation between their Armed Forces.

A

Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia

135
Q

the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) launched the campaign “Imagine a world with more women in science” to celebrate the 10-year anniversary of the International Day of Women and Girls in Science (_____February 2025) with the support of Canada’s International Development Centre (IDRC).

  • The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) has declared the date as International Day of Women and Girls in Science in 2015.
A

11

i. Using the hashtag #EveryVoiceInScience, this campaign builds on the momentum of the UNESCO Call to Action Closing the Gender Gap in Science, which was launched during the 2024 celebration of this International Day.

ii. This campaign aims to address the essential role women play in driving progress in science.

iii. To shape this campaign, UNESCO conducted a global survey among its scientific community, receiving over 700 responses from diverse disciplines.

136
Q

______, also known as Mopa Airport, became the first airport in India to receive the “Sarvashrestha Suraksha Puraskar (Golden Trophy)” at the National Safety Council of India (NSCI) Safety Awards 2024 in the ‘Service Sector‘ category held in Mumbai, Maharashtra.

A

Goa’s Manohar International Airport (GOX)

  • The airport was developed by GMR Goa International Airport Limited (GGIAL), a subsidiary of Grandhi Mallikarjuna Rao (GMR) Airports Limited, under the Build-OperateTransfer (BOT) model.
  • The airport was evaluated on Safety performance, Safety statistics, Safety commitments, Safety awareness, Training and promotional activities and Innovations on the ground.
137
Q

the Government of India (GoI) extended the tenure of B.V.R. Subrahmanyam as Chief Executive Officer (CEO) of National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) for ____more year, until February 24, 2026.

  • The Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC), approved Subrahmanyam’s tenure as CEO of NITI Aayog until February 24, 2026.
  • In February 2023, Subrahmanyam took charge as the 4th CEO of NITI Aayog for a two-year term, succeeding Parameswaran Iyer, who served as the 3rd CEO of NITI Aayog.
138
Q

February 22

A

World Thinking Day (WTD) is celebrated annually on 22nd February by Girl Scouts and Girl Guides in 153 countries worldwide. The day is dedicated to fostering international friendship and sisterhood, while also empowering girls and women around the globe.

  • The day also serves as an opportunity to learn about and take action on global issues impacting young women and girls all over the world and raise funds to help over 10.8 million Girl Guides and Girl Scouts around the world.
  • It is annually observed and organized by the World Association of Girl Guides and Girl Scouts (WAGGGS)

Theme :
The theme for WTD 2025 is “Our Story”

139
Q

the Finance Minister of Uttar Pradesh (UP) Suresh Kumar Khanna presented Rs 8,08,736 crore (Rs 8.08 trillion) budget for the Financial Year 2025-26 (FY26) in the state legislative assembly in Lucknow, UP. The budget outlay for FY26 witnessed an increase of ____ compared to previous financial year (Rs 7.36 lakh crore).

  • The major portion of the budget has been allocated towards development projects (22%), followed by education (13%), agriculture and allied sectors (11%), medical and health (6%) and social security (4%).
  • This budget has introduced new schemes worth Rs 28,478.34 crore for FY26.
140
Q

Uttarakhand Finance Minister (FM) Premchand Aggrawal presented a comprehensive Rs.1,01,175.33 crore Budget for the Financial Year 2025-26 (FY26) in the state assembly with a special focus on development across key sectors such as innovation, agriculture, industry, infrastructure, connectivity, tourism, and social welfare.

  • The budget is based on the ‘GYAN’ model [Gareeb (poor), Yuva (youth), Annadata (farmers), and Naari (women)], which focuses on the poor, youth, farmers, and women.
  • It has allocated Rs.59,954.65 crore for revenue expenditure and Rs.41,220.68 crore for capital expenditure, marking a ____ increase from last year’s Rs.89,000 crore budget.
141
Q

the Ministry of Mines (MoM) announced the reclassification of ____, _____, ______ and _____ (BFMQ) as major minerals to enhance the exploration and scientific mining of these resources, which are key sources of many critical minerals.

This move follows the Union Cabinet’s approval of the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) on January 29, 2025, with a budget of Rs. 34,300 crore over seven years.

  • The mission aims to explore and mine critical minerals in the country, including recovering them from other mineral mines, overburden, and tailings.
A

Barytes, Felspar, Mica, and Quartz

  • After this, the mining of these minerals will be regulated under Section 8A of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) (MMDR) Act, 1957.
  • This classification is based on the recommendation of an inter-ministerial committee on mines and minerals, chaired by National Institution for Transforming India(NITI) Aayog member Dr Vijay Kumar Saraswat.
142
Q

the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA), under the Ministry of Civil Aviation (MoCA), granted Datia Airport, in Datia ______(state), a license as a public aerodrome under the 3C/Visual Flight Rules (VFR) category.

A

Madhya Pradesh

  • With this approval, Datia Airport is now the 8th public airport in MP, open for public use. It will improve regional connectivity and support economic growth in the Datia region
143
Q

Government think tank National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog based on New Delhi (Delhi) formed a committee to develop a plan aimed at transforming All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), New Delhi, Delhi, into a premier institution for medical practice and research.

  • The committee chaired by its member, _____, will evaluate existing systems and propose comprehensive reforms with defined timelines.
A

Dr. V K Paul

144
Q

Darjeeling (West Bengal, WB) based ______, popularly known as Darjeeling Zoo opened India’s first bio-bank (Frozen Zoo) and an animal museum.

  • It is opened as part of the national conservation plan, in collaboration with Darjeeling Zoo and the Hyderabad (Telangana) based Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB) under the Ministry of Science and Technology (MoS&T).
A

Padmaja Naidu Himalayan Zoological Park (PNHZP)

Note: The bio-bank, established in July 2024, has already collected Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) and tissue samples from 60 animals across 23 species.

145
Q

the Desh Ka Prakriti Parikshan Abhiyaan, under the Ministry of AYUSH (Ayurveda,
Yoga & Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homoeopathy), achieved _____ Guinness World Records, underscoring India’s commitment to holistic healthcare and the global recognition of Ayurveda.

The Desh Ka Prakriti Parikshan initiative aims to bring Ayurveda to every individual’s doorstep by educating people about their unique Prakriti, or Ayurvedic body type. It was launched on Ayurveda day on October 29, 2024

A

five

  • The New Delhi (Delhi) based National Commission for Indian System of Medicine (NCISM), with support from the Ministry of AYUSH, celebrated the completion of the first phase of the Abhiyaan in Mumbai, Maharashtra. The campaign reached over 1.29 crore individuals, exceeding the target of 1 crore, during the closing ceremony
146
Q

The Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) in partnership with Pune International Centre (PIC) organised the _____ edition of Asia Economic Dialogue (AED), an annual flagship ‘Track 1.5 Dialogue’ on geoeconomics, which was held from February 20 to 22, 2025 at PIC in Pune, Maharashtra.

  • Theme of 9th AED: ‘Economic Resilience and Resurgence in an Era of Fragmentation’.
  • The 9th edition of AED, aimed at addressing the complexities of economic fragmentation and identifying actionable pathways for resilience and resurgence.
A

9th

i. The dialogue was focused on exploring key contemporary sectors in geoeconomics, including Artificial Intelligence (AI), Cyber Security, African Transformation, Blue Economy, the International Monetary System (IMS), Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) and Climate Change.

ii. The dialogue has brought together a diverse group of academicians, policymakers, and industry experts from various countries: Australia, Egypt, Indonesia, Japan, Nepal, the Netherlands, Singapore, South Africa and Sri Lanka.

147
Q

_____ Artists (classical dancers) achieved a ‘Guinness World Record’ by performing continuously for over 24 hours, 9 minutes, and 26 seconds in a grand ‘Classical Dance Relay Marathon’ at the inauguration of 51st Khajuraho Dance Festival held in Madhya Pradesh (MP).

  • The Classical Dance Relay Marathon was held from February 19-20, 2025 , inaugurated by Chief Minister (CM) of MP, Mohan Yadav.
  • The marathon featured captivating performances of classical dance forms, including Kathak, Bharatnatyam, Kuchipudi, Mohiniyattam, and Odissi.
A

139

i. This monumental achievement was registered in the name of MP and the Guinness Book team declared it as a world record and handed over the certificate to CM, Mohan Yadav.

ii. The 51st Khajuraho Dance Festival is being held from February 20 to 26, 2025 to celebrate and promote Indian classical dance forms, attracting artists and audiences from around the world.

148
Q

______ (FATF), the global watchdog against financial crimes, conducted its second Plenary Mexico’s Elisa de Anda Madrazo’s two-year Presidency from 19 to 21 February 2025 at Paris, France.

  • Delegates representing over 200 members of the FATF Global Network and observer organisations, including the International Monetary Fund (IMF), United Nations (UN), World Bank, International Criminal Police Organization (INTERPOL), and the Egmont Group of Financial Intelligence Units, participated in the Meeting,
A

The Financial Action Task Force

  • The Plenary meeting held on the sidelines of FATF Week starts from February 17 2025.
  • Presidency Term: Elisa de Anda Madrazo’s Presidency began on 1 July 2024 and is set to conclude on 30 June 2026.
149
Q

FATF Plenary Meeting

Here are the major outcomes:

  1. Membership & Global Cooperation
    a. Guest Jurisdiction Initiative:
    * _____ joined the FATF as a guest to enhance regional representation. Kenya joins the Cayman Islands and Senegal who began participating in the guest initiative in October 2024.b. Russia’s Suspension:
    * Russia’s membership remains suspended (since February 2024) over concerns about sanctions evasion.c. Leadership Change:
    * The Plenary selected Mr. Giles Thomson, from the United Kingdom (UK) to be the next FATF Vice President. He will succeed Mr Jeremy Weil from Canada, who has served in this role since 1 July 2023 and will step down on 30 June 2025. Mr. Thomson will hold this position for two years from 1 July 2025.
  2. Compliance Updates: Grey List Changes

Jurisdictions Added to Increased Monitoring (Grey List):
* Laos or Lao People’s Democratic Republic (PDR) and Nepal were added due to strategic deficiencies in their anti-money laundering / countering terrorism financing (AML/CFT) frameworks. Both countries committed to resolving gaps in supervision, financial intelligence, and prosecution of financial crimes.

Jurisdiction Removed from Grey List:
* _____ exited the list after successfully addressing its action plan. Key achievements included stricter supervision of casinos, improved access to beneficial ownership data, and enhanced TF investigations. The FATF urged continued collaboration with the Asia/Pacific Group to sustain reforms.

A

Kenya ;

Philippines

  1. High-Risk Jurisdictions (Black List) Countries subject to enhanced due diligence or countermeasures:
    * North Korea (DPRK): Continued failure to curb weapons proliferation financing. FATF urged stricter countermeasures, including terminating banking ties.
    * Iran: Still non-compliant with terror financing norms. Countermeasures reinstated due to incomplete reforms.
    * Myanmar: Limited progress on AML/CFT. Enhanced due diligence advised; countermeasures may follow if no improvement by June 2025.
  2. Strategic Initiatives to Strengthen Global Financial Systems
    a. Financial Inclusion & Risk-Based Approach:
    * FATF revised its Recommendation 1 to promote financial inclusion for 1.4 billion unbanked individuals. Simplified due diligence will be applied in low-risk scenarios to expand access to financial services.
    * A new guidance document will be developed (with public consultation) to help regulators implement these changes without compromising AML/CFT measures.

b. Combating Online Child Sexual Exploitation:
* A landmark report (to be released in March 2025) will guide authorities to track financial flows linked to live-streamed child abuse and “sextortion.” Case studies and expert inputs will aid in detecting offenders through transaction patterns.

c. Women in FATF Initiative:
* A successful event Women in FATF and the Global Network programme was held to support women’s careers within the FATF and the Global Network. The FATF will launch its 2nd edition of the FATF Mentoring Programme in March 2025.

150
Q

About Financial Action Task Force:

President – Elisa de Anda Modrazo (Mexico)

Headquarters- Paris, France

Founded – _____

Note – The FATF Plenary meets three times a year, usually in February, June and October.

151
Q

The 17th edition of the International Defence Exhibition (IDEX) and the 8th edition of the Naval Defence and Maritime Security Exhibition (NAVDEX) were held from 17 to 21 February 2025 held at the Abu Dhabi National Exhibition Centre. (ADNEC) Centre in Abu Dhabi, United Arab Emirates (UAE) under the patronage of His Highness Sheikh Mohamed bin Zayed Al Nahyan, President of the UAE.

  • It was organized by ADNEC Group in collaboration with the Ministry of Defence, UAE and Tawazun Council, UAE.
  • The exhibitions featured 1,565 exhibitors from 65 countries, fostering international cooperation and technological advancements.
A

India actively participated in IDEX and NAVDEX 2025, reaffirming its commitment to defence innovation and global partnerships.

152
Q

India and Bangladesh have agreed to launch a new ‘hotline’ or links of communication for effective communication between border forces. This link will be established between the Additional Director General (ADG) of the Border Security Force (BSF) eastern command based in Kolkata, West Bengal (WB) and his Border Guard Bangladesh (BGB) counterpart based in Dhaka, Bangladesh.

  • This decision was finalized during the _____ Director General (DG)-level Border Coordination Conference, bi-annual meeting held from February 18 to 20, 2025 at BSF headquarters in New Delhi, Delhi.
153
Q

the Government of India (GoI) was honored with the ‘Prince Michael Decade of Action Road Safety Award’, the highest award in the field, at the 4th Ministerial Conference on Road Safety held in _______. India shared this honor with the Kingdom of Morocco, as both countries were recognized for their efforts in improving road safety.

A

Marrakech, Morocco

  • The conference was organised by the Kingdom of Morocco and the World Health Organization (WHO). The theme of the conference is “Commit to Life”.
  • The Ministerial Conference united transportation leaders from multiple countries to create a strategic plan focused on reducing global road fatalities by 50% by 2030, emphasizing the global collaboration to enhance road safety.
154
Q

Visakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh, AP) based Andhra Pradesh MedTech Zone’s (AMTZ) Solar Powered Tricycle won the Outstanding Project Award at the BRICS Industrial Innovation Contest 2024. This mobility solution was developed by the Assistive Technology Centre (ATC) at AMTZ.

A
  • The Solar Powered Tricycle was officially launched by Union Minister Nitin Jairam Gadkari, Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (MoRTH), in August 2024.
156
Q

India’s Pankaj Advani won the 2025 Asian Snooker Championship’s men’s title, defeating Amir Sarkosh of Iran in the final. He won the championship for the fourteenth time in the Asian Snooker and Billiards tournaments.

  • The Asian Confederation of Billiards Sports (ACBS) organized the Men’s, Women’s, and Men’s under-21 Asian Snooker Championship, which was held in Doha, Qatar, from February 15 to 21, 2025, and was hosted by the Qatar Billiards Sports Federation (QBSF).
A

i. Pankaj Advani has won five Asian snooker championships in team, 6-red, and 15-red categories. He has also won two gold medals at the Asian Games (Guangzhou 2010, Doha 2006) and nine Asian Billiards titles.

ii. He has won 18 billiards world titles, including the International Billiards and Snooker Federation (IBSF) World Billiards Championship 17 times and the World Team Billiards Championship once.

iii. The Indian government has given him several awards for his accomplishments, including the Arjuna Award in 2004, Khel Ratna in 2006, Padma Shri in 2009, and Padma Bhushan in 2018.

iv. Narantuya Bayarsaikhan of Mongolia defeated Ng On Yee of Hong Kong, China in the women’s section of the 2025 Asian Snooker Championship.

v. Shaheen Sabzi of Iran defeated Zihao Dong of China in the under-21 men’s title of the 2025 Asian Snooker Championship.

157
Q

Padma Shri Awardee and renowned Odissi dancer ______ passed away at the age of 92 in New Delhi, Delhi. He was born on 6 July 1933 in Cuttack district, Odisha.

  • He was awarded the Padma Shri, India’s fourth-highest civilian award, in the field of Arts in 2010 and he is considered the “Father of Odissi dance“
A

Mayadhar Raut

158
Q

Eminent Author and Sahitya Akademi Awardee, _______ released her 25th book titled ‘Life on Mars: Collected Stories’, published by Speaking Tiger Books.

  • The book is a collection of 15 stories which explores themes of love, lust, fate, and death.
A

Namita Gokhale

i. The book is divided into two sections namely, ‘Love and Other Derangements’ and ‘The Mirror of the Mahabharata’.

ii. So far, Namita Gokhale has written 24 books including fiction and non-fiction. Some of her famous books are: ‘Shakuntala’, ‘Paro: Dreams of Passion’, ‘Things to leave behind’, among others.

159
Q

24th February

A

The Central Excise Day is observed annually on 24th February across India to honor the contributions of the Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs (CBIC), the authority responsible for managing indirect taxes in India. The day marks the anniversary of the enactment of the Central Excise and Salt Act, 1944, on 24th February, 1944.

  • It aims to promote the implementation of rules and regulations to ensure the highest standard of excise services.
  • Objective: The primary objective of this observance is to encourage excise department employees across India to perform their duties efficiently while focusing on curbing corruption in the goods manufacturing industry.
160
Q

the Finance Minister of Gujarat Kanubhai Mohanlal Desai presented a Rs 3,70,250.35 crore (Rs 3.70 trillion) budget for the Financial Year 2025-26 (FY26) in the state legislative assembly (Gujarat Legislative Assembly), without proposing any new taxes. The budget outlay for FY26 witnessed an increase of _____ or Rs 37, 785 crore compared to previous FY budget.

  • Also, the budget was based on 5 key pillars: social security, human resource development, infrastructure development, green growth and development of economic activities.
  • The state government announced a tax relief of Rs 148 crore by reducing the stamp duty on mortgage deeds and the motor vehicle tax or Electric Vehicle (EVs)
161
Q

Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi released the _____ installment of the Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) scheme in Bhagalpur, Bihar.

  • With the release of the 19th installment, more than 9.8 crore farmers including 2.41 crore female farmers across the country are estimated to benefit from the scheme and will receive the direct financial assistance exceeding Rs 22, 000 crore through Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT).
  • The release of the latest installment, reaffirmed the Government of India (GoI)’s commitment to rural development and agricultural prosperity.
162
Q

the Ministry of AYUSH (Ayurveda, Yoga, and Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha, and Homoeopathy) bestowed the prestigious ‘National Dhanwantari Ayurveda Awards’ for 2025 on 3 distinguished practitioners in recognition of their outstanding contributions to the field of traditional Indian medicine.

A

Winners of National Dhanwantari Ayurveda Awards 2025:

i. Vaidya Tara Chand Sharma, known for his mastery as a Nadi Vaidya, is also an distinguished author.

ii. Vaidya Maya Ram Uniyal, eminent scholar of Dravyaguna Vigyana with over 60 years of service. He was also honoured with the Vanoushadi Vanaspati and Lifetime Achievement Awards which further consolidates his legacy in raising Ayurveda’s stature worldwide.

iii. Vaidya Sameer Govind Jamadagni, founder of the Vishwa Vyakhyanmala national conference and Vishwa Ayurveda Prabodhini. He has an experience of over 40 years in the field of Ayurveda.

163
Q

the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) and _____ signed two Memoranda of Understanding (MoUs) to improve innovation, enhance data analytic skills, and support technology-driven governance practices.

A

Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras, Chennai (Tamil Nadu, TN)

The key focus areas of the MoU are data governance and security, big data and digital infrastructure readiness, academic and research collaboration, advanced auditing practices, sustainability and governance, and joint research and development initiatives.

164
Q

The National Tribal Festival 2025 known as Aadi Mahotsav 2025, a flagship initiative organized by Tribal Co-operative Marketing Development Federation of India Limited (TRIFED) under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs (MoTA), was inaugurated by the President of India, Droupadi Murmu, at the Major Dhyan Chand National Stadium in New Delhi (Delhi).

  • The festival, held from February 16 to 24, 2025 focused on empowering Tribal Communities through Culture and Commerce by providing them with an extensive marketplace to promote their products and reach modern consumers.
  • The 2025 festival’s theme : “A Celebration of the Spirit of Entrepreneurship, Tribal Craft, Culture, Cuisine, and Commerce,” embodies the essence of tribal life.
A
  • The festival, held from February 16 to 24, 2025 focused on empowering Tribal Communities through Culture and Commerce by providing them with an extensive marketplace to promote their products and reach modern consumers.
  • The 2025 festival’s theme: “A Celebration of the Spirit of Entrepreneurship, Tribal Craft, Culture, Cuisine, and Commerce,” embodies the essence of tribal life.
165
Q

Union Minister Dr. Mansukh Mandaviya, Ministry of Labour and Employment (MoL&E); Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports (MYAS) inaugurated the two-day Regional Dialogue on Social Justice and the _____ Foundation Day of Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) in New Delhi, Delhi.

166
Q

a two-day coastal security exercise, _______, conducted in West Bengal (WB). The exercise was coordinated by Kolkata (WB) based Coast Guard Region (North East, NE). The State Coastal Security Operation Centre (SCSOC) at Headquarters Coast Guard District No. 8, Haldia was the nerve centre for the exercise.

  • The drill validated coastal security Standard Operating Procedures (SOPs) across the 158 kilometre (km) coastline.
A

‘Sagar Kavach’

i. The exercise witnessed simulated scenarios included hijacking of fishing boats, smuggling, Improvised Explosive Device (IED) planting, and attacks on vital assets.

ii. The exercise also featured coordinated sea and air surveillance by the Indian Coast Guard(ICG) to enhance readiness against terror threats.

167
Q

the Indian Navy (IN) handed over an ______, Landing Ship Tank, to the Maharashtra Tourism Development Corporation (MTDC) at Karwar, Maharashtra on an ‘as is where is’ basis for conversion into India’s first underwater museum and artificial reef.

  • The MTDC has taken the ship under their charge to convert it into an underwater museum and artificial reef near the Nivati Rocks, off the coast of Vengurla in Sindhudurg District, Maharashtra.
A

Indian Naval Ship (INS) Guldar

i. The conversion process will include a complete cleaning of the ship to remove any potential pollutants or hazardous materials ensuring environmental approvals as per guidelines.

ii. The INS Guldar was built at Gdynia Shipyard, Poland, and was commissioned into the IN in 1985.

iii. The ship was assigned to the Eastern Naval Command (ENC) from 1985 to 1995. Then it was transferred to the Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC), where it remained until its decommissioning in 2024.

168
Q

Union Minister Manohar Lal, Ministry of Power (MoP) and Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA) inaugurated the Prakriti 2025, an international conference on carbon markets, held in New Delhi, Delhi.

A
  • The conference was organized by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under MoP.
  • The conference aimed to raise awareness, knowledge, and resources to drive transformational climate initiatives and promote a sustainable, low-carbon future.
169
Q

the 6th edition of the India-Japan joint military exercise, ______, began at the East Fuji Manoeuvre Training Area in Japan.

  • The exercise is scheduled from 24th February to 9th March 2025.
  • The exercise aims to boost interoperability between India and Japan while focusing on joint urban warfare and counter-terrorism operations under the United Nations (UN) mandate.
A

‘Dharma Guardian’

i. Exercise DHARMA GUARDIAN is an annual event conducted, since 2008, alternatively in India and Japan.

ii. The 5th edition of the exercise was held at the Mahajan Field Firing Ranges in Rajasthan, India, from February to March 2024

170
Q

the Appointment Committee of the Cabinet (ACC) chaired by Prime Minister (PM) Narendra Modi has approved an extension of tenure for _______ as Drug Controller General of India (DCGI) head of India’s apex health regulatory body i.e. Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation (CDSCO) on a contract basis for 1 year.

A

Rajeev Singh Raghuvanshi

  • This extension will come into effect from March 1, 2025, or until the appointment of a regular incumbent to the post, whichever is earlier.
  • This approval came after the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoH&FW) proposed his name to the ACC as DCGI until a suitable candidate is found
171
Q

Astronomers generated the first-ever detailed geological map of the Moon’s south pole, where India’s Chandrayaan-3 lander, _______, landed on 23 August 2023.

A

Vikram

  • The map was developed by researchers from the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL) in Ahmedabad, Gujarat, Panjab University in Chandigarh, and the Laboratory for Electro-Optics Systems (LEOS), Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), Bengaluru, Karnataka.
  • Data was collected from the rover Pragyan, launched by Vikram on a nine-day mission to analyze the chemical composition of the regolith, the loose rock fragments, and dust that cover the lunar surface.
  • The new map of Vikram’s landing site was published in the journal Advances in Space Research.
172
Q

India concluded the ‘2025 Archery Asia Cup-World Ranking Tournament, Stage I’ organized by World Archery Asia (WAA), held from February 16 to 23, 2025 in ______. Indian Archers topped the medal tally with an outstanding performance of securing ____ medals in the competition including 5 Gold, 2 Silver and 1 Bronze.

A

Bangkok, Thailand ;

8

  • South Korea finished second in the medal tally with 5 medals, including 2 gold.
  • India set a new Under-21 World Record by scoring 2129 in Men’s Compound Team.
173
Q

February 18

A

International Asperger’s Day 2025 – February 18 International Asperger’s Day is observed globally on 18th February to raise awareness about the importance of Asperger syndrome for individuals and the community. Which was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 2007.

  • Asperger syndrome is a developmental disorder that is considered part of the autism spectrum. It primarily affects a person’s ability to socialize and communicate effectively with others.
174
Q

Government e-Marketplace (GeM), Department of Commerce (DoC), Ministry of Commerce and Industry (MoC&I) celebrated____ years of Startups, Women & Youth Advantage through eTransactions (SWAYATT) initiative at its headquarters in New Delhi, Delhi.

GeM signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with New Delhi (Delhi)-based FICCILadies Organisation (FLO), a division of Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry (FICCI). Through this MoU, GeM aims to provide direct access for women entrepreneurs with government buyers, sans intermediaries, will further ensure better product prices, generating job opportunities and promoting inclusive growth. This collaboration will extend adequate means of training, onboarding and linkages, which will empower local businesses, create inclusive economic growth, improve competition and boost value addition in public spending.

A

6

  • The initiative was launched on 19th February, 2019 by the MoC&I, which aimed to promote the participation of women-led enterprises and youth in public procurement.
  • It is part of GeM’s foundational pillar of social inclusion which is committed to improve ease of doing business and establish direct market linkages to annual procurement for startups, women entrepreneurs, Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs), Self-Help Groups (SHGs) and youth, especially those from backward sections of the society.
175
Q

About GeM:

i. It is an online platform for public in India that was launched on ______ by the MoC&I with the objective of creating an inclusive, efficient, and transparent platform for the buyers and sellers to implement procurement activities in a fair and competitive manner.

ii. The procurement is done on GeM portal through government authorised users and it is made mandatory by the Ministry of Finance (MoF) by adding a new Rule No. 149 in the General Financial Rules, 2017.

iii. The platform has been developed by GeM Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV), designated as the National Public Procurement Portal as Section 8 company registered under the Companies Act, 2013.

Key Progress Made by GeM:

i. GeM addressed the challenges of ‘access to market’, ‘access to finance’ and ‘access to value-addition’ through proper e-market linkages in public procurement, which enabled startups to complete orders worth Rs 35,950 crore.

ii. Women entrepreneurs account _____ of the total seller base on GeM with a cumulative 1,77,786 Udyam-verified women MSMEs registered on the GeM portal, having completed a cumulative order worth Rs 46,615 crore.

A

August 9, 2016 ;

8%

Key Targets:
i. GeM has set an ambitious target of onboarding 1 lakh Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), MoC&I-registered startups onto the portal.

ii. GeM aims to double the number of women entrepreneurs on its portal and to increase their percentage share in overall procurement of the country from the current 3.78%, by fostering strategic collaborations and capacity-building efforts with last-mile MSMEs, SHGs, Farmer Producer Organisations (FPOs), among others.

176
Q

______, through the Centre for United Nations Peacekeeping (CUNPK), India hosted the first-ever ‘Conference on Women Peacekeepers from the Global South’ at the Manekshaw Centre in New Delhi (Delhi) from February 24 to 25, 2025. The conference was organized by the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) in collaboration with the Ministry of Defence (MoD).

i. India has been a key contributor to UN peacekeeping missions for over 70 years, providing nearly 300,000 troops across 50 missions since the 1950s.

ii. A pioneer in deploying women peacekeepers, India became the first country to contribute an all-women Formed Police Unit (FPU) in 2007, serving in Liberia until 2016.

  • Dr. Kiran Bedi was the first female UN Police Advisor, serving from 2003 to 2005.
  • As of February 2025, India has over 154 women uniformed personnel deployed in 6 ongoing UN peacekeeping missions, including 3 Female Engagement Teams (FETs) in Abyei, the Democratic Republic of Congo, and South Sudan.
A

The Indian Army (IA)

  • The theme of the Conference is “Women in Peacekeeping: A Global South Perspective”.
  • The conference united women peacekeepers from 35 leading Troop Contributing Countries (TCCs) from the Global South, senior policymakers from the United Nations (UNs).
  • The conference featured sessions on topics such as addressing sexual exploitation and abuse, leveraging technology in peacekeeping, and promoting regional cooperation among Global South nations.
177
Q

About Centre for United Nations Peacekeeping (CUNPK):

i. CUNPK is an Indian institution dedicated to enhancing India’s contributions to UN peacekeeping operations.

ii. CUNPK was established in _____ by the Indian Army with encouragement from the UN Department of Peacekeeping Operations (DPKO) and was later nurtured at the United Service Institution (USI) of India, with support from the MEA and the Armed Forces.

iii. CUNPK offers comprehensive training programs for military personnel, both Indian and International, focusing on various aspects of UN peacekeeping.

178
Q

The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), in partnership with MyGov, is set to launch an exciting data-visualization hackathon, “Innovate with GoIStats,” from 25 February to 31 March 2025.

  • The theme of the hackathon is “Data-Driven Insights for Viksit Bharat”.
  • The hackathon aims to inspire students and researchers in India to use the extensive official data produced by the National Statistics Office (NSO) to create innovative data-driven insights.
A

i. The hackathon will encourage participants to explore and analyse official statistics from the reports, microdata, and other datasets on the Ministry’s website, such as the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), Household Consumer Expenditure Survey (HCES), Annual Survey of Industries (ASI), Consumer Price Index (CPI), Gross Domestic Product (GDP).

  • They will create impactful visualizations to support evidence-based policymaking for Viksit Bharat.

ii. The Hackathon will take place on the MyGov platform. Participants may be undergraduate (UG), postgraduate (PG), or research students.

iii. A panel of industry and academic experts will choose the top 30 entries and will get prize money.

  • The first prize will be Rs 2 lakh, followed by two second prizes of Rs 1 lakh each, two third prizes of Rs 50,000 each, and twenty-five consolation prizes of Rs 20,000 each.
179
Q

Union Minister Piyush Goyal, Ministry of Commerce & Industry (MoC&I) and Jonathan Reynolds, Secretary of State for the Department for Business and Trade, the United Kingdom (UK) have announced the resumption of negotiations for the proposed Free Trade Agreement (FTA) between the two countries in New Delhi, Delhi.

i. The trade between India and the UK has increased from USD 20.36 billion in the Financial Year 2022-23 (FY23) to USD 21.34 billion in FY24.

ii. The UK emerged as 6th largest investor in India contributing USD 35.3 billion between April 2000 and September 2024.

iii. The bilateral trade is valued at GBP 41 billion and provides more than 6 lakh job opportunities across both countries.

iv. As per the UK government, India is the 2nd largest source of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) into the UK over the last 5 years, with a 28% Year-on-Year (Y-o-Y) increase in investment.

A
  • This FTA is estimated to double or even triple bilateral trade from the current USD 20 billion in the next 10 years.
  • Other than FTA, both countries are negotiating on Bilateral Investment Treaty (BIT) and a social security agreement called ‘Double Contribution Convention Agreement’.

A Free trade Agreement (FTA) is an agreement between two or more countries where the countries agree on certain obligations that affect trade in goods and services, and protections for investors and intellectual property rights, among other topics.

180
Q

India achieved a major milestone in transportation with the unveiling of the first hyperloop test track at ______. The 422-meter (m)-long facility was developed with the support of the Ministry of Railways (MoR).

A

Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras in Chennai (Tamil Nadu, TN)

  • It is part of a broader initiative to develop a full-scale Hyperloop system, with the Mumbai-Pune corridor being a prime candidate for the first commercial project.

Note: Hyperloop Technology was first proposed by Elon Musk in 2013, aiming to revolutionize long-distance travel by significantly reducing travel times.

181
Q

Denmark launched the _______, a strategic initiative aimed at enhancing collaboration between Denmark and India in sustainable energy solutions. This partnership underscores both nations’ commitment to achieving global carbon neutrality.

  • The primary goal of GTAI is to establish a collaborative ecosystem that connects businesses, government agencies, researchers, and financial stakeholders from both Denmark and India.
  • This alliance seeks to drive innovation and contribute to the environmental objectives of both countries.
A

Green Transition Alliance India (GTAI)

i. India has set an ambitious target to achieve net-zero emissions by 2070. In contrast, Denmark aims for the same goal by 2045.

ii. The establishment of GTAI represents a significant step under the Green Strategic Partnership (GSP) established in 2020, reflecting both countries’ dedication to addressing climate change and promoting sustainable energy practices.

iii. GTAI was established as a strategic platform to bring together leading players in the global green transition, drawing inspiration from the successful Green Fuels Alliance India (GFAI) and Wind Alliance India (WAI).
* This alliance aims to support India’s ambitious climate goals by fostering collaboration among
various sectors.

iv. GTAI will operate through 3 working groups focusing on Renewable Energy (RE), Green Fuels, and Energy Efficiency (EE).
* These groups aim to keep pace with evolving industry trends in both Denmark and India, fostering a dynamic and responsive approach to sustainable energy challenges.

v. This initiative marks a significant milestone to promote sustainable energy solutions and underscores the importance of international collaboration in achieving global environmental goals.

182
Q

_______ clinched the
2024–25 Indian Super League (ISL) League Winners’ Shield, finishing the regular season as the top team.

A

Mohun Bagan Super Giant (MBSG) football club (also known as Mariners)

The Kolkata-based club secured the Shield with a dramatic 1–0 victory over Odisha FC at Vivekananda Yuba Bharati Krirangan (Salt Lake Stadium), in Kolkata, West Bengal (WB).

  • This triumph marked MSBSG’s second consecutive ISL Shield and made them the first team in ISL history to successfully defend the League Winners’ Shield.
183
Q

February 27

A
  1. National Protein Day is observed annually on 27 February across India to raise awareness about the vital role, protein plays in maintaining a healthy diet. The day highlights the importance of protein for overall growth and development, while also promoting the wide variety of protein-rich options available to meet dietary needs. February 27 2025, marks the 6th observance of National Protein Day. National Protein Day, celebrated on February 27, began in India in 2020 with the launch of the “Right to Protein” (RTP), a national-level public health initiative to raise awareness about the importance of adequate protein consumption. The first-ever National Protein Day was observed on February 27 2020.
  2. World Non-Governmental Organisation (NGO) Day is observed annually on 27 February across the globe to recognize, celebrate, and honor the contributions of NGOs and Non-Profit Organizations (NPOs) that contribute to society all year round. This day also acknowledges the selfless efforts of volunteers who support these organizations. 27 February 2025 marks the observance of the 12th Edition of World NGO Day. The theme for World NGO Day 2025: “Empowering Grassroots Movements for a Sustainable Future” highlights the need to empower local communities for a sustainable, inclusive future. There is no officially declared theme for World NGO Day 2025, but “Empowering Grassroots Movements for a Sustainable Future” is widely mentioned in news sites.
184
Q

The government of Australia unveiled a new roadmap to expand its economic partnership with the Government of India (GoI) by launching the ______ with an investment of USD 16 million. This initiative aims to boost trade, enhance bilateral investments, and strengthen collaboration between businesses in both nations.

  • The strategy highlights four key “superhighways of growth” where Australia has a competitive advantage: clean energy, education and skills, agribusiness, and tourism.
A

‘Australia-India Trade and Investment Accelerator Fund (TIAF)’

i. The initiative aims to enhance cooperation in key sectors such as defence, sports, culture, space, and technology, reinforcing mutual economic resilience.

ii. Additionally, an extra USD 4 million will be allocated to expand the Maitri (Friendship) Grants Program, which aims to strengthen business, cultural, and people-to-people relations between Australia and India.

iii. The roadmap was developed based on extensive consultations across every Australian state and territory, as well as key stakeholders in India.

iv. The initiative seeks to produce long-term economic benefits for both countries by encouraging increased collaboration and investment, as well as assisting firms in navigating India’s dynamic and expanding market.

v. India is expected to become the third-largest economy by 2030; therefore, the strategy also aligns with India’s economic direction. Australia is working to strengthen links with India’s businesses and communities in recognition of the enormous trade and investment potential.

185
Q

The New Delhi (Delhi) based Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Government of India (GoI), Ministry of Commerce and Industry (MoC&I), signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Paytm (Pay Through Mobile) owned by the Uttar Pradesh based ______ to promote innovation and accelerate the growth of fintech and manufacturing startups in India.

A

One97 Communications Limited

i. The partnership aims to assist fintech hardware entrepreneurs in developing and scaling payment and financial technology solutions by providing them with innovation guidance and mentorship.

ii. It also provides regulatory and compliance support through workshops and guidance in collaboration with industry and government entities.

iii. The agreement also provides infrastructure and market access support, allowing businesses to test, validate, and enhance their products while leveraging Paytm’s enormous merchant network.

iv. Additionally, through its Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) arm, Paytm Foundation nurtures deeptech startups in Climate Tech, Web3, Agritech, and Mobility.

186
Q

Bengaluru (Karnataka) based Centre for Cellular and Molecular Platforms (C-CAMP), Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Ministry of Science and Technology (MoS&T), Government of India (GoI), and PariSanté Campus, a leading digital health innovation cluster in France signed an agreement to launch a bilateral innovation collaboration in the healthcare domain called the ______.

A

Indo French Life Sciences Sister Innovation Hub

187
Q

Luton (the United Kingdom, UK)-based air consultancy firm Official Airline Guide (OAG) released its latest report about ‘World’s Busiest Airport in 2025’.

As per the report, Delhi Airport (DEL), named Indira Gandhi International Airport (IGIA) in New Delhi (Delhi) ranked at _____ spot, among the top 10 busiest airports globally as of February 2025.

  • While, Dubai (the United Arab Emirates, UAE)-based Dubai International Airport (with airport code: DXB) continues to be the busiest airport in the world with 4.8 million seats, marking an increase of 1% in capacity compared to February 2024.
A

8th

  • DEL has registered the highest capacity growth in February 2025 as against the same month in 2024, with the number of seats increasing by 3.4% to 3.6 million seats.
  • Also, DEL has improved its ranking by 1 place (9th spot in January 2025) and by 2 places (10th spot in February 2024).

Top 5 Busiest Airports by Seats in 2025:
1. DXB Dubai International
Airport The United Arab
Emirates (UAE)
2. ATL Atlanta Hartsfield-Jackson International Airport the United States of
America (USA)
3. HND Tokyo International
(Haneda) Airport Japan
4. PVG Shanghai Pudong
International Airport China
5. LHR London Heathrow Airport the United Kingdom (UK)

188
Q

_______, in collaboration with the Indian Navy (IN), successfully conducted flight trials of first-of-its-kind, indigenously developed Naval AntiShip Missile Short Range (NASM-SR).

A

The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)

  • The tests were carried out at the Integrated Test Range (ITR) located at Chandipur, off the coast of Odisha, with the missile launched from the IN’s Sea King 42B Helicopter.
  • This missile will replace the Sea Eagle missiles which are currently in use with the IN.
189
Q

Renowned Gujarati Poet, essayist, and Sahitya Akademi Awardee ______ passed away in Mumbai (Maharashtra). He was born on 28th July 1940 in Gondal (Gujarat).

  • In 1990, he was honored with the Sahitya Akademi Award for Gujarati literature for his insightful essay collection, ‘Statue’.
A

Anil Ramanath Joshi